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Everything153116638656

## Contents

### Everything:All:V0

Everything153116638656

1) A car traveling at 38.9 mph increases its speed to 43.7 mph in 3 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

a) 2.26 x 10-1 m/s2
b) 4.02 x 10-1 m/s2
c) 7.15 x 10-1 m/s2
d) 1.27 x 100 m/s2
e) 2.26 x 100 m/s2

2) A car traveling at 34.5 miles/hour stops in 1.7 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

a) 9.07 x 10-1 m/s2
b) 1.61 x 100 m/s2
c) 2.87 x 100 m/s2
d) 5.1 x 100 m/s2
e) 9.07 x 100 m/s2

3) A car completes a complete circle of radius 1.7 miles at a speed of 55.1 miles per hour. How many minutes does it take?

a) 1.16 x 101 minutes
b) 1.55 x 101 minutes
c) 2.07 x 101 minutes
d) 2.76 x 101 minutes
e) 3.68 x 101 minutes

4) Mr. Smith is backing his car at a speed of 3.57 mph when he hits a cornfield (seed corn). In the course of 2.8 seconds he stops, puts his car in forward drive, and exits the field at a speed of 6.75 mph. What was the magnitude ( absolute value) of his acceleration?

a) 1.85 x 100 miles per hour per second
b) 2.33 x 100 miles per hour per second
c) 2.93 x 100 miles per hour per second
d) 3.69 x 100 miles per hour per second
e) 4.64 x 100 miles per hour per second

5) A car is accelerating uniformly at an acceleration of 3.2m/s/s. At x = 7.5m, the speed is 4m/s. How fast is it moving at x = 12 m?

a) 4.65 m/s.
b) 5.58 m/s.
c) 6.69 m/s.
d) 8.03 m/s.
e) 9.64 m/s.

6) A train accelerates uniformly from 15.75 m/s to 30.375 m/s, while travelling a distance of 357 m. What is the 'average' acceleration?

a) 0.55m/s/s.
b) 0.66m/s/s.
c) 0.79m/s/s.
d) 0.94m/s/s.
e) 1.13m/s/s.

7) What is the acceleration if a car travelling at 8.35 m/s makes a skid mark that is 8.5 m long before coming to rest? (Assume uniform acceleration.)

a) 2.37m/s/2.
b) 2.85m/s/2.
c) 3.42m/s/2.
d) 4.1m/s/2.
e) 4.92m/s/2.

8) A particle accelerates uniformly at 12.5 m/s/s. How long does it take for the velocity to increase from 968 m/s to 1883 m/s?

a) 42.36 s
b) 50.83 s
c) 61 s
d) 73.2 s
e) 87.84 s

9) A ball is kicked horizontally from a height of 3 m, at a speed of 10m/s. How far does it travel before landing?

a) 6.52 m.
b) 7.82 m.
c) 9.39 m.
d) 11.27 m.
e) 13.52 m.

10) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 5.42 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.27 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.17 m/s in the +y direction. What is the value of θ (in radians)?

11) A particle is initially at the origin and moving in the x direction at a speed of 4.3 m/s. It has an constant acceleration of 1.8 m/s2 in the y direction, as well as an acceleration of 0.3 in the x direction. What angle does the velocity make with the x axis at time t = 2.5 s?

a) 36.26 degrees.
b) 41.7 degrees.
c) 47.96 degrees.
d) 55.15 degrees.
e) 63.43 degrees.

12) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 6.54 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.91 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.42 m/s in the +y direction. At what time do they meet?

a) 0.48 s.
b) 0.57 s.
c) 0.69 s.
d) 0.83 s.
e) 0.99 s.

13) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.6 m/s. Mrs. Smith, who is at the front of the train, fires straight towards the back with a bullet that is going forward with respect to Earth at a speed of 23.7 m/s. What was the muzzle speed of her bullet?

a) 15.9 m/s.
b) 23.9 m/s.
c) 35.9 m/s.
d) 53.8 m/s.
e) 80.7 m/s.

14) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 48.1 m/s. The daugher fires at Mr. Smith with a pellet gun whose muzzle speed is 27.7 m/s. She was situated across the isle, perpendicular to the length of the train. What is the speed of her bullet with respect to Earth?

a) 16.4 m/s.
b) 24.7 m/s.
c) 37 m/s.
d) 55.5 m/s.
e) 83.3 m/s.

15) The Smith family got in trouble for having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.1 m/s. Mr. Smith is charged with having fired a pellet gun at his daughter (directly across the isle) with a bullet that had a speed of 95.6 m/s with respect to Earth. How fast was the bullet going relative to the daughter (i.e. train)?

a) 69.3 m/s.
b) 83.2 m/s.
c) 99.8 m/s.
d) 119.8 m/s.
e) 143.8 m/s.

16) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.5 m/s. Mr. Smith is at the back of the train and fires a pellet gun with a muzzle speed of 22.5 m/s at Mrs. Smith who is at the front of the train. What is the speed of the bullet with respect to Earth?

a) 46.7 m/s.
b) 70 m/s.
c) 105 m/s.
d) 157.5 m/s.
e) 236.3 m/s.

17) A mass with weight (mg) of 37 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. The angle between the two strings (i.e. where they are attached to the mass) is 44 degrees. What is the tension in the string?

a) 11.4 N.
b) 13.1 N.
c) 15.1 N.
d) 17.4 N.
e) 20 N.

18) A mass with weight (mg) 8.7 newtons is on a horzontal surface. It is being pulled on by a string at an angle of 30 degrees above the horizontal, with a force equal to 4.08 newtons. If this is the maximum force before the block starts to move, what is the static coefficient of friction?

a) 0.44
b) 0.53
c) 0.64
d) 0.76
e) 0.92

19) A mass with weight (mg) equal to 37 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. Each string makes the (same) angle of 65 degrees with respect to the horizontal. What is the tension in each string?

a) 15.4 N.
b) 17.7 N.
c) 20.4 N.
d) 23.5 N.
e) 27 N.

20) A 3.1 kg mass is sliding along a surface that has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.43 . In addition to the surface friction, there is also an air drag equal to 12 N. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the acceleration?

a) 4.6 m/s2.
b) 5.3 m/s2.
c) 6.1 m/s2.
d) 7 m/s2.
e) 8.1 m/s2.

21) A sled of mass 5.2 kg is at rest on a perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 46N at an angle of 32 degress above the horizontal. How long will it take to reach a speed of 9.1 m/s?

a) 1.05 s
b) 1.21 s
c) 1.39 s
d) 1.6 s
e) 1.84 s

22) A sled of mass 2.6 kg is on perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 19.2N. At what angle above the horizontal must the string pull in order to achieve an accelerations of 2.4 m/s2?

a) 53.7 degrees
b) 61.8 degrees
c) 71 degrees
d) 81.7 degrees
e) 93.9 degrees

23) A sled of mass 5.2 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 45.3N at an angle of 59 degress above the horizontal. What is the normal force?

a) 10.55 N.
b) 12.13 N.
c) 13.95 N.
d) 16.04 N.
e) 18.45 N.

24) A sled of mass 5.8 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 42.3N at an angle of 40 degress above the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the friction?

a) 21.31 N.
b) 24.5 N.
c) 28.18 N.
d) 32.4 N.
e) 37.26 N.
25)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 17 degrees, and θ3 is 30 degrees. The tension T3 is 46 N. What is the tension, T1?
a) 36.22 N.
b) 41.66 N.
c) 47.91 N.
d) 55.09 N.
e) 63.36 N.
26)
In the figure shown, θ is 32 degrees, and the mass is 2.8 kg. What is T2?
a) 45.03 N.
b) 51.78 N.
c) 59.55 N.
d) 68.48 N.
e) 78.75 N.
27)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 18 degrees , and θ3 is 29 degrees . The mass has a weight of 50 N. What is the tension, T1?
a) 34.19 N.
b) 39.32 N.
c) 45.21 N.
d) 52 N.
e) 59.79 N.
28)
In the figure shown, θ is 32 degrees, and the mass is 2.8 kg. What is T1?
a) 21.2 N.
b) 25.4 N.
c) 30.5 N.
d) 36.6 N.
e) 43.9 N.
29)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 17 degrees, and θ3 is 30 degrees. The tension T3 is 46 N. What is the weight?
a) 20.1 N.
b) 23.1 N.
c) 26.6 N.
d) 30.6 N.
e) 35.2 N.
30)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 6.5 kg, and the mass of m2 is 2.9 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 132 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume that m1 has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.37, and that for m2 the coefficient is 0.48 .
a) 89.1 N
b) 102.5 N
c) 117.9 N
d) 135.5 N
e) 155.9 N

31) Nine barefoot baseball players, with a total mass of 625 kg plays tug of war against five basketball players wearing shoes that provide a static coefficient of friction of 0.54 . The net mass of the (shoed) basketball team is 445 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of the barefoot boys if they lose?

a) 0.263
b) 0.289
c) 0.318
d) 0.35
e) 0.384
32)
In the figure shown (with m1 = 5.1 kg, m2 = 3.5 kg, and Fext = 135 N), what is the acceleration? Assume no friction is present.
a) 13.7 m/s2
b) 15.7 m/s2
c) 18.1 m/s2
d) 20.8 m/s2
e) 23.9 m/s2
33)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 7 kg, and the mass of m2 is 3.6 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 153 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume no friction is present.
a) 66.4 N
b) 76.4 N
c) 87.9 N
d) 101 N
e) 116.2 N

34) Without their shoes, members of a 9 person baseball team have a coefficient of static friction of only 0.36 . But the team wins a game of tug of war due to their superior mass of 683 kg. They are playing against a 5 person basketball team with a net mass of 406 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of static friction of the basketball team?

a) 0.455
b) 0.501
c) 0.551
d) 0.606
e) 0.666

35) A merry-go-round has an angular frequency, ${\displaystyle \omega }$, equal to 0.182 rad/sec. How many minutes does it take to complete 12.5 revolutions?

a) 5.44 minutes.
b) 6.25 minutes.
c) 7.19 minutes.
d) 8.27 minutes.
e) 9.51 minutes.

36) A merry-go round has a period of 0.36 minutes. What is the centripetal force on a 67.1 kg person who is standing 1.19 meters from the center?

a) 4.4 newtons.
b) 5.1 newtons.
c) 5.9 newtons.
d) 6.8 newtons.
e) 7.8 newtons.

37) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 1.29 times more dense than Earth, and a radius that is 1.53 times greater than Earth's?

a) 12.7 m/s2
b) 14.6 m/s2
c) 16.8 m/s2
d) 19.3 m/s2
e) 22.2 m/s2

38) A merry-go round has a period of 0.22 minutes. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction that would allow a 96.9 kg person to stand1.95 meters from the center, without grabbing something?

a) 0.03
b) 0.034
c) 0.039
d) 0.045
e) 0.052

39) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 2.59 times more massive than Earth, and a radius that is 1.75 times greater than Earths?

a) 8.3 m/s2
b) 9.5 m/s2
c) 11 m/s2
d) 12.6 m/s2
e) 14.5 m/s2
40)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}|-|{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
41)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}-{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
42)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/r=d\ell /v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
43)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}|-|{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
44)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell /dv=v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
45)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}-{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
46)
Is ${\displaystyle adt/v=vdt/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
47)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =vdt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
48)
Is ${\displaystyle v/d\ell =r/dv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
49)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
50)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =r/v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
51)
Is ${\displaystyle |d{\vec {v}}|=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
52)
Is ${\displaystyle rd\ell =vdv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
53)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
54) The mass of the cart is 4.0kg, and the spring constant is 5938N/m. If the initial compression of the spring is 5.00m, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
a) 1.89E+03 m
b) 1.99E+03 m
c) 2.09E+03 m
d) 2.19E+03 m
e) 2.30E+03 m
55) What is the highest point the cart reaches if the speed was 2.4m/s, when the cart was situated at a height of 3.8m?,
a) 3.28 m
b) 3.45 m
c) 3.62 m
d) 3.80 m
e) 3.99 m
56) If the initial velocity after leaving the spring is 7.90 m/s, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
a) 2.62 m
b) 2.75 m
c) 2.89 m
d) 3.03 m
e) 3.18 m
57) The spring constant is 704N/m, and the initial compression is 0.13m. What is the mass if the cart reaches a height of 3.02m, before coming to rest?
a) 0.201 kg
b) 0.211 kg
c) 0.222 kg
d) 0.233 kg
e) 0.244 kg

58) You are riding a bicycle on a flat road. Assume no friction or air drag, and that you are coasting. Your speed is 4.9m/s, when you encounter a hill of height 1.14m. What is your speed at the top of the hill?

a) 1.291 m/s
b) 1.368 m/s
c) 1.450 m/s
d) 1.537 m/s
e) 1.630 m/s
59) The cart has a mass of 46.40kg. It is moving at a speed of 3.80m/s, when it is at a height of 3.99m. If the spring constant was 500N/m, what was the initial compression?
a) 2.39 m
b) 2.56 m
c) 2.74 m
d) 2.93 m
e) 3.14 m

60) A car of mass 860 kg is driving on an icy road at a speed of 17 m/s, when it collides with a stationary truck. After the collision they stick and move at a speed of 5.9 m/s. What was the mass of the truck?

a) 1124 kg
b) 1348 kg
c) 1618 kg
d) 1942 kg
e) 2330 kg

61) On object of mass 2.3 kg that is moving at a velocity of 16m/s collides with a stationary object of mass 9.6 kg. What is the final velocity if they stick? (Assume no external friction.)

a) 1.49m/s.
b) 1.79m/s.
c) 2.15m/s.
d) 2.58m/s.
e) 3.09m/s.
62)
A 171 gm bullet strikes a ballistic pendulum of mass 2.41 kg (before the bullet struck). After impact, the pendulum rises by 65 cm. What was the speed of the bullet?
a) 41 m/s.
b) 44 m/s.
c) 47 m/s.
d) 50 m/s.
e) 54 m/s.
63)
A massless bar of length, S = 7.7m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 33.2 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 8.2kg is suspended at a length, L =5.7m from the wall. What is the y (vertical) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
a) 2.09E+01 N
b) 2.53E+01 N
c) 3.06E+01 N
d) 3.71E+01 N
e) 4.50E+01 N
64)
A massless bar of length, S = 8.7m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 26.5 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 7.6kg is suspended at a length, L = 4.7m from the wall. What is the tension, T, in the string?
a) 3.59E+01 N
b) 4.52E+01 N
c) 5.69E+01 N
d) 7.16E+01 N
e) 9.02E+01 N
65)
In the figure shown, L1 = 6.1m, L2 = 4m and L3 = 7.5m. What is F2 if F1 =0.74N and F3 =0N?
a) 6.35E-01 N
b) 7.69E-01 N
c) 9.31E-01 N
d) 1.13E+00 N
e) 1.37E+00 N
66)
In the figure shown, L1 = 5.7m, L2 = 4.5m and L3 = 8.2m. What is F1 if F2 =8.6N and F3 =6.7N?
a) 1.36E+01 N
b) 1.64E+01 N
c) 1.99E+01 N
d) 2.41E+01 N
e) 2.92E+01 N
67)
A massless bar of length, S = 9m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 33.4 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 5.1kg is suspended at a length, L = 5.1m from the wall. What is the x (horizontal) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
a) 2.42E+01 N
b) 2.93E+01 N
c) 3.55E+01 N
d) 4.30E+01 N
e) 5.20E+01 N

68) A car with a tire radius of 0.21 m accelerates from 0 to 26 m/s in 11.1 seconds. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?

a) 9.21 x 100 m
b) 1.12 x 101 m
c) 1.35 x 101 m
d) 1.64 x 101 m
e) 1.98 x 101 m

69) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.37 m and mass 2.1 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.4 revolutions per second. What is the total kinetic energy if the wheel is rotating about a stationary axis?

a) 5.16 x 100 J
b) 6.25 x 100 J
c) 7.58 x 100 J
d) 9.18 x 100 J
e) 1.11 x 101 J

70) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.33 m and mass 2.2 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.3 revolutions per second. What is the moment of inertia?

a) 2.4 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
b) 2.9 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
c) 3.52 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
d) 4.26 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
e) 5.16 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
71)
The moment of inertia of a solid disk of mass, M, and radius, R, is ½ MR2. Two identical disks, each with mass 1.8 kg are attached. The larger disk has a diameter of 0.86 m, and the smaller disk has a diameter of 0.38 m. If a force of 31 N is applied at the rim of the smaller disk, what is the angular acceleration?
a) 1.37 x 101 s-2
b) 1.67 x 101 s-2
c) 2.02 x 101 s-2
d) 2.44 x 101 s-2
e) 2.96 x 101 s-2

72) A cylinder with a radius of 0.29 m and a length of 2.3 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.7 m below the water. The mass of the block is 968.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the fluid on the bottom of the cylinder?

a) 1.44E4 Pa
b) 1.81E4 Pa
c) 2.28E4 Pa
d) 2.87E4 Pa
e) 3.62E4 Pa

73) A cylinder with a radius of 0.28 m and a length of 2.6 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.1 m below the water. The mass of the block is 831.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the water at the top surface?

a) 6.24E3 N
b) 7.86E3 N
c) 9.90E3 N
d) 1.25E4 N
e) 1.57E4 N

74) A cylinder with a radius of 0.29 m and a length of 2.8 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.6 m below the water. The mass of the block is 952.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the pressure at the top face of the cylinder?

a) 3.07E4 Pa
b) 3.72E4 Pa
c) 4.51E4 Pa
d) 5.46E4 Pa
e) 6.62E4 Pa

75) A cylinder with a radius of 0.33 m and a length of 2.9 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.1 m below the water. The mass of the block is 912.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the buoyant force?

a) 9.72E3 N
b) 1.18E4 N
c) 1.43E4 N
d) 1.73E4 N
e) 2.09E4 N

76) A 9.4 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.5 m^3 volume in 7.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 1.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the pressure difference (in Pascals) between the two regions of the pipe?

a) 1.24E5
b) 1.50E5
c) 1.82E5
d) 2.20E5
e) 2.66E5

77) A 6.4 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.8 m^3 volume in 8.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 3.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the speed in the first (wider) pipe?

a) 7.94E-1 m/s
b) 9.62E-1 m/s
c) 1.17E0 m/s
d) 1.41E0 m/s
e) 1.71E0 m/s

78) A 9.2 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.6 m^3 volume in 8.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 4.0 cm (with no loss of flow rate). If two fluid elements at the center of the pipe are separated by 34.0 mm when they are both in the wide pipe, and we neglect turbulence, what is the separation when both are in the narrow pipe?

a) 1.23E2 mm
b) 1.48E2 mm
c) 1.80E2 mm
d) 2.18E2 mm
e) 2.64E2 mm

79) A large cylinder is filled with water so that the bottom is 7.8 m below the waterline. At the bottom is a small hole with a diameter of 5.4E-4 m. How fast is the water flowing at the hole? (Neglect viscous effects, turbulence, and also assume that the hole is so small that no significant motion occurs at the top of the cylinder.)

a) 8.42E0 m/s
b) 1.02E1 m/s
c) 1.24E1 m/s
d) 1.50E1 m/s
e) 1.81E1 m/s

80) What is the root-mean-square of 9, -17, and -8?

a) 1.203 x 101
b) 1.35 x 101
c) 1.514 x 101
d) 1.699 x 101
e) 1.906 x 101

81) What is the rms speed of a molecule with an atomic mass of 19 if the temperature is 78 degrees Fahrenheit?

a) 4.27 x 102 m/s
b) 5.17 x 102 m/s
c) 6.26 x 102 m/s
d) 7.59 x 102 m/s
e) 9.19 x 102 m/s

82) If a molecule with atomic mass equal to 9 amu has a speed of 249 m/s, what is the speed at an atom in the same atmosphere of a molecule with an atomic mass of 31 ?

a) 6.23 x 101 m/s
b) 7.54 x 101 m/s
c) 9.14 x 101 m/s
d) 1.11 x 102 m/s
e) 1.34 x 102 m/s

83) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.61 kg is filled with 0.21 kg of water. What fraction of the heat went into the aluminum?

a) 3.3 x 10-1
b) 3.8 x 10-1
c) 4.5 x 10-1
d) 5.3 x 10-1
e) 6.3 x 10-1

84) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.68 kg is filled with 0.17 kg of water. How much heat does it take to raise both from 47.8 C to 83.2 C?

a) 3.37 x 104 J
b) 3.98 x 104 J
c) 4.69 x 104 J
d) 5.52 x 104 J
e) 6.51 x 104 J

85) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.82 kg is filled with 0.11 kg of water. You are consulting for the flat earth society, a group of people who believe that the acceleration of gravity equals 9.8 m/s/s at all altitudes. Based on this assumption, from what height must the water and container be dropped to achieve the same change in temperature? (For comparison, Earth's radius is 6,371 kilometers)

a) 4.68 x 100 km
b) 5.67 x 100 km
c) 6.87 x 100 km
d) 8.32 x 100 km
e) 1.01 x 101 km

86) A window is square, with a length of each side equal to 0.73 meters. The glass has a thickness of 14 mm. To decrease the heat loss, you reduce the size of the window by decreasing the length of each side by a factor of 1.45. You also increase the thickness of the glass by a factor of 2.4. If the inside and outside temperatures are unchanged, by what factor have you decreased the heat flow?. By what factor have you decreased the heat flow (assuming the same inside and outside temperatures).

a) 5.05 x 100 unit
b) 6.11 x 100 unit
c) 7.41 x 100 unit
d) 8.97 x 100 unit
e) 1.09 x 101 unit
87)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.5 kPa, P2= 2.7 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.9m3 and V4= 3.3m3. How much work is involved between 1 and 4?
a) 6.64 x 102 J
b) 2.1 x 103 J
c) 6.64 x 103 J
d) 2.1 x 104 J
e) 6.64 x 104 J
88)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.3 kPa, P2= 3.4 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.5m3 and V4= 4.3m3. How much work is involved between 2 and 4?
a) 1.34 x 102 J
b) 4.23 x 102 J
c) 1.34 x 103 J
d) 4.23 x 103 J
e) 1.34 x 104 J
89)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 2.6 kPa, P2= 4.9 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.2m3 and V4= 3.5m3. What is the temperature at step 4?
a) 5.47 x 101 K
b) 1.73 x 102 K
c) 5.47 x 102 K
d) 1.73 x 103 K
e) 5.47 x 103 K
90)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 1.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.2 kPa, P2= 2.9 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.6m3 and V4= 4.7m3. How much work is done in in one cycle?
a) 5.64 x 102 J
b) 1.79 x 103 J
c) 5.64 x 103 J
d) 1.79 x 104 J
e) 5.64 x 104 J

91) A spring with spring constant 2.8 kN/m undergoes simple harmonic motion with a frequency of 8.5 kHz. The maximum force is 8.2 N. What is the total energy?

a) 1.2 x 10-2 J
b) 3.8 x 10-2 J
c) 1.2 x 10-1 J
d) 3.8 x 10-1 J
e) 1.2 x 100 J

92) A spring with spring constant 7.8 kN/m is attached to a 2.5 gram mass. The maximum acelleration is 6.8 m/s2. What is the maximum displacement?

a) 6.89 x 10-7 m
b) 2.18 x 10-6 m
c) 6.89 x 10-6 m
d) 2.18 x 10-5 m
e) 6.89 x 10-5 m

93) A spring of spring constant 4.9 kN/m causes a mass to move with a period of 8.8 ms. The maximum displacement is 2.1 mm. What is the maximum kinetic energy?

a) 3.42 x 10-3 J
b) 1.08 x 10-2 J
c) 3.42 x 10-2 J
d) 1.08 x 10-1 J
e) 3.42 x 10-1 J

94) A 0.111 kg mass is on a spring that causes the frequency of oscillation to be 63 cycles per second. The maximum velocity is 20.3 m/s. What is the maximum force on the mass?

a) 1.9 x 102 N
b) 4.1 x 102 N
c) 8.9 x 102 N
d) 1.9 x 103 N
e) 4.1 x 103 N

95) The temperature is -3 degrees Celsius, and you are standing 0.66 km from a cliff. What is the echo time?

a) 2.949 x 100 seconds
b) 3.184 x 100 seconds
c) 3.438 x 100 seconds
d) 3.713 x 100 seconds
e) 4.009 x 100 seconds

96) While standing 0.94 km from a cliff, you measure the echo time to be 5.418 seconds. What is the temperature?

a) 2.33 x 101Celsius
b) 2.69 x 101Celsius
c) 3.1 x 101Celsius
d) 3.58 x 101Celsius
e) 4.14 x 101Celsius

97) What is the speed of a transverse wave on a string if the string is 0.94 m long, clamped at both ends, and harmonic number 5 has a frequency of 715 Hz?

a) 1.83 x 102 unit
b) 2.22 x 102 unit
c) 2.69 x 102 unit
d) 3.26 x 102 unit
e) 3.95 x 102 unit

98) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the x component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 5a, 4a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

a) 1.76 x 10-3 unit
b) 2.13 x 10-3 unit
c) 2.59 x 10-3 unit
d) 3.13 x 10-3 unit
e) 3.79 x 10-3 unit

99) What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin if a 1.8 nC charge is placed at x = 9.6 m, and a 2 nC charge is placed at y = 8.7 m?

a) 2.95 x 10-1N/C
b) 3.41 x 10-1N/C
c) 3.94 x 10-1N/C
d) 4.55 x 10-1N/C
e) 5.25 x 10-1N/C

100) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the y component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 1.1a, 1.2a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

a) 1.95 x 10-1 unit
b) 2.36 x 10-1 unit
c) 2.86 x 10-1 unit
d) 3.47 x 10-1 unit
e) 4.2 x 10-1 unit

101) What angle does the electric field at the origin make with the x-axis if a 2.8 nC charge is placed at x = -8 m, and a 1.5 nC charge is placed at y = -8.7 m?

a) 2.44 x 101degrees
b) 2.81 x 101degrees
c) 3.25 x 101degrees
d) 3.75 x 101degrees
e) 4.33 x 101degrees

102) The same parallel plate capacitor, with area 0.75 m2, plate separation 0.53mm, and an applied voltage of 3.55 kV. How much charge is stored?

a) 29.25 μC.
b) 33.63 μC.
c) 38.68 μC.
d) 44.48 μC.
e) 51.15 μC.

103) A 1.4 Farad capacitor is charged with 2.3 Coulombs. What is the value of the electric field if the plates are 0.6 mm apart?

a) 1.57 kV/m.
b) 1.8 kV/m.
c) 2.07 kV/m.
d) 2.38 kV/m.
e) 2.74 kV/m.

104) A parallel plate capacitor has both plates with an area of 1.45 m2. The separation between the plates is 1.53mm. Applied to the plates is a potential difference of 2.55 kV. What is the capacitance?

a) 8.39 nF.
b) 9.65 nF.
c) 11.1 nF.
d) 12.76 nF.
e) 14.68 nF.

105) A 1.2 Farad capacitor charged with 1.6 Coulombs. What is the force between the plates if they are 0.4 mm apart?

a) 2319 N.
b) 2667 N.
c) 3067 N.
d) 3527 N.
e) 4056 N.

106) A 1.4 Farad capacitor charged with 2.3 Coulombs. What is the energy stored in the capacitor if the plates are 0.6 mm apart?

a) 1.08 J.
b) 1.24 J.
c) 1.43 J.
d) 1.64 J.
e) 1.89 J.

107) What voltage is required to stop a proton moving at a speed of 7.6 x 106 m/s?

a) 3 x 105 volts
b) 4.5 x 105 volts
c) 6.8 x 105 volts
d) 1 x 106 volts
e) 1.5 x 106 volts

108) What voltage is required accelerate an electron at rest to a speed of 2.8 x 103 m/s?

a) 4.4 x 10-6 volts
b) 6.6 x 10-6 volts
c) 9.9 x 10-6 volts
d) 1.5 x 10-5 volts
e) 2.2 x 10-5 volts

109) How fast is a 2663 eV electron moving?

a) 3.1 x 107 m/s.
b) 4.6 x 107 m/s.
c) 6.9 x 107 m/s.
d) 1 x 108 m/s.
e) 1.5 x 108 m/s.

110) A proton is accellerated (at rest) from a plate held at 318.6 volts to a plate at zero volts. What is the final speed?

a) 1.6 x 105 m/s.
b) 2.5 x 105 m/s.
c) 3.7 x 105 m/s.
d) 5.6 x 105 m/s.
e) 8.3 x 105 m/s.

111) A 4 volt battery moves 19 Coulombs of charge in 1.3 hours. What is the power?

a) 1.62 x 10-2 W
b) 1.97 x 10-2 W
c) 2.38 x 10-2 W
d) 2.89 x 10-2 W
e) 3.5 x 10-2 W

112) The diameter of a copper wire is 8.7 mm, and it carries a current of 22 amps. What is the drift velocity if copper has a density of 8.8E3 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 63.54 g/mol? (1 mol = 6.02E23 atoms, and copper has one free electron per atom.)

a) 2.77 x 10-5m/s
b) 3.36 x 10-5m/s
c) 4.06 x 10-5m/s
d) 4.92 x 10-5m/s
e) 5.97 x 10-5m/s

113) A power supply delivers 187 watts of power to a 287 ohm resistor. What was the applied voltage?

a) 2.32 x 102 volts
b) 2.81 x 102 volts
c) 3.4 x 102 volts
d) 4.12 x 102 volts
e) 4.99 x 102 volts

114) A 104 Watt DC motor draws 0.13 amps of current. What is effective resistance?

a) 3.46 x 103 Ω
b) 4.19 x 103 Ω
c) 5.08 x 103 Ω
d) 6.15 x 103 Ω
e) 7.46 x 103 Ω

115) Why do we say the "voltage across" or "the voltage with respect to?" Why can't we just say voltage?

a) None these are correct
b) It's an Electrical Cliche.
c) Voltage is a measure of Electric Potential difference between two electrical points.
d) The other point could be Negative or positive.

116) A resistor has 3 volts across it. Its resistance is 1.5 ohms. What is the current?

a) 1.5A
b) 12A
c) 2A
d) 3A

117) A resistor has 10 volts across it and 4 amps going through it. What is its resistance?

a) None of these are true.
b) ${\displaystyle 4.5\Omega .}$
c) ${\displaystyle 3.5\Omega .}$
d) ${\displaystyle 2.5\Omega .}$

118) The voltage across two resistors in series is 10 volts. One resistor is twice as large as the other. What is the voltage across the larger resistor? What is the voltage across the smaller one?

a) ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=5V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=5V}$.
b) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=3.33V}$ and${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=6.67V}$.
c) None of these are true.
d) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=6.67V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=3.33V}$.

119) If you plot voltage vs. current in a circuit, and you get a linear line, what is the significance of the slope?

a) Power.
b) Resistance.
c) None of these are true.
d) Discriminant.

120) A resistor has a voltage of 5 volts and a resistance of 15 ohms. What is the power consumed?

a) 11.67 Joules
b) 1.67 Watts
c) 2.5 Watts
d) None of these are ture.

121) 3 amps flow through a 1 Ohm resistor. What is the voltage?

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}V}$
b) ${\displaystyle 3V}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1V}$
d) None these are correct.

122) A resistor is on for 5 seconds. It consumes power at a rate of 5 watts. How many joules are used?

a) None of these are true
b) 25 Joules
c) 5 Joules
d) 3 Joules

123) A 1 ohm resistor has 5 volts DC across its terminals. What is the current (I) and the power consumed?

a) I = 5A & P = 5W.
b) I = 5A & P = 3W.
c) I = 5A & P = 25W.
d) I = 5A & P = 9W
124) What is the current through R1, R2, R3, and R4 in the figure shown?
a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=50A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=25A}$..
b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.25A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.1A}$.
c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.25A}$.
d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=3.3A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=2.5A}$.

125) A resistor consumes 5 watts, and its current is 10 amps. What is its voltage?

a) 10V.
b) 2V.
c) 15V.
d) 0.5V.

126) Three 1 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {2}{3}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle 3\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{2}}\Omega }$.

127) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{6}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{3}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{11}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{6}}\Omega }$.

128) A 7 ohm and a 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {21}{10}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{7}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{11}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{21}}\Omega }$.

129) A 5 ohm and a 2 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{10}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{10}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{7}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{6}}\Omega }$.

130) A resistor has 8 volts across it and 3 Amps going through it. What is the power consumed?

a) 3W
b) 8W
c) 2.2W
d) 24W

131) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in series. What is the total resistance?

a) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=0.5454\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=6\Omega }$.
c) None of these are true.
d) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=3\Omega }$.

132) If you put an infinite number of resistors in parallel, what would the total resistance be?

a) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach Zero as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity.
b) None of these are true.
c) It is not possible to connect that Number of Resistors in parallel.
d) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach 1 as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity

133) Two resistors are in parallel with a voltage source. How do their voltages compare?

a) The voltage across both resistors is half the voltage of the source.
b) The voltage across both resistors is the same as the source.
c) None of these are true.
d) One has full voltage, the other has none.

134) Two identical resistors are connected in series. The voltage across both of them is 250 volts. What is the voltage across each one?

a) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=125V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=125V}$.
b) None of these are true.
c) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=150V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=100V}$.
d) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=250V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=0V}$.
135) What is the current through R1 and R2 in the figure shown?
a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=25A}$.
b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.1667A}$.
c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=1.667A}$.
d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=16.67A}$.

136) An ideal 4.2 V voltage source is connected to two resistors in parallel. One is 1.6${\displaystyle k\Omega }$, and the other is 2.1 ${\displaystyle k\Omega }$. What is the current through the larger resistor?

a) 0.75 mA.
b) 0.86 mA.
c) 0.99 mA.
d) 1.14 mA.
e) 1.31 mA.

137) A battery has an emf of 6.7 volts, and an internal resistance of 348 ${\displaystyle k\Omega }$. It is connected to a 3.8 ${\displaystyle M\Omega }$ resistor. What power is developed in the 3.8 ${\displaystyle M\Omega }$ resistor?

a) 9.91 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
b) 11.4 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
c) 13.11 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
d) 15.08 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
e) 17.34 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.

138) An ideal 7.8 volt battery is connected to a 0.064 ohm resistor. To measure the current an ammeter with a resistance of 17${\displaystyle m\Omega }$ is used. What current does the ammeter actually read?

a) 63.3 A.
b) 72.8 A.
c) 83.7 A.
d) 96.3 A.
e) 110.7 A.

139) A 8.1 ohm resistor is connected in series to a pair of 5.2 ohm resistors that are in parallel. What is the net resistance?

a) 6.1 ohms.
b) 7 ohms.
c) 8.1 ohms.
d) 9.3 ohms.
e) 10.7 ohms.

140) Two 6.4 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series to a 6.6 ohm resistor. What is the net resistance?

a) 8.5 ohms.
b) 9.8 ohms.
c) 11.3 ohms.
d) 13 ohms.
e) 14.9 ohms.

141) A 819 mF capacitor is connected in series to a 798 kΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

a) 8.27 x 105 s.
b) 2.61 x 106 s.
c) 8.27 x 106 s.
d) 2.61 x 107 s.
e) 8.27 x 107 s.

142) A 65 μF capacitor is connected in series to a 414 kΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

a) 1.08 x 101 s.
b) 3.4 x 101 s.
c) 1.08 x 102 s.
d) 3.4 x 102 s.
e) 1.08 x 103 s.

143) A 727 mF capacitor is connected in series to a 860 MΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e3? (where e =2.7...)

a) 1.88 x 109 s.
b) 5.93 x 109 s.
c) 1.88 x 1010 s.
d) 5.93 x 1010 s.
e) 1.88 x 1011 s.

144) A 10 F capacitor is connected in series to a 10Ω resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

a) 4 x 100 s.
b) 1.26 x 101 s.
c) 4 x 101 s.
d) 1.26 x 102 s.
e) 4 x 102 s.

145) Blood is flowing at an average rate of 24.5 cm/s in an artery that has an inner diameter of 3.9 mm. What is the voltage across a hall probe placed across the inner diameter of the artery if the perpendicular magnetic field is 0.17 Tesla?

a) 5.14 x 10-5 Volts
b) 1.62 x 10-4 Volts
c) 5.14 x 10-4 Volts
d) 1.62 x 10-3 Volts
e) 5.14 x 10-3 Volts

146) An electron tube on Earth's surface is oriented horizontally towards magnetic north. The electron is traveling at 0.06c, and Earth's magnetic field makes an angle of 48.5 degrees with respect to the horizontal. To counter the magnetic force, a voltage is applied between two large parallel plates that are 59 mm apart. What must be the applied voltage if the magnetic field is 45μT?

a) 1.1 x 100 volts
b) 3.6 x 100 volts
c) 1.1 x 101 volts
d) 3.6 x 101 volts
e) 1.1 x 102 volts

147) Two parallel wires are 7.5 meters long, and are separated by 4.4 mm. What is the force if both wires carry a current of 14.8 amps?

a) 2.36 x 10-3 newtons
b) 7.47 x 10-3 newtons
c) 2.36 x 10-2 newtons
d) 7.47 x 10-2 newtons
e) 2.36 x 10-1 newtons

148) A cosmic ray alpha particle encounters Earth's magnetic field at right angles to a field of 7.4 μT. The kinetic energy is 437 keV. What is the radius of particle's orbit?

a) 1.3 x 102 m.
b) 4.1 x 102 m.
c) 1.3 x 103 m.
d) 4.1 x 103 m.
e) 1.3 x 104 m.

149) Two orbiting satellites are orbiting at a speed of 53 km/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of 58 μT. They are connected by a cable that is 29 km long. A voltmeter is attached between a satellite and one end of the cable. The voltmeter's internal impedance far exceeds the net resistance through the ionosphere that completes the circuit. What is the measured voltage?

a) 7.36 x 104 volts.
b) 8.91 x 104 volts.
c) 1.08 x 105 volts.
d) 1.31 x 105 volts.
e) 1.59 x 105 volts.

150) An loop of wire with 33 turns has a radius of 0.55 meters, and is oriented with its axis parallel to a magetic field of 0.74 Tesla. What is the induced voltage if this field is reduced to 32% of its original value in 2.4 seconds?

a) 5.43 x 100 volts
b) 6.58 x 100 volts
c) 7.97 x 100 volts
d) 9.65 x 100 volts
e) 1.17 x 101 volts
151)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

152) In optics, normal means

a) parallel to the surface
b) to the left of the optical axis
c) to the right of the optical axis
d) perpendicular to the surface

153) When light passes from glass to air

a) the frequency decreases
b) it does not bend
c) it bends away from the normal
d) it bends towards the normal
e) the frequency increases

154) When light passes from air to glass

a) it does not bend
b) it bends away from the normal
c) the frequency decreases
d) the frequency increases
e) it bends towards the normal

155) The focal point is where

a) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
b) the center of the lens
c) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
d) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
e) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

156) The law of reflection applies to

a) telescopes but not microscopes
b) curved surfaces
c) both flat and curved surfaces
d) flat surfaces
e) only light in a vacuum
157)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

158) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) the Doppler shift
b) total internal reflection
c) partial internal absorption
d) total external refraction
e) the invariance of the speed of light

159) An object is placed 3.55 cm to the left of a converging lens with a focal length of 6.8 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

a) 4.18 x 100 cm
b) 7.43 x 100 cm
c) 1.32 x 101 cm
d) 2.35 x 101 cm
e) 4.18 x 101 cm

160) An object is placed 7.8 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 3.6 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

a) 7.79 x 10-1 cm
b) 1.39 x 100 cm
c) 2.46 x 100 cm
d) 4.38 x 100 cm
e) 7.79 x 100 cm

161) An object of height 0.64 cm is placed 112 cm behind a diverging lens with a focal length of 65 cm. What is the height of the image?

a) 1.36 x 10-1 cm
b) 1.63 x 10-1 cm
c) 1.96 x 10-1 cm
d) 2.35 x 10-1 cm
e) 2.82 x 10-1 cm

162) An object is placed 10.9 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 16.3 cm. On the side, at a distance of 5.7 cm from the diverging lens is a converging lens with focal length equal to 4 cm. How far is the final image from the converging lens?

a) 1.88 x 100 cm
b) 5.94 x 100 cm
c) 1.88 x 101 cm
d) 5.94 x 101 cm
e) 1.88 x 102 cm

163) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) One focal length in front of the eye
b) at infinity
c) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
d) Two (of the other answers) are true
e) very far away

164) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

a) They have the same focal lengh.
b)
c)

165) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)

166) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) true
b) false

167) A planet that is very, very far from the Sun would be in retrograde for approximately ___ months.

a) 3
b) 24
c) 6
d) 12
e) 1

168) We know that Galileo saw Neptune, but is not credited with its discovery because

a) he never published his drawing
b) none of these are true
c) he thought it was a moon of Saturn
d) it was too faint to be worth drawing
e) it was in a transition between retrograde and direct motion

169) Which planet has more days between two consecutive retrogrades?

a) They are all equal
b) Earth
c) Mars
d) It depends on the season
e) Saturn

170) ____ motion is in the usual direction, and _______ is motion that has temporarily reversed itself.

c) direct; elliptical
e) indirect; direct

171) Which planet spends more days in a given retrograde?

a) It depends on the season
b) Saturn
c) They are all equal
d) Earth
e) Mars

172) When the faster moving Earth overtakes a slower planet outside Earth's orbit

a) tidal forces can be observed on Earth
c) all of these are true
d) two of these are true
e) tidal forces can be observed on the planet

173) Planet comes from the Greek word for 'wanderer'.

a) true
b) false

174) If a planet that is very, very far from the Sun begins a retrograde, how many months must pass before it begins the next retrograde?

a) 12
b) 6
c) 1
d) 24
e) 3

175) Under what conditions would a planet not seem to rise in the east and set in the west?

a) if the observer is near the north or south poles
b) if the planet is in retrograde motion
c) if the planet is in elliptical motion
d) if the planet is in direct motion
e) if the observer is below the equator

176) What statement is FALSE about ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T}$?

a) The average speed of a low mass particle is higher than the average speed of a high mass particle
b) The kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature.
c) Temperature is measured in Kelvins
d) Temperature is measured in Centigrades
e) This equation does not involve the size or mass of the planet.

177) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about a typical molecule in the gas. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which type of gas is more likely to escape?

a) atoms in a colder gas are more likely to escape
b) atoms in a gas with more atomic mass are more likely to escape
c) all types of gas are equally likely to escape
d) atoms in a hotter gas is more likely to escape
e) atoms in a denser gas are more likely to escape

178) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T}$, where T is temperature on the Kelvin scale. This formula describes:

a) The speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.
b) The the speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass planet.
c) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the atom.
d) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the planet.
e) The speed an atom needs to orbit the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.

179) Which type of gas is likely to have the faster particles?

a) a cold gas with high mass atoms
b) a cold gas with low mass atoms
c) a hot gas with low mass atoms
d) all gasses on a given planet have the same speed
e) a hot gas with high mass atoms

180) In the formula, ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }v_{\mathrm {escape} }^{2}=G_{\mathrm {Newton} }{\frac {M_{\mathrm {planet} }m_{\mathrm {atom} }}{r_{\mathrm {planet} }}}}$, which of the following is FALSE?

a) vescape is independent of matom
b) the particle is assumed to have been launched vertically
c) the formula can be used to estimate how fast an atom must move before exiting the planet
d) the formula is valid for all launch angles
e) the formula is valid only if the particle is launched from the surface of planet of radius rplanet

181) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about an individual molecule. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which has the greater escape velocity?

a) the heavier molecule has the greater escape velocity
b) the lighter molecule has the greater escape velocity
c) no molecules have escape velocity
d) all molecules move at the escape velocity
e) all molecules have the same escape velocity

182) What is it about the isotopes of Argon-36 and Argon-38 that causes their relative abundance to be so unusual on Mars?

a) identical mass
b) different half-life
c) different chemical properties
d) different speed
e) identical abundance

183) What was the concern about taking a telescope/camera to the cold environment near Pluto?

a) the electronics might fail
b) the telescope might bend
c) the the mirror might crack
d) the plates might crack

184) "Pepssi", "Rex", "Swap", "Lorri", "Alice" and "Ralf" are

a) instruments on the New Horizon
b) named after friends of the cartoon charactor 'Pluto'
c) Kuiper objects discovered by New Horizon
d) asteroids discovered by New Horizon
e) the people responsible for calculating the orbit of New Horizon

185) A typical average radio station uses 50,000 watts to transmit a signal. The transmitter on New Horizons used

a) 5 times more power
b) almost the same amount of power
c) 5 thousand times more power
d) 5 thousand times less power
e) 5 times less power

186) As New Horizon's approaches Jupiter, it was essential that

a) avoid going into the rings of Jupiter
b) avoid hitting the moons of Jupiter
c) it approach Jupiter closely enough for Jupiter's gravity to pull New Horizons to a 20% higher speed

187) When the discovery of the "ninth planet" was made in 1930, the name Pluto was chosen after a cartoon that was a common childhood experience shared by most astronomers of the day

a) true
b) false

188) The Kuiper belt has been described as a ___________ made of ___________

a) deep freeze ... rock and metal
b) deep freeze ... rock and ice
c) mystery band ... rock and metal
d) mystery band ... rock and ice

189) A stellar occultation occurs when the north or south pole of a planet is aligned with a star

a) true
b) false

190) The darker portions of Pluto are believe to be from "snowflakes" of

a) silicates
b) nitrogen
c) hydrocarbons
d) water

191) Mike Brown's search for another Pluto-like object eventually led to the discovery of Eris in 2005. What was the first clue that Eris was larger than Pluto?

a) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that quickly
b) it had a surprisingly large influence on Pluto's orbit
c) It was brighter in the sky than Pluto
d) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that slowly

a) the size of two different objects
b) the atmosphere around an object with the object itself
c) the location of an object on two different days

193) A stellar occultation occurs when a planet passes in front of a star

a) true
b) false
194)
The image to the right corresponds to
a)
b)
195)
These two images of Pluto represent:
a) a land-based telescope and the Hubble Space Telescope
b) New Horizon and the Hubble Space Telescope
c) New Horizon mid-way to Pluto and near Pluto
d) New Horizon near Earth and mid-way to Pluto
e) raw and processed images

196) As New Horizon approached Jupiter, it looked for new Moons, and the ground crew was glad that

a) there were no new moons because moons are capable of capturing spacecraft
b) the New Horizon discovered three new moons
c) there were no new moons because moons are debris generators

197) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed in order to learn something about Pluto's

a) mass
b) size
c) atmosphere

198) Stellar occultation tells something about a planet because

a) the orientation of the planet's rotation about its axis can be precisely determined
b) blocking the nearby stars allows a better view of the planet
c) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are emission lines
d) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are absorption lines
199)
The image to the right corresponds to
a)
b)

200) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed

a) from a cargo plane in 1988
b) from the Hubble Space Telescope in 1998
c) from the Keck Observatory in 1994
d) from the 200 inch Hale Telescope in 1968

201) Clyde Tombaugh, who discovered Pluto back in the 1930s

a) had resigned from a position at Yale to focus his efforts on discovering "Planet X"
b) privately funded the Lowell observatory
c) was self educated

202) The time to reach __________ was shortened from 9 days to 3 hours due to the speed of the rocket that delivered New Horizons

a) the Moon
b) the asteroid belt
c) Mars
d) Jupiter

203) As it approached Pluto, New Horizon was slightly larger than

a) the Hubble Space Telescope
b) a 10 story building
c) a grand piano

204) Clyde Tombaugh's reward for discovering Pluto was

a) a college education
b) an invitation to teach at Yale
c) a Nobel prize

205) Energy for the New Horizon is provided by

a) solar power
b) nuclear power
c) lithium batteries
d) fuel cells

206) For most of its nine-year journey, it was asleep, but once a week, the New Horizon's spacecraft

a) photographed EARTH
b) called MOM
d) photographed PLUTO

207) The trip by New Horizons from Earth to Pluto took almost a

b) year
c) month
d) century
e) week

208) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually brings Pluto closer

a) true
b) false

209) Which was NOT listed as one of the three things commonly considered necessary for the formation of life?

a) water
b) sunlight
c) energy
d) organic matter

210) While close to Jupiter, New Horizons the most spectacular image was of

a) a newly discovered moon
b) Jupiter's rings
c) a live volcano
d) the great red spot

211) The atmosphere of Pluto

a) is mostly oxygen
b) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from the Moons
c) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Neptune
d) emerges when the surface thaws as it approaches the Sun
e) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Jupiter

212) Pluto ceased to be called a planet in 2006, after the IAU defined a planet of our Sun as an object that is (1) in orbit around the Sun, (2) roughly spherical due to it's mass, and (3):

a) is larger than Earth's moon
b) lies in the same plane as the other nine planets
c) has cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.
d) is more massive than Mercury
e) has a nearly circular orbit

213) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually pushes Pluto away

a) true
b) false

214) Silicon carbide was used to construct the telescope LORRI because this material is

a) all of these
b) light
c) strong
d) not prone to warp at low temperature

215) Ganymede, Europa, and Io have ratios in __________ that are 1:2:4.

a) orbital period
b) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
c) density
d) rotational period
e) Argon isotope abundance

216) Which of Jupiter's moons has an anhydrous core?

a) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
b) Ganymede
c) Europa
d) Io
e) Ganymede

217) How does the density of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from Jupiter?

a) the more dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
b) all the moons have nearly the same density
c) the less dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
d) the most dense moon is neither the closest nor the most distant
e) the density of the moons is unknown

218) How does the mass of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from the central body?

a) the more massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
b) all the moons have nearly the same mass
c) the most massive moon is neither the closest nor the most distant
d) the less massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
e) the mass of the moons is unknown

219) Does Jupiter's moon Io have craters?

a) yes, from volcanoes
b) no, the surface is too old
c) yes, from impacts
d) yes, about half from impacts and the others from volcanoes
e) no, the surface is too new

220) The mechanism that heats the cores of the Galilean moons is

a) tides from Jupiter
b) radioactive decay of heavy elements
d) tides from the other moons and Jupiter
e) radiation from the Sun and from Jupiter

221) Immediately after publication of Newton's laws of physics (Principia), it was possible to "calculate" the mass of Jupiter. What important caveat applied to this calculation?

a) tides from the other moons and Jupiter.
b) The different moons yielded slightly different values for the mass of Jupiter.
c) The different moons yielded vastly different values for the mass of Jupiter.
d) They needed to wait over a decade for Jupiter to make approximately one revolution around the Sun.
e) Only the mass of Jupiter relative to that of the Sun could be determined.

222) What statement best describes the Wikipedia's explanation of the helium (He) content of Jupiter's upper atmosphere (relative to the hydrogen (H) content)?

a) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He escaped into space.
b) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen fell to the core.
c) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He fell to the core.
d) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen escaped into space.
e) Jupiter and the Sun have nearly the same ratio of He to H.

223) As one descends down to Jupiter's core, the temperature

a) decreases
b) increases

224) Although there is some doubt as to who discovered Jupiter's great red spot, it is generally credited to

a) Galileo in 1605
b) Tycho in
c) Messier in 1771
d) Cassini in 1665
e) Newton in 1668
225)

The black spot in this image of Jupiter is
a) an electric storm
b) the shadow of a moon
c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
d) a solar eclipse
e) a magnetic storm

226) The barycenter of two otherwise isolated celestial bodies is?

a) the focal point of two elliptical orbital paths
b) a place where two bodies exert equal and opposite gravitational forces
c) both of these are true

227) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Jupiter emits more energy than it receives from the Sun
b) Jupiter has four large moons and many smaller ones
c) Jupiter has a system of rings
d) The Great Red Spot is a storm that has raged for over 300 years
e) Jupiter is the largest known planet

228) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the ratio of the two masses

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

229) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the total mass

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

230) Where is the Sun-Jupiter barycenter?

a) Just above the Sun's surface
b) The question remains unresolved
c) At the center of Jupiter
d) At the center of the Sun
e) Just above Jupiter's surface

231) What is the mechanism that heats the interior of Jupiter?

a) magnetism
b) rain
c) electricity
d) tides

232) Why is Jupiter an oblate spheroid?

a) tides from the Jupiter's moons
b) revolution around Sun
c) tides from other gas planets
d) tides from the Sun

233) The bands in the atmosphere of Jupiter are associated with a patter of alternating wind velocities that are

a) both of these
b) easterly and westerly
c) updrafts and downdrafts

234) Kepler is also known for his improvements to

a) Ptolemy's star charts
b) the telescope
c) a perpetual motion machine
d) translations of the Bible
e) the abacus

235) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated at one focal point of the ellipse

a) true
b) false

236) Kepler incorporated religious arguments and reasoning into his work

a) true
b) false

237) As a child, Kepler's interest in astronomy grew as a result of

a) a comet
b) a lunar eclipse
c) a solar eclipse
d) watching his uncle make a telescope
e) two of these

238) When Kepler's studies at the university were over, what he really wanted to do was

a) visit Rome
b) work with Newton
c) become a minister
d) work with Tycho
e) visit Athens

239) The force of (gravitational) attraction between you and a friend is small because neither of you possess significant mass

a) true
b) false

240) How would one describe the status of Kepler's family when he was a child?

a) of noble birth, but in poverty
b) neither wealthy nor of noble birth
c) his father and grandfather were scientists
d) wealth and of noble birth
e) wealthy but not of noble birth

241) Kepler began his career as a teacher of

a) mathematics
b) astronomy
c) history
d) theology
e) philosophy

242) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of mathematics

a) true
b) false

243) Kepler avoided religious arguments and reasoning in his work

a) true
b) false

244) In Kepler's era, astronomy closely linked to astrology

a) true
b) false

245) In Kepler's era, physics (how and why things moved) was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

a) true
b) false

246) Which of the following is NOT associated with Kepler's Laws

a) planets farther from the Sun have longer orbital periods.
b) elliptical paths for the planets
c) planets speed up as they approach the sun
d) circular motions with epicycles
e) Earth orbits the sun

247) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

a) true
b) false

248) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated midway between the two focal points of the ellipse

a) true
b) false

249) Newton was able to use the motion of the Moon to calculate the universal constant of gravity, G

a) true
b) false

250) Cavendish finally measured G by carefully weighing the force between

a) Sun and Moon
c) Earth and Sun
d) Jupiter and moons
e) Earth and Moon

251) At 3am a 1st quarter moon would be

b) below the western horizon
c) high in western sky
d) high in eastern sky
e) eastern horizon

252) At 3pm a waxing gibbous moon would be

a) below the eastern horizon
b) high in western sky
c) eastern horizon
d) below the western horizon
e) high in eastern sky

253) At noon a waxing crescent moon would be

b) high in western sky
d) eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

254) At 3am a waxing crescent moon would be

a) below the western horizon
b) below the eastern horizon
e) high in western sky

255) At 3pm a waxing crescent moon would be

b) eastern horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
d) high in eastern sky

256) At 3pm a waning gibbous moon would be

b) western horizon
c) high in western sky
e) eastern horizon

257) At 3am a new moon would be

b) high in eastern sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) eastern horizon

258) At 9am a waning gibbous moon would be

a) western horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) high in western sky

259) At noon a waxing gibbous moon would be

b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in western sky
d) high in eastern sky

260) At 9am a waning crescent moon would be

b) eastern horizon
c) western horizon
e) below the eastern horizon

261) At 6am a waning crescent moon would be

a) below the western horizon
b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) high in western sky
e) eastern horizon

262) At 3am a waxing gibbous moon would be

b) high in western sky
c) below the eastern horizon
d) western horizon

263) At 3am a full moon would be

a) below the western horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) high in western sky
e) western horizon

264) At 9pm a waxing gibbous moon would be

a) below the eastern horizon
b) high in western sky
c) below the western horizon

265) At 9pm a third quarter moon would be

a) below the western horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
d) high in western sky
e) high in eastern sky

266) At noon a waning gibbous moon would be

a) high in western sky
c) below the western horizon
e) western horizon

267) At midnight a waxing crescent moon would be

a) high in western sky
c) high in eastern sky
d) below the western horizon
e) eastern horizon

268) At 9pm a waning crescent moon would be

a) eastern horizon
c) high in western sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

269) At 9pm a waning gibbous moon would be

a) high in western sky
c) eastern horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) below the western horizon

270) At noon a waning crescent moon would be

b) high in western sky
c) high in eastern sky
e) eastern horizon

271) At 9pm a 1st quarter moon would be

a) high in eastern sky
c) eastern horizon
d) high in western sky
e) below the western horizon

272) At 3pm a third quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) high in eastern sky
d) below the western horizon

273) At 9am a third quarter moon would be

a) high in eastern sky
b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in western sky
d) western horizon

274) At 9am a full moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) western horizon
c) below the western horizon
e) below the eastern horizon

275) At 9pm a waxing crescent moon would be

b) below the western horizon
c) western horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) eastern horizon

276) At midnight a waning crescent moon would be

b) below the eastern horizon
d) below the western horizon
e) western horizon

277) At 3pm a waning crescent moon would be

a) western horizon
c) high in western sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

278) At 6pm a waxing gibbous moon would be

a) high in eastern sky
b) eastern horizon
c) below the western horizon
d) western horizon

279) At 6am a waning gibbous moon would be

a) below the eastern horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) high in western sky
e) below the western horizon

280) At midnight a waning gibbous moon would be

a) high in western sky
b) high in eastern sky
c) western horizon
d) eastern horizon
e) below the western horizon

281) At 9am a waxing gibbous moon would be

b) eastern horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) western horizon
e) high in western sky

282) At 6am a waxing crescent moon would be

b) below the western horizon
d) eastern horizon
e) below the eastern horizon

283) At midnight a waxing gibbous moon would be

a) below the western horizon
b) high in eastern sky
c) below the eastern horizon
e) high in western sky

284) At 3am a third quarter moon would be

a) high in eastern sky
b) below the eastern horizon
c) below the western horizon
d) eastern horizon

285) At 9am a waxing crescent moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) below the western horizon
e) high in eastern sky

286) At 6pm a waning gibbous moon would be

a) western horizon
b) high in western sky
c) below the eastern horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) below the western horizon

287) At 6pm a waning crescent moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) below the eastern horizon
c) below the western horizon
e) western horizon

288) At 3pm a new moon would be

a) high in western sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

289) At 9am a 1st quarter moon would be

a) below the western horizon
b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in western sky
d) western horizon

290) At 3am a waning crescent moon would be

b) high in eastern sky
d) eastern horizon
e) western horizon

291) At 6pm a waxing crescent moon would be

c) eastern horizon
d) western horizon
e) high in western sky

292) At 3pm a 1st quarter moon would be

a) below the eastern horizon
b) western horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) high in western sky
e) below the western horizon

293) At 9pm a new moon would be

a) high in western sky
b) below the western horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
d) western horizon

294) At 9pm a full moon would be

a) high in eastern sky
d) eastern horizon
e) below the western horizon

295) At 3am a waning gibbous moon would be

b) high in western sky
c) eastern horizon
e) western horizon

296) At 9am a new moon would be

b) eastern horizon
c) high in western sky
d) high in eastern sky
e) below the western horizon

297) At 6am a waxing gibbous moon would be

b) below the eastern horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) below the western horizon
e) high in eastern sky

298) At 3pm a full moon would be

b) below the western horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) western horizon

299) At noon a full moon would be

a) western horizon
b) eastern horizon
d) below the horizon

300) At midnight a new moon would be

b) eastern horizon
c) below the horizon
d) western horizon

301) At 6pm a new moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) western horizon
c) below the horizon

302) At midnight a 1st quarter moon would be

a) western horizon
b) eastern horizon
c) below the horizon

303) At midnight a full moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) below the horizon
c) western horizon

304) At noon a new moon would be

b) below the horizon
c) western horizon
d) eastern horizon

305) At 6pm a third quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) western horizon
c) below the horizon

306) At noon a 1st quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon
c) below the horizon
d) western horizon

307) At noon a third quarter moon would be

a) western horizon
b) below the horizon
d) eastern horizon

308) At 6am a third quarter moon would be

a) western horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) below the horizon

309) At midnight a third quarter moon would be

a) western horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) below the horizon

310) At 6pm a full moon would be

a) below the horizon
b) western horizon
c) eastern horizon

311) At 6am a new moon would be

a) eastern horizon
c) western horizon
d) below the horizon

312) At 6am a full moon would be

a) eastern horizon
c) below the horizon
d) western horizon

313) At 6pm a 1st quarter moon would be

a) below the horizon
b) western horizon
d) eastern horizon

314) At 6am a 1st quarter moon would be

a) below the horizon
b) western horizon
c) eastern horizon

315) According to Wikipedia, ______ was formed due to swelling of the Tharsis bulge which caused the crust to collapse

a) Hellas basin
b) Valles Marineris
c) the northern lowlands
d) Elysium
e) the southern lowlands

316) Antipodal to the Tharsis bulge is

a) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an impact basin
b) What Wikipedia contends IS an impact basin
c) What Wikipedia contends IS an active volcano
d) the northern lowlands
e) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an active volcano
317)
gray hematite
What is this hematite?

a) evidence that Mars once had oceans
b) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes
c) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life
d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes
e) controversial evidence that Mars once had life

318) The Martian dichotomy separates

a) the Tharsus buldge from Hellas basin
b) the highlands from the lowlands
c) the rift valley from the volcanoes
d) the crust from the mantle
e) Valles Marineris from Olympus Mons
319)
Giovanni Schiaparelli 1877
Lowell circa 1914.
These drawings by Schiaparelli and Lowell were ultimately shown to be:

a) rilles
b) optical illusions
c) subduction zones
d) rift valleys
e) slip faults

320) The polar ice caps on Mars are ___

a) caused by geysers
b) a nearly equal mix of water and carbon dioxide
c) actually clouds above the surface of Mars
d) mostly water
e) mostly carbon dioxide
321)
Martian lobate feature
The lobate feature shown in the figure is evidence of

a) lava flow
b) wind erosion
c) plate tectonics
d) water flow
e) dust storms
322)
magnified Martian meteorite
What is at the center of this magnified image of a Martian meteorite? fragment?

a) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes
b) evidence that Mars once had oceans
c) controversial evidence that Mars once had life
d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes
e) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life

323) Liquid water cannot exist on Mars due to ___

a) high pressure
b) high temperature
c) low pressure
d) low temperature
e) the solar wind

324) A volatile is a substance that

a) melts or evaporates at low temperature
b) reacts violently with acids
c) melts or evaporates at high temperature
d) reacts violently with water
e) reacts violently with oxygen

325) If the universe is mostly hydrogen, why aren't terrestrial planets made of mostly hydrogen?

a) tidal forces from the Sun prevented accretion
b) tidal forces between the terrestrial planets prevented accretion
c) tidal forces from Jupiter prevented accretion
d) These planets lie inside the frost line for hydrogen
e) thermonuclear fusion in the protosun turned the hydrogen into helium
326)
horizontal crack
The horizontal crack along the center of figure is a
a) propodal
b) meander
c) antipodal
d) scarp
e) rille

327) Antipodal to Caloris Basin is

a) a water deposits
b) a scarp
c) weird terrain
d) an iron/nickel deposit
e) a silicon deposits

328) Mercury's atmosphere consists mostly of

a) oxygen
b) hydrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) helium
e) nitrogen

329) The four smaller inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of ___ and ___.

a) metal and rock
b) carbon and oxygen
c) ice and gas
d) ice and rock
e) ice and water

330) In what sequence did Mercury's weird terrain and Caloris basin form?

a) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years before the Caloris basin
b) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years after the Caloris basin
c) The weird terrain was formed a few millions years after the Caloris basin
d) The were formed at exactly the same time
e) The weird terrain was formed almost immediately after the Caloris basin

331) It has been suggested that Miranda's "racetrack"

a) is antipodal to an impact crater
b) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
c) is a series of rifts created by an upwelling of warm ice
d) is an impact crater
e) is associated with tidal heating
332)

The photographs compare
a) winter windstorms and summer doldrums
b) summer windstorms and winter doldrums
c) Titan and Earth
d) northern and southern hemispheres
e) wet and dry seasons
333)

The bright spot on Saturn's moon Titan is
a) a lake
b) solar wind particles striking the atmosphere
c) aurora borealis (northern lights)
d) lightening
e) a volcano

334) The 1982 Voyager flyby of Miranda (a moon of Uranus) established that _____

a) Miranda has geysers.
b) Miranda probably has an iron core
c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
d) inspired a theory a previous incarnation was destroyed by a collision
e) Miranda has the largest active volcano in the solar system

335) According to Wikipedia, the largest lakes on Titan are probably fed by

a) rivers from the highlands
b) underground aquifers
c) geysers
d) methane rain
e) liquid water rain

336) One "year" on Saturn's largest moon Titan lasts

a) 30 hours
b) 300 days
c) 3 hours
d) 3 years
e) 30 years

337) The liquid water ocean of Saturn's largest moon Titan,

a) is less than one meter in depth
b) explains how the elevation of a smooth planet seems to rise and fall
c) is postulated to cover 15-30% of its surface
d) Two other answers are correct
e) is known to contain life

338) In the Wikipedia excerpt on "Planetary Astronomy" the mechanism by which a meander grows over time was discussed. Which of the the following is best describes why meanders grow? (Pick only one best answer)

a) wind erosion
b) combination of deposition and underlying bedrock strength
c) occasional periods of intense flooding
d) a combination of deposition and erosion
e) combination of erosion and underlying bedrock strength

339) Rilles are caused by

a) meteors
b) impacts
c) water
d) lava
e) meteorites
340)
incomplete rim
The incomplete rims seen in the figure are caused by:
a) vulcanism
b) meteorite erosion
c) rilles
d) micrometeorite erosion
e) low surface gravity

341) Why was the discovery of Pluto peculiar?

a) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass
b) It was seen by Galileo, who thought it was a star
c) It was discovered during a survey looking for stars
d) It was discovered by a calculation based on flawed assumptions
e) It was seen by Halley, who was looking for comets

342) Which statement describes the relation between Pluto and Neptune

a) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they avoid each other because Pluto's mass is too small
b) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they don't collide because of an orbital resonance between the two
c) Pluto's orbit lies outside Neptune's orbit
d) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit an the two bodies will eventually collide

343) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

a) the motion of a neighboring planet
b) the motion of an artificial satellite
c) all of these have been used
d) the motion of a moon

344) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

a) the motion of a neighboring planet
b) the motion of a moon
c) all of these have been used
d) the rotation of the planet about its axis
e) the motion of an artificial satellite

345) What is unusual about calculations of the mass of Pluto made in the early part of the 20th century?

a) It was the first time a moon was used to calculate the mass of a planet
b) The estimates were high. Pluto was less massive than they calculated
c) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass
d) The estimates were correct to within less than 10%
e) The estimates were too low. Pluto was actually more massive than they thought.

346) The Ptolemaic system was heliocentric.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

347) Copernicus shared his heliocentric theory with colleagues decades before he died.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

348) An argument used to support the geocentric model held that heavenly bodies, while perhaps large, were able to move quickly.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

349) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the heliocentric theory.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

350) Tycho was the first to propose an earth-orbiting sun had planets in orbit around the Sun.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

351) The ancient Greeks believed in circular orbits, causing them to devise the epicycle and the deferent.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

352) Evidence for the Copernican system is that the Earth does not seem to move.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

353) Tycho tended to favor religious arguments over scientific arguments when justifying his opinions about the geocentric/heliocentric controversy.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

354) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the geocentric theory.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

355) Most ancient Roman and most medieval scholars thought the Earth was flat.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

356) Copernicus was a university-trained Catholic priest dedicated to astronomy.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

357) The Ptolemaic system was geocentric.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

358) Which of the following is NOT an essential piece of a a strong argument that a white dwarf is not only the size of the earth, but typically has the same mass as the Sun.

a) the distance to Sirius A
b) the "color" (spectral class) of Sirius B
c) the relative magnitude of Sirius B
d) the wobble of Sirius A
e) all of these are true

359) Aside from its location on the HR diagram, evidence that the white dwarf has a small radius can be found from

a) the temperature
b) the expansion of the universe
c) the gravitational redshift
d) the doppler shift
e) the mass as measured by Kepler's third law (modified by Newton)

360) You at the center raisin of an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion, and from your location a raisin originally situated at a distance of 1 cm expands out to a distance of 4 cm. The nearest raisin with intelligent life is situated exactly halfway between your (central) location and the edge. How would this second "intelligent" raisin view an expansion of a raisin 1 cm away?

a) expansion from 1 cm to 8 cm (twice yours).
b) expansion from 1 cm to 3 cm (since 3-1=2)
c) expansion from 1 cm to 9 cm (since 5-1=4)
d) expansion from 1 cm to 4 cm (just like yours).
e) expansion from 1 cm to 2 cm (half of yours)

361) In one respect, the universie is arguably "young", considering how much complexity it contains. This is often illustrated by a calculation of

a) cosmic redshift
b) chimps typing Shakespeare
c) recalibration of supernovae relative magnitude
d) recalibration of supernovae luminosity
e) cosmic expansion
362)
Suppose the light clock involved a ball being tossed back and forth on a train going just under the speed of sound. In contrast to the situation for light reflecting back and forth on a train going just under the speed of light, there is virtually no time dilation. Why?
a) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling more slowly.
b) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling faster.
c) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be smaller.
d) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be greater.
e) Special relativity is valid only for objects travelling in a vacuum.
363)
This light clock is associated with
a) special relativity
b) gravitational shift
c) general relativity
d) doppler shift
e) all of these are true

364) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. The more recent (2007) plot used

a) Cepheid variables
b) novae
c) entire galaxies
d) supernovae
e) red giants
365)

This spectrum of the star Vega suggests that
a) it can be associated with an "effective" temperature
b) if is not really a black body
c) it's surface can be associated with a range of temperatures
d) it is an approximate black body
e) all of these are true

366) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expands out to 4 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expand?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
e) 8

367) What was Messier doing when he independently rediscovered the Crab in 1758?

a) Looking for lobsters
b) Attempting to count asteroids
c) Looking for a comet that he knew would be appearing in that part of the sky.
d) Trying to measure the orbital radius of a planet
e) Attempting one of the first star charts

368) At the center of the Crab nebula is

a) none of these is correct
b) all of these is correct
c) the remnants of a supernova
d) a pulsar
e) a neutron star

369) ${\displaystyle KE={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$ is the kinetic energy of a solid rotating ball, where M is mass, R is radius, and P is period. And, ${\displaystyle power={\frac {energy}{time}}}$.
You are banging espressos in a little coffeehouse with your astronomy friends, talking about a new SN remnant that closely resembles the Crab. You have observed the pulsar, and wonder what the total power output of the nebula might be. You know both the period of the pulsar, as well as ${\displaystyle \tau }$, which represents the amount of time you think the pulsar will continue pulsing if it continues slowing down at its present rate. What formula do you write on your napkin?

a) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}\tau ^{4}}$
b) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau }}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\tau \pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {5}{4\tau \pi ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$

370) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. Hubble's original (1929) plot used

a) red giants
b) entire galaxies
c) supernovae
d) Cepheid variables
e) novae

371) One way to determine the distance to a nebula or small cluster of clouds is to compare the angular expansion to the spectroscopic Doppler shift. Two clusters (A and B) have the same spectroscopically measured velocity. Cluster A is moving towards the observer and exhibits the greater angular expansion. Which cluster is closer?

a) cluster B, because it exhibits a red Doppler shift
b) cluster B, because it exhibits less angular expansion
c) cluster A, because it exhibits a blue Doppler shift
d) cluster A, because it exhibits greater angular expansion
e) either cluster might be more distant

372) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expands out to 12 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expand?

a) 6
b) 2
c) 8
d) 4
e) 3

373) What causes the "finger-like" filamentary structure in the Crab nebula?

a) a heavy (high density) fluid underneath a light (low density) fluid, like a lava lamp
b) a light(low density) fluid underneath a heavy(high density) fluid, like a lava lamp
c) electrons striking oxygen molecules, like a lava lamp
d) electrons striking hydrogen molecules, like a lava lamp
e) cyclotron motion, causing the electrons to strike oxygen molecules

374) Comparing Hubble's original (1929) plot of redshift versus distance with the later one in 2007, the latter extends farther into space by a factor of

a) 10
b) 100
c) 1000
d) 100,000
e) 10,000

375) The course materials presented three arguments suggesting that a white dwarf is roughly the size of the earth. Which best summarizes them?

a) doppler-shift...period-of-pulsation...temperature-luminosity
b) HR-diagram-location...X-ray-emmision...spectral-lines
c) all of these are true
d) x-ray-emmission...doppler-shift...rotation-rate
e) temperature-luminosity...redshift...quantum-theory-of-solids
376)

What best explains this figure?
a) The photon loses energy, not speed. By E=hf, it loses frequency, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength and turns red.
b) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, E=hf, and therefore by c=f&;lambda it turns red.
c) The photon loses energy, not speed. By c=fλ , it loses frequency, and by E=hf it increases wavelength and turns red.
d) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, c=fλ, and therefore by E=hf it turns red.
e) The photon slows down as it goes uphill, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength therefore by E=hf, it turns red.

377) As of 2008, the percent uncertainty in the distance to the Crab nebula is approximately,

a) 1%
b) 0.1%
c) 25%
d) 100%
e) 10%

378) What causes the blue glow of the Crab nebula?

a) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion resembles a radio antenna
b) the Gravitational blue shift
c) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion traps ultra-violet and blue light
d) the Doppler blue shift
e) the same emission found in a Lava lamp (ultra-violet)

379) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces only due to gravitational interaction with each other

a) True
b) False

380) Members of a globular cluster tend to be

a) old
b) of all ages
c) young

381) I gravity is what holds stars in a cluster together, what is the most important process that causes them to spread apart?

a) solar wind
b) random motion
c) anti-gravity
d) magnetism
e) supernovae

382) Many stars in a typical globular cluster are nearly as old as the universe

a) True
b) False

383) Most globular clusters that we see in the sky orbit _____ and have ______ orbits

a) within the disk of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits
b) the center of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits
c) within the disk of the Milky way ... nearly circular
d) the center of the Milky way ... nearly circular

384) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces from nearby giant molecular clouds

a) True
b) False

385) In 1917, the astronomer Harlow Shapley was able to estimate the Sun's distance from the galactic centre using

a) a combination of open and globular clusters
b) goblular clusters
c) open clusters

386) Stars can "evaporate" from a cluster. What does this mean?

a) Close encounters between 3 or more cluster members gives one star enough speed to leave the cluster
b) The gravitational attraction between stars evaporates the gas from stars
c) The solar wind from neighboring stars blows the atmosphere away

387) Members of a globular cluster tend to have

a) a wide range of masses
b) high mass
c) low mass

388) A grouping with a hundred stars is probably a

a) elliptical galaxy
b) globular cluster
c) open cluster
d) A-B association
e) dwarf galaxy

389) The number of globular clusters in the Milky way galaxy is about

a) 15 million
b) 150
c) 15 thousand
d) 1,500

390) A grouping with 100 thousand stars would probably be a

a) elliptical galaxy
b) dwarf galaxy
c) globular cluster
d) open cluster
e) A-B association

391) The location of open clusters can be described as

a) uniformly distributed within the galactic disk
b) in the spiral arms
c) uniformly distributed in a sphere centered at the Milky Way's center
d) between the spiral arms

392) Many stars in a typical open cluster are nearly as old as the universe

a) True
b) False

393) The "normalized intensity" of a Sun-like star situated one parsec from Earth would be 4πI = 1. What is 4πI for a star with 100 times the Sun's energy output that is situated 10pc from Earth?

a) 10-3
b) 1
c) 10-1
d) 10-4
e) 10-2

394) Stellar parallax is

a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
c) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

395) An object emits thermal (blackbody) radiation with a peak wavelength of 250nm. How does its temperature compare with the Sun?

a) The temperature is the same
b) 2 times colder than the Sun
c) 5 times colder than the Sun
d) 5 times hotter than the Sun
e) 2 times hotter than the Sun

396) In 1989 the satellite Hipparcos was launched primarily for obtaining parallaxes and proper motions allowing measurements of stellar parallax for stars up to about 500 parsecs away, which is about ____ times the diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy.

a) 15
b) 150
c) 1.5
d) 0.15
e) .015

397) Luminosity is

a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
b) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

398) Based on the HR diagrams and images in stars shown in the materials, a very large red supergiant has a diameter that is about ____ greater than a small white dwarf.

a) 3x109
b) 3x1011
c) 3x105
d) 3x103
e) 3x107

399) The range of wavelength for visible light is between

a) 0.1 and 10 nanometers
b) 5000 and 6000 nanometers
c) 600 and 1200 nanometers
d) 400 and 700 nanometers
e) 1 and 10 nanometers

400) Absolute magnitude is

a) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
d) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
e) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

401) Relative magnitude is

a) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
d) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

402) A standard candle is

a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
c) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
e) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

403) A star that is increasing it's temperature while maintaining constant luminosity is

a) on the verge of becoming a supernovae
b) getting larger in size
c) turning red
d) in the process of dying
e) getting smaller in size

404) An orbiting satellite makes a circular orbit 5 AU from the Sun. It measures a parallax angle of 0.2 of an arcsecond (each way from the average position). What is the star's distance?

a) 25 parsecs
b) 50 parsecs
c) 1 parsec
d) 10 parsecs
e) 5 parsecs

405) When Venus is viewed in the ultraviolet, its color appears brownish.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

406) The Venetian atmosphere consists of mostly carbon dioxide and

a) helium
b) hydrogen
c) sulfuric acid
d) oxygen
e) nitrogen

407) The rocks on Venus are mostly

a) from volcanoes
b) from the seabed of a now non-existent ocean
c) associated with plate tectonics

408) The clouds on Venus are made of

a) steam
b) nitrogen
c) sulfuric acid
d) water
e) carbon dioxide

409) Basalt is what type of rock?

a) Igneous
b) Sedimentary
c) Metamorphic

410) According to Wikipedia, a "mineral" is a naturally occurring solid that

a) is heterogeneous
b) contains carbon
c) is by a chemical formula
d) has useful value
e) does not contain carbon

411) The surface temperature of Venus is about

a) 450 Fahrenheit (500 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)
b) 850 Fahrenheit (730 Kelvin or 230 Celsius)
c) 150 Fahrenheit (340 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

412) Which types of radiation astronomy directly observe the rocky-object surface of Venus?

b) infrared astronomy
c) visual astronomy
d) ultraviolet astronomy
e) X-ray astronomy

413) The geology of Venus is predominantly

a) Andesite
b) Picrite
c) Basalt

414) The rocky surface of the planet Venus can be detected when Venus is observed using infrared astronomy.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

415) Moldavite is a mineral that may be associated with what radiation astronomy phenomenon?

a) lightening strikes
b) meteorite impacts and fireballs
c) evidence that Venus was once a comet
d) predicting when currently dormant volcanoes will erupt

416) One reason that Venus's atmosphere has more carbon dioxide than Earth's is that

a) the mass of Venus is slightly higher
b) Venus is exposed to a stronger solar wind strips away the other gasses
c) Venus was too hot for oceans that could absorb the carbon dioxide
d) Venus has a lower magnetic field that disassociates carbon dioxide

417) When imaged in visible light Venus appears like ______ rather than ______.

a) Mars ... Venus
b) a gas dwarf ... a rocky planet
c) Venus ... Mars
d) an asteroid ... a terrestrial planet

418) In the 19th century Fraunhoffer and Kirchoff studied light from the Sun and found

b) sunspots and the sunspot cycle
c) a wobble that led to the discovery of new planets
d) spectral lines and concluded that they were caused by the elements
e) a golden ring

419) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' article say about astronomy and astrophysics

a) They are often in conflict
b) They often yield different results
c) They are often considered to be synonymous
d) They are often considered to be opposites
e) They must be in agreement or the result cannot be trusted

420) What two names are associated with the first new planet found (after those known by the ancients using the naked eye)

a) Uranus and George's Star
b) Mars and the Candy Bar
c) Neptune and the Alabama Streaker
d) Pluto and Goofy
e) Mercury and Friendship

421) Cosmology is the study of

a) the birth and death of stars
b) the formation of the solar system
c) the universe as a whole
d) the oceans
e) planetary atmospheres

422) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as Antikythera?

a) 3000 years
b) 30 years
c) 1500 years
d) 15,000 years
e) 300 years

423) When did astronomy split between theoretical and observational branches?

a) In the 19th century
c) In the 18th century
d) In the 20th century
e) After Galileo

424) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' call astrology?

a) the study of comets and asteroids
b) the study of planetary cores
c) the belief that all people should learn astronomy
d) the belief system which claims that human affairs are correlated with the positions of celestial objects.
e) the study of planetary atmospheres

425) According to the Wikipedia Astronomy article, the first known efforts in the mathematical and scientific study of Astronomy began

a) in central America
b) in ancient Greece
c) among the Chinese
d) among the Babylonians
e) in south America

426) When did astronmers establish that the Milky way is only one of many billions of galaxies in the universe?

a) 20th century
b) 18th century
c) 16th century
d) 14th century

427) The ancient Greeks discovered (named) most of the constellations

a) in the northern hemisphere
b) in both all hemispheres
c) in the eastern hemisphere
d) in the southern hemisphere
e) in the western hemisphere

428) The saro cycle was about repeating cycles of

a) eclipses
b) seasons
c) planets

429) In what century was parallax first used to measure the distance to a Star (other than our Sun)?

a) 20th century
b) 19th century
c) 18th century
d) 16th century
e) 17th century

430) The goecentric theory put the Sun

a) none of the above or below are true
b) in orbit around Earth
c) at the center of the universe
d) at the center of the solar system
e) orbiting around the Moon
431)
Who drew these sketches?

a) Galileo
b) Aristotle
c) Ptolemy
d) Copernicus
e) Kepler

432) The historical record shows that in 1066 AD a supernovae was discovered by astronomers in _____ and _____

a) Greece and North America
b) China and South America
c) Greece and Central America
d) Egypt and China
e) Greece and China

433) The largest galaxy in the local group is

a) M52
b) M-31
c) ant-galexy
d) Milky way
e) Andromeda

434) In the 3rd century BC, Aristarchus of Samos estimated the size of

a) Earth and the Moon
b) the Moon and Sun
c) the Sun
d) the Moon
e) Earth and the Sun

435) Most of the ______ that astronomers observe from Earth is seen in the form of synchrotron radiation, which is produced when electrons oscillate around magnetic fields.

a) meteorites
c) photons
d) meteors
e) energy

436) An active galaxy is emitting a significant amount of its energy from _____

a) magnetism
b) nuclear fission
c) exploding stars
d) nuclear fusion
e) gravity

437) Earth based infrared observatories tend to be located in

a) near the equator
b) underground
c) where the air is dry
d) near the north and south poles
e) where the air is cold
438)
What are the blue things in this figure?

a) an open cluster of stars
b) none of these is correct
c) a cluster of galaxy
d) a globular cluster
e) one galaxy

439) The shortest wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is associated with

a) infrared
b) ultra violet
c) X-rays
d) gamma rays
e) blue light
440)
What is this?
a) colliding galaxies
b) the magnetic field of Venus
c) a supernovae remnant
d) a dying star
e) the magnetic field of Saturn

441) The best place to observe neutrinos is

a) where the air is dry
b) near the north and south poles
c) near the equator
d) where the air is cold
e) underground

442) Studies in the infrared are useful for objects that are

a) cold
b) inside the solar system
c) in our own galaxy
d) in other galaxies
e) associated with supernovae

443) Wihlem Conrad Rontgen, a pioneer in X-rays is famous for his photo of

a) Barnard's star
b) a double star
c) his wife
d) a supernovae
e) The Sun

444) Most gamma rays are

a) from cold stars
b) in bursts
c) from the Sun
d) from hot stars
e) the Andromeda galaxy

445) The title of Galileo's book, Sidereus Nuncius, is often translated as ____, but it is probably more proper to translate it as _______

a) Starry messenger - - Starry message
b) the motion of the stars - - the location of the stars
c) the moons of Jupiter
d) the motion of the earth - - the location of the earth
e) the Moon close up - - the Moon through a telescope

446) Galileo used the terminator to

a) deduce the color beneath the dust layer
b) none of these
c) observe the wobble of the Moon's orbit
d) compensate for stellar parallax
e) correlate color with whether the region had mountains

447) Galileo called his telescope

a) an optical cannon
b) the magic eye
c) a mistake
d) the liberator
e) a double magnifying glass

448) What statement is FALSE about Galileo and the Median Stars

a) they were lined up
b) motion could be observed after observing a moon for just one hour
c) they were described by Aristotle
d) Galileo named them after a famous and wealthy family
e) they are actually moons

449) The Wikipedia article Sidereus Nuncius suggests that the inventor of the telescope was likely to be

a) a Chinese scientist
b) Galileo
c) A Greek scholar
d) a lensmaker
e) none of these

450) The "terminator" for Galileo was

a) sunrise or sunset
b) the division between east and west
c) the most distant star he could see
d) his trial for heresy
e) the equator

451) The Wikipedia article, Sidereus Nuncius, points out that what the ancient Greek scientist thought was a cloudy star was really

a) a comet
b) many faint stars
c) a supernovae remnant
d) the rings of Saturn
e) a planetary nebula

452) Galileo's naming of the "Medicean Stars"

a) might have earned him a promotion
b) two of these are true
c) caused his house arrest
d) was controversial because stars were supposed to be named after Roman gods
e) broke an agreement he made with the Pope to stop writing about astronomy

453) Galileo used the terminator to

a) two of these
b) publicize his ideas
c) compensate for stellar parallax
d) measure the height of mountains
e) correlate dark and light regions with terrain

454) When the German astronomy Marius provided evidence that he (Marius) had first seen the moons of Jupiter, Galileo

a) appealed to the Pope
b) pointed out that the telescope Marius was using could not have seen the Moons
c) used his political contacts to ensure that he (Galileo) would get credit
d) won the argument using his knowledge of calendars
e) didn't care; he was a true scientist

455) Prior to the publication of Sidereus Nuncius, the Church

a) had given Galileo a commission to look into the Copernican heliocentric system
b) had outlawed all discussion of the Copernican heliocentric system
c) accepted the Copernican heliocentric system as strictly mathematical and hypothetical
d) was unaware of any controversy concerning the Copernican heliocentric system
e) none of these are true (according to the Wikipedia permalink to Sidereus Nuncius.)

456) Roughly how much bigger is a the Sun than a gas planet?

a) 10
b) 3
c) 100
d) 30
e) 300

457) The AU is

a) the distance from the Sun to Earth
b) a measure of the brightness of a planet
c) the distance from Earth to the Moon
d) the most distant Kuiper object from the Sun
e) the size of Oort's cloud

458) A volatile is a substance that

a) melts or evaporates at high temperature
b) melts or evaporates at low temperature
c) reacts violently with water
d) reacts violently with acids
e) reacts violently with oxygen

459) The Sun and Earth are about

a) 500 million years old
b) 5 billion years old
c) 5 million years old
d) 50 million years old
e) 50 billion years old

460) According to Wikipedia _______ and ______ are referred to as volatiles.

a) asteroids and terrestrial planets
b) planets and moons
c) acids and bases
d) ices and gasses
e) electrons and protons

461) Roughly how much bigger is a gas planet than a terrestrial planet?

a) 300
b) 30
c) 3
d) 100
e) 10

462) When the sun turns into a red giant,

a) surface temperature decreases; energy output increases
b) surface temperature increases; energy output increases
c) surface temperature increases; energy output decreases
d) The sun will not turn into a red giant
e) surface temperature decreases; energy output decreases

a) 150 million years old
b) 150 billion years old
c) 1.5 billion years old
d) 15 million years old
e) 15 billion years old

464) All planets lie within a nearly flat disc called the __________ plane

a) interstellar
b) angular
c) fissile
e) ecliptic

465) In planetary science, the frost line refers to a distance away from

a) the star in the middle
b) either pole of a planet
c) the south pole of a planet
d) ecliptic plane
e) the north pole of a planet

466) Oort's cloud was hypothesized to explain the source of

a) water outside the frost line
b) planets
c) water inside the frost line
d) asteroids
e) comets

467) According to Wikipedia, if all the mass of the asteroid belt were combined to one object, it's mass would _______ times less than Earth's mass.

a) 10
b) 1
c) 1,000
d) 100
e) 10,000

468) Which of the following list is properly ranked, starting with objects closest to the Sun?

a) Kuiper belt, Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud
b) Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt
c) Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud
d) Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud, Kuiper belt
e) Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt

469) Very far from the sun, the heliosphere

a) never ends
b) spins in the opposite direction
c) becomes the magnetosphere
d) reverses direction
e) becomes weaker than the interstellar wind
470)
planetary disk
In this hypothetical image of a sun-like star we see a bright band of dust that we on Earth call zodiacal light. It is due to sunlight reflecting off dust in the
a) Oort Cloude
b) ecliptic plane
c) Van Allen belt
d) magnetic sun's magnetic field
e) Kuiper belt

471) The frost line is situated approximately

a) 10 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun
b) 5 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun
c) 5 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center
d) 10 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

472) Currently there are 7 billion people on Earth, if that ever increases to 10 billion people, for every person on Earth there will be ____ stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

a) 200
b) 20
c) 2
d) 2000

473) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is nearly circular.

a) true
b) false

474) Pluto is classified as

a) a dwarf planet with no natural satellites
b) a natural satellite of Uranus
c) an asteroid belt object
d) a natural satellite of Neptune
e) a dwarf planet and a trans-Neptunian object.

475) In astrophysics, what is accretion?

a) the condensation of volatiles as a gas cools
b) the growth of a comet's tail as it comes close to the Sun
c) the growth in size of a massive star as its outer atmosphere expands
d) the increase in temperature and pressure of a star as it collapses from its own gravity
e) the growth of a massive object by gravitationally attracting more matter

476) How many of the outer planets have rings?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2

477) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is opposite that of the 8 planets.

a) true
b) false

478) Dwarf planets have no natural satellites,

a) true
b) false

479) Dwarf planets are defined as objects orbiting the Sun and smaller than planets, that?

a) lack an atmosphere
b) have been rounded by their own gravity
c) possess an atmosphere
d) are too far from the Sun to be planets
e) lie in the asteroid belt

480) Stellar parallax is

a) None of these is correct.
b) Using changes in the angular position of a star to deduce the star’s distance
c) Using spectral lines to deduce the distance to nearby stars
d) Two of these is correct
e) Triangulation to deduce the distance to nearby stars
481) How do low-mass stars change as they are born?
Birth of stars HR path tracks
a) Decreasing temperature and increasing luminosity
b) Increasing luminosity with no change in temperature
c) Decreasing luminosity with no change in temperature
d) Decreasing temperature with no change in luminosity
e) Increasing temperature with no change in luminosity

482) Giant molecular clouds with sufficient conditions to form a star cluster would have formed them long ago. Any stellar births in the past couple of billions years probably resulted from _____ between clouds.

a) None of these is correct.
b) ion exchange
c) collisions
d) photon exchange
e) Two of these are correct

483) Why is a star made of plasma?

a) it is so hot that electrons are stripped away from the protons
b) plasma is always present when there are strong magnetic fields
c) the interstellar gas was mostly plasma
d) the intense gravity liquifies the substance, just as red blood cells liquify plasma in the body
e) plasma is generic word for "important"

484) Many supernovae begin as a shock wave in the core that was caused by

a) all of these processes contribute to the shock wave
b) iron fusing into heavier elements such as uranium
c) carbon and other elements fusing into iron
d) the conversion of carbon into diamonds,
e) electrons being driven into protons to form neutrons

485) What is the difference between a constellation and an asterism?

a) constellations consist of never more than ten stars.
b) none of these is correct
c) constellations represent regions of the sky, like state boundaries on a map of the USA
d) asterisms are larger than constellations
e) asterisms are smaller than constellations

486) Pre–main sequence stars are often surrounded by a protoplanetary disk and powered mainly by

a) chemical reactions
b) the fission of Carbon from Helium
c) the fusion of Helium to Carbon
d) collisions between protoplanets
e) the release of gravitational energy

487) Which of the following changes in the properties of a giant molecular cloud might cause it to collapse?

a) Increase size at fixed pressure and mass
b) Increase mass at fixed temperature and size
c) Two of these are correct
d) Decrease mass at fixed temperature and size
e) Increase temperature at fixed mass and size

488) Which of the following expresses Jean's criterion for the collapse of a giant molecular cloud of mass, M, radius, R, and temperature T, and pressure P? (Here ? is some constant)

a) M>?RT
b) P>?MR
c) R>?MT
d) T>?RM
e) P>?MT

489) The Hayashi and Henyey tracks refer to how T Tauri of different masses will move

a) through an HR diagram as they die
b) through a cluster as they are born
c) through an HR diagram as they are born
d) through a cluster as they die
e) Two of these are true

490) When a star with more than 10 solar masses ceases fuse hydrogen to helium, it

a) it fuses helium to carbon and then ceases to produce more energy
b) ceases to convert nuclear energy.
c) it fuses elements up to uranium, and continues to produce energy by the fission of uranium.
d) it fuses helium to carbon and other elements up to iron and then ceases to produce more energy
e) it fuses helium to carbon to iron (and other elements), then continues to release more energy by fusing the iron to heavier elements such as uranium.

491) What is a Bok globule in the formation of stellar systems?

a) A black hole that enters a cloud and triggers the collapse
b) A cluster of giant molecular clouds that coalesce to form a solar system
c) A supernovae precurser that attracts more gas atoms
d) A small planet that formed before any stars have formed
e) A small portion of a giant cloud that collapses

492) According to Wikipedia, a star with over 20 solar masses converts its Hyrogen to Helium in about 8 billion years, but the conversion of Oxygen to heavier elements take about _____

a) 1 year
b) 1 billion years
c) 10 billion years
d) 1 million years
e) 1 thousand years

493) What happens if you increase the size of a giant molecular cloud while keeping temperature and mass fixed?

a) It is less likely to collapse because temperature can never be kept fixed
b) It is equally likely to collapse because size is not part of the Jean's criterion.
c) It is less likely to collapse spreading it out weakens the force of gravity
d) It is more likely to collapse because larger things have more gravity
e) It is more likely to collapse because this will increase the temperature

494) A dying star with more than 1.4 solar masses becomes a ______, and those with more than 5 solar masses becomes a _____

a) white dwarf....neutron star
b) neutron star....black hole
c) white dwarf...red dwarf
d) white dwarf....black hole
e) blue giant....red giant

495) Stars that begin with more than 50 solar masses will typically lose _______ while on the main sequence.

a) 10% of their magnetic field
b) 1% their mass
c) 10% their mass
d) all of their magnetic field
e) 50% their mass

496) A starburst galaxy.

a) is a region of active stellar birth
b) All of these are correct
c) usually is a result of collisions between galaxies
d) has only dead or dying stars
e) Two of these are correct
497)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
a) epicycle gear
b) spiral bevel gear
c) crown gear

498) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

499) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

a) true
b) false

500) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?

a) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.
b) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
c) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.

501) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.

a) true
b) false

502) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?

a) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
b) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.
c) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
d) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.

503) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.

a) true
b) false

504) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?

a) 300 years
b) 15,000 years
c) 3000 years
d) 1500 years
e) 30 years

505) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

506) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device

a) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.
b) suggested that Greek technology was used.
c) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
d) suggested that Roman technology was used.

507) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.

a) true
b) false

508) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years

a) 3
b) 1
c) 4
d) 2

509) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

510) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

a) true
b) false

511) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______

a) one month;   18 years
b) 34 days;   six months
c) six months;   54 years
d) six months;   18 years
e) 7 days;   one month

512) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

a) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.
b) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
c) copper;   to make it hard.
d) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.

513) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

514) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________.

a) sponge divers;   1900
b) Jacques-Yves Cousteau;   1976

515) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

a) true
b) false

516) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons.

a) true
b) false

517) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?

a) Chemical analysis of the bronze.
b) The quality of its manufacture.
c) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
d) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.

518) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

a) 300-350 BC
b) 100-150 BC
d) 500-550 BC
519) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) B: 000111
b) A: 001110
c) B: 001110
d) A: 001110
520) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) A: 000010
b) A: 000100
c) B: 000010
d) B: 000100
521) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) B: 011110
c) H: 011110
d) A: 011110
522) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) A: 011110
c) B: 011110
d) H: 011110
523) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
a) B: 000110
b) A: 000110
c) A: 001100
d) B: 000110
524) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) B: 000110
b) A: 001110
c) B: 001100
d) A: 000110

525) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to

a) an abacus
b) Roman numerals
c) counting rods
d) a person

526) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* If the number is divisible by 10, add 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

527) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

528) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

a) true
b) false

529) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to

a) count votes in an election
b) control a textile mill
c) control a telephone exchange
d) calculate the value of π

530) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

531) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

532) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

533) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was

a) mechanical
b) electromechanical
c) Turing-complete
d) electric digital programmable

534) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

a) conceptual
b) analog
c) digital
d) prototype
e) electromechanical

535) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

a) true
b) false

536) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.

a) Turing-complete
b) mechanical
c) electromechanical
d) electric digital programmable

537) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

a) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
b) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
c) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
d) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits

538) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem

a) true
b) false

539) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

a) true
b) false

540) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

541) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved.

a) true
b) false

542) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)

a) true
b) false

543) ${\displaystyle {\frac {360\,{\text{degrees}}}{30\,{\text{days}}}}={\frac {36}{3}}\,}$, calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______

a) degrees per hour across the sky
b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
c) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
d) degrees per day across the sky

544) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac

a) true
b) false

545) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere

a) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.
b) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.
c) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.
d) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.
e) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.

546) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)

a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0
e) 3

547) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

a) true
b) false

548) ${\displaystyle {\frac {360}{24}}={\frac {36\cdot 10}{12\cdot 2}}={\frac {12\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 2}{12\cdot 2\,}}}$, calculates that the Sun moves 15

a) degrees per hour across the sky
b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
c) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
d) degrees per day across the sky

549) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one

a) month
b) year
c) day
d) week

550) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations

a) true
b) false

551) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.

a) true
b) false

552) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

a) true
b) false

553) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

a) 0.16° Celsius
b) 0.6° Celsius
c) 1.6° Celsius
d) 0.06° Celsius
e) 16° Celsius

554) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

a) adaptation to the effects of global warming
b) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming
c) reduction of green house emissions
d) climate engineering

555) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are

a) cement production and waste disposal
b) cement production and land use changes
c) population growth
d) population growth and waste disposal

556) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years

a) 100
b) 300
c) 3
d) 30
e) 10

557) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by

a) 60% of the academies of science
b) all but the US academy of science
c) 90% of the academies of science
d) all of the academies of science

558) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in

a) the world economy
b) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
c) the earth's distance from the sun
d) the sun's energy output

559) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

a) The United States has warmed more than Australia
b) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
c) all portions of Antarctica have warmed
d) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States

560) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________

a) sea; in the top kilometer
b) land; near the equators
c) sea; in the bottom kilometer
d) air; in the water vapor
e) land; near the poles

561) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

a) on the ocean surface
b) near the equator
c) near the poles
d) in the western hemisphere

562) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling

a) true
b) false

563) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent

a) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone
b) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels
c) estimates of the impact on land temperatures
d) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future

564) Anthropogenic means something that

a) humans cannot repair
b) humans can repair
c) human caused
d) will hurt humans

565) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

a) true
b) false

566) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

a) true
b) false

567) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth

a) true
b) false

568) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

a) ice and snow melts
b) water tends to expand as it warms
c) both of these are true

569) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

a) 0.7 °C per year
b) 0.7 °C per century

570) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)

a) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
b) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
c) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements
d) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period

571) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.

a) 3%
b) 0.3%
c) 30%
d) 0%

572) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun

a) true
b) false

573) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

a) half as much
c) twice as much

574) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was

b) twice as much
c) half as much

575) What happens when water is heated?

a) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C
b) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
c) it absorbs CO2

576) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.

a) true
b) false

577) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.

a) 0.07°C
b) 0.7°C
c) 7.0°C

578) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

a) tree proxy measurements
b) the Medieval Warming Period
c) the Little Ice Age
d) a 10 year average
e) thermometer measurements

579) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.

a) true
b) false

580) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

a) true
b) false

581) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.

a) true
b) false

582) Emissions scenarios are

a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
b) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature
c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
d) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases

583) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

584) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

585) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.

a) true
b) false

586) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.

a) true
b) false

587) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.

a) true
b) false

588) The carbon cycle

a) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
b) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.
c) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.

589) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

a) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
b) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming
c) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface

590) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

591) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

a) true
b) false

592) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

a) true
b) false

593) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.

a) true
b) false

594) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.

a) true
b) false

595) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

a) greenhouse gasses
b) orbital cycles
c) volcanic eruptions
d) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)

596) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

597) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations

a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.
c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations

598) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

a) true
b) false

599) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

600) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?

a) 30%
b) 0%
c) 10%
d) 50%

601) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

602) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?

a) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
b) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.
c) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
d) all of these are true

603) The cryosphere refers to

a) the upper atmosphere
b) the highest mountains
c) the north and south poles
d) two of these are true

604) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

a) true
b) false

605) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.

a) true
b) false

606) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.

a) true
b) false

607) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.

a) true
b) false

608) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.

a) true
b) false

609) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.

a) true
b) false

610) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.

a) true
b) false

611) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.

a) true
b) false

612) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

613) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

614) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in

a) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun
b) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight
c) how much ice is melted during the summer months

615) The Miner's Friend

a) provided ventilation
b) transported miners
c) pumped water
d) was electrical lighting

616) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

a) pick cotton
b) spin cotton
c) remove seeds
d) weave cotton
e) clean cotton

617) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by

a) water and wind.
b) steam and wind.
c) water and steam.

618) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them

a) burned down
b) is still in use today
c) two of these are true
d) was transported to Germany
e) was sabotaged by workers

619) Puddling involved

a) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
b) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
c) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
d) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring

620) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______

a) Coalopolis, coal mines
b) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
c) Cottonopolis, textile factories
d) Weavopolis, Weaving factories

621) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______

a) faster, puddling
b) faster, hammering
c) cheaper, hammering
d) cheaper, puddling

622) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.

a) weaving, spinning, fewer
b) spinning, weaving, more
c) weaving, spinning, more
d) spinning, weaving, fewer

623) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required

a) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).
b) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.
c) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.

624) The industrial revolution began in

a) Great Britain
b) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
c) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
d) United States
e) Germany

625) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

a) weaving, spinning, more
b) weaving, spinning, fewer
c) spinning, weaving, fewer
d) spinning, weaving, more

626) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

a) producing dyes and bleaching cloth
b) removing rust and bleaching cloth
c) making cement and bleaching cloth
d) removing rust and making cement
e) producing dyes and making cement

627) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by

a) replacing iron containers with glass containers
b) replacing lead containers with glass containers
c) replacing glass containers with lead containers
d) replacing glass containers with iron containers

628) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to

b) drill coal mines
c) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
d) shape plates for ship hulls

629) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect

a) the woollen industry
b) domestic cotton production
c) small manufacturers
d) large manufacturers

630) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years

a) 400
b) 100
c) 300
d) 500
e) 200

631) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?

a) assembly lines
b) textiles
c) steam power
d) iron making

632) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in

a) Italy
b) United States
c) Germany
d) Sweden
e) Great Britain

633) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?

a) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
b) sustained growth, for the first time in history
c) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.
d) the question is a subject of controversy

634) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

a) the American revolution (1776)
b) World War I (1914)
c) the American civil war (1861)

635) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was

a) ship building
c) textiles
d) farm equipment
e) military spending

636) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 6.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 5.0 meters

637) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 7.0 meters
b) 10.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 11.0 meters

638) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 10.0 meters
b) 11.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 12.0 meters

639) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 18.0 meters
b) 17.0 meters
c) 16.0 meters
d) 19.0 meters
e) 20.0 meters

640) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 12.0 meters
b) 10.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 11.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

641) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 23.0 meters
b) 25.0 meters
c) 27.0 meters
d) 26.0 meters
e) 24.0 meters

642) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 3.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 4.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

643) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 10.0 meters
b) 11.0 meters
c) 9.0 meters
d) 8.0 meters
e) 7.0 meters

644) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 17.0 meters
b) 13.0 meters
c) 14.0 meters
d) 16.0 meters
e) 15.0 meters

645) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 23.0 meters
b) 21.0 meters
c) 22.0 meters
d) 19.0 meters
e) 20.0 meters

646) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 4.0 meters
b) 5.0 meters
c) 1.0 meters
d) 2.0 meters
e) 3.0 meters

647) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 6.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 3.0 meters

648) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)

b) greater
c) less

a) plutonium and enriched uranium
b) uranium and enriched plutonium
c) plutonium and enriched hesparium

650) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

a) what called neutrons
b) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
c) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
d) what he called alpha particles

651) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

a) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"
b) "moonshine";   fast neutrons
c) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons
d) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)

652) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?

a) expected
b) unlikely
c) likely
d) impossible

653) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia

a) true
b) false

654) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

a) nuclear power generation
b) nuclear weapons
c) they were developed simultaneously

655) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

a) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
b) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
c) protons are positively charged
d) protons move at the speed of light

656) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________

a) hesperium;   fission
b) fission;   hesparium
c) fusion;   hesparium
d) hesperium;   fusion

657) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was

a) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
b) a protest movement centered in US universities
c) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
d) a congressional committee

658) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years

a) true
b) false

659) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was

a) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
b) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
c) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy

660) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons

a) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
b) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price

661) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is

a) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.
b) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.
c) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.
d) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.

662) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...

a) nuclear war
b) a world government to prevent nuclear war
c) that fossil fuels would go unused

663) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______

a) early 20th century
b) early 19th century
c) late 19th century

664) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

a) comparable
b) less
c) more

665) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

a) neutrons are slow
b) neutrons are stable

666) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?

a) 3%
b) 33%
c) 63%
d) 13%

667) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

a) Oak Ridge
b) Great Britain
c) Virginia
d) Russia

668) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and

a) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
b) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)
c) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
d) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)

669) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines

a) true
b) false

670) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

a) 90
b) 10
c) 50

671) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?

a) from 0 to 1000
b) from 4000 to 25,000
c) zero

672) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.

a) true
b) false

673) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries

a) true
b) false

674) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure

a) to prevent it from boiling
b) to slow down the neutrons
c) to reduce the heat required to boil it
d) only in the reactor core

675) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

a) 1 %
b) 60%
c) 99%
d) 3%
e) 30%

676) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

a) 5 months
b) 50 years
c) 5 years

677) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned

a) 6 years;   3%
b) 6 months;   3%
c) 6 months;   30%
d) 6 years;   30%

678) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

a) 10 times less than
b) 100 times more than
c) 10 times more than
d) 100 times less than

679) Nuclear power plants typically have

a) high capital costs and low fuel costs
b) low capital costs and low fuel costs
c) low capital costs and high fuel costs
d) high capital costs and high fuel costs

680) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.

a) 4 times more common
b) 40 times more common
c) 4 times less common
d) 40 times less common

681) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

682) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are

b) are likely to emerge in the next few decades
c) considered impossible

683) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

a) true
b) false

684) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

a) true
b) false

685) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

a) true
b) false

686) The Megatons to Megawatts Program

a) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
b) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure
c) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
d) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure

687) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

688) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

a) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
b) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
c) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership

689) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

a) they cannot be stored underground
b) the isotopes are short-lived
c) the isotopes are long-lived

690) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium

a) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
b) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
c) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns
d) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states

691) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

a) 100 times more than
b) 100 times less than
c) 10 times less than
e) 10 times more than

692) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

a) above a threshold intensity
b) above a threshold wavelength
c) above a thresholdfrequency
d) at a specific frequency

693) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?

a) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.
b) by measuring the wavelength of the light
c) by measuring the distance between the electrodes

694) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

a) above a threshold wavelength
b) above a threshold frequency
c) at a specific frequency
d) above a threshold intensity

695) What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?

a) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.
b) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur
c) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.
d) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.

696) How would you describe Old Quantum Theory

a) neither complete nor self-consistent
b) self-consistent but not complete
c) complete but not self-consistent
d) complete and self-consistent

697) What are examples of energy?

a) momentum
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}mv}$
c) heat
d) all of the above

698) What are examples of energy?

a) heat
b) all of the above
c) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}mv^{2}}$

699) How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?

a) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.
b) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.
c) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits
d) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits

700) What are the units of Plank's constant?

a) mass x velocity
b) energy x time
c) none of the above
d) all of the above
e) momentum x distance x mass

701) The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of

a) energy
b) electrons
c) light
d) protons

702) Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?

a) low mass
b) high speed
c) confinement to a small space
d) low speed

703) What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?

a) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize
b) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct
c) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation
d) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick

704) What are the units of Plank's constant?

a) energy x time
b) none of the above
c) all of the above
d) mass x velocity x distance
e) momentum x distance

705) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

a) 30
b) 5
c) 8
d) 15

706) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

a) leap years
b) a wobble in the Moon's orbit
c) precession of the Moon's orbit
d) precession of the equinoxes

707) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

b) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)
c) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
d) an unknown Babylonian

708) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
b) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
c) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

709) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

a) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
b) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
c) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
d) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day

710) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

a) true
b) false

711) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

a) 20
b) 10
c) 40
d) 1
e) 2

712) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

713) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

a) season of the year
b) day of the month
c) time of day

714) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) true
b) false

715) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

a) 30
b) 15
c) 10
d) 40

716) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) away from Earth
b) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
c) zero
d) towards Earth
e) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity

717) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the west
b) to the east
c) zero

718) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

a) zero
b) up
c) down

719) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

a) zero
b) down
c) up

720) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is

a) west
b) north
c) zero
d) south
e) east

721) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is

a) up
b) down
c) zero

722) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) west
b) south
c) north
d) zero
e) east

723) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northwest
b) south
c) west
d) southwest
e) southeast

724) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) north
b) northeast
c) southwest
d) south
e) northwest

725) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) up
b) zero
c) down

726) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) southeast
b) northwest
c) north
d) south
e) northeast

727) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the east
c) to the west

728) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

a) zero
b) down
c) up

729) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) north
b) south
c) northeast
d) northwest
e) southwest

730) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

731) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

a) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly
b) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
c) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied

732) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the west
b) to the east
c) zero

733) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) south
b) north
c) northeast
d) southwest
e) northwest

734) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) southeast
b) northeast
c) north
d) northwest
e) northeast

735) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

a) fifth
b) dissonance
c) octave

736) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) positive interference
b) negative diffraction
c) negative interference
d) positive diffraction

737) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

b) neither reverberation nor echo
c) both reverberation and echo

738) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

a) fifth
b) dissonance
c) octave

739) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes

a) lower
b) higher
c) unchanged

740) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

a) dissonance
b) octave
c) fifth

741) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,

a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency

742) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) has lower amplitude than the incident wave
b) has higher frequency than the incident wave
c) both of these are true

743) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength gets shorter
b) the wavelength stays the same
c) the wavelength gets longer

744) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 30
b) 20
c) 50
d) 60
e) 40

745) People don't usually perceive an echo when

a) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
b) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound
c) it arrives at a higher pitch
d) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
e) it arrives at a lower pitch

746) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative diffraction
b) positive interference
c) negative interference
d) positive diffraction

747) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes

a) unchanged
b) higher
c) lower

748) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

a) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
b) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.
c) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.

749) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) positive diffraction
b) positive interference
c) negative diffraction
d) negative interference

750) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

a) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
b) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
c) Echo usually stifles the beats
d) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard

751) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
b) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
c) No, the clouds would get hot
d) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis

752) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once a 5 months
b) once every 50 years
c) once every 5 years

753) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 700km/s
b) 1400km/s
c) 350km/s

754) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines
b) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines
c) there would be no shift in the spectral lines

755) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away
b) How bright it is as viewed from Earth
c) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion

756) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

a) they have a wide variety of speeds
b) the cluster is close to us
c) they all have nearly the same speed
d) they are not receding away from us

757) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.
b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies
c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
d) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light

758) An example of a standard candle is

a) all of these are standard candles
b) a supernova in a distant galaxy
c) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light
d) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

759) Integrate the function, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=r^{8}\theta ^{5}{\hat {r}}+r^{4}\theta ^{6}{\hat {\theta }}}$ , along the first quadrant of a circle of radius 4

a) 2.63E+03
b) 2.82E+03
c) 3.01E+03
d) 3.23E+03
e) 3.45E+03

760) Integrate the line integral of, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=6.1xy{\hat {x}}+5.9y^{3}{\hat {y}}}$, along the y axis from y = 6 to y = 12

a) 2.87E+04
b) 3.07E+04
c) 3.28E+04
d) 3.51E+04
e) 3.76E+04

761) Integrate the function, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=-x^{5}y^{2}{\hat {x}}+x^{2}y^{4}{\hat {y}}}$, as a line integral around a unit square with corners at (0,0),(1,0),(1,1),(0,1). Orient the path so its direction is out of the paper by the right hand rule

a) 3.43E-01
b) 3.67E-01
c) 3.92E-01
d) 4.20E-01
e) 4.49E-01

762) Integrate the line integral of ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=1.3xy{\hat {x}}+6.4x{\hat {y}}}$ from the origin to the point at x = 2.2 and y = 3.6

a) 3.07E+01
b) 3.29E+01
c) 3.52E+01
d) 3.77E+01
e) 4.03E+01

763) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6), what is the acceleration?

a) a(t) = +80sin(4t-π/6)
b) a(t) = +20sin(4t-π/6)
c) a(t) = -80sin(4t-π/6)
d) a(t) = -100sin(4t-π/6)
e) a(t) = -100cos(4t-π/6)

764) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6), what is the acceleration?

a) a(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)
b) a(t) = +21sin(3t-π/6)
c) a(t) = +63sin(3t-π/6)
d) a(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
e) a(t) = -63sin(3t-π/6)

765) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 21cos(3t-π/6)
b) v(t) = 21sin(3t-π/6)
c) v(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)
d) v(t) = 7cos(3t-π/6)
e) v(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)

766) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7cos(3t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
b) v(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6)
c) v(t) = 21sin(3t-π/6)
d) v(t) = 21cos(3t-π/6)
e) v(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)

767) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5cos(4t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6)
b) v(t) = -20sin(4t-π/6)
c) v(t) = -20cos(4t-π/6)
d) v(t) = 20sin(4t-π/6)
e) v(t) = 20cos(4t-π/6)

768) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 20cos(4t-π/6)
b) v(t) = 5cos(4t-π/6)
c) v(t) = 20sin(4t-π/6)
d) v(t) = -20sin(4t-π/6)
e) v(t) = -20cos(4t-π/6)

769) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 5
b) s−4
c) 1−s
d) s−1
e) 5−s

770) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}=}$

a) 3
b) 2
c) −3
d) −7
e) −3

771) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 4 to x = 8. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (8, 4)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {A}}=}$:

a) 1/2
b) 4
c) 2
d) 8

772) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {F}}=}$:

a) 2/3
b) 3
c) 2
d) 3/2
e) 1/2

773) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 2 to y = 7. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (2, 9)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) s − 9
b) 2
c) 2 − s
d) s − 2
e) 9 − s

774) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 4 to x = 8. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (8, 4)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) s−8
b) s−4
c) 4
d) 4−s
e) 8−s

775) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$

a) 3
b) 3−s
c) s−3
d) s−7
e) 7−s

776) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where${\displaystyle {\mathcal {F}}=}$

a) 1/2
b) 3/2
c) 3
d) 2

777) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 4 to x = 8. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (8, 4)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) s−8
b) s−4
c) 4−s
d) 4
e) 8−s

778) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 3 to x = 7. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (7, 8)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 7−s
b) 3−s
c) 8
d) s−7
e) s−3

779) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 2 to y = 7. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (2, 9)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}=}$:

a) 92 + (7-s)2
b) 22 + (7-s)2
c) 92 + (2-s)2
d) 22 + (9-s)2
e) 72 + (2-s)2

780) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 5−s
b) s−1
c) 5
d) s−4
e) 1−s

781) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 3 to x = 7. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (7, 8)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}=}$:

a) (7-s)2 + 82
b) 32 + 82
c) 72 + (8−s)2
d) 72 + 82
e) 72 + (3−s)2

782) A sphere has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$, and a radius or R. What formula describes the electric field at a distance r > R?

a) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /2}$
b) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /3}$
c) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /3}$
d) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /2}$
e) none of these are correct

783) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much greater than the radius: H >> R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, r, radially from the center if r > R?

a) ${\displaystyle 2r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho }$
b) ${\displaystyle 2\varepsilon _{0}E=r\rho }$
c) none of these are correct
d) ${\displaystyle 2R\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{2}\rho }$
e) ${\displaystyle 2r\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{2}\rho }$

784) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much greater than the radius: H >> R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, r, radially from the center if r < R?

a) ${\displaystyle 2r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho }$
b) none of these are correct
c) ${\displaystyle 2R\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{2}\rho }$
d) ${\displaystyle 2r\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{2}\rho }$
e) ${\displaystyle 2\varepsilon _{0}E=r\rho }$

785) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much less than the radius: H << R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, z, on axis from the center if z > H/2?

a) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho /2}$
b) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho z}$
c) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho }$
d) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=\rho z}$
e) none of these are correct

786) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much less than the radius: H << R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, z, on axis from the center if z < H/2?

a) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=\rho z}$
b) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho }$
c) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho /2}$
d) none of these are correct
e) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho z}$

787) A sphere has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$, and a radius equal to R. What formula describes the electric field at a distance r < R?

a) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /2}$
b) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /3}$
c) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /2}$
d) none of these are correct
e) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /3}$

788) A cylinder of radius, r=2, and height, h=4, is centered at the origin and oriented along the z axis. A vector field can be expressed in cylindrical coordinates as,
${\displaystyle {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}=(2.05+2.05z)\rho ^{2}{\hat {\rho }}+9.62z^{3}{\hat {z}}}$
Let ${\displaystyle {\hat {n}}}$ be the outward unit normal to this cylinder and evaluate ,
${\displaystyle \left|\int _{top}{\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}\cdot {\hat {n}}dA\right|\,}$
over the top surface of the cylinder.

a) 4.489E+02
b) 5.438E+02
c) 6.589E+02
d) 7.983E+02
e) 9.671E+02

789) A cylinder of radius, r=3, and height, h=6, is centered at the origin and oriented along the z axis. A vector field can be expressed in cylindrical coordinates as,
${\displaystyle {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}=(1.88+1.29z)\rho ^{2}{\hat {\rho }}+7.2z^{2}{\hat {z}}}$
Let ${\displaystyle {\hat {n}}}$ be the outward unit normal to this cylinder and evaluate ,
${\displaystyle \left|\oint {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}\cdot {\hat {n}}dA\right|\,}$
over the entire surface of the cylinder.

a) 1.08E+03
b) 1.30E+03
c) 1.58E+03
d) 1.91E+03
e) 2.32E+03

790) A cylinder of radius, r=3, and height, h=6, is centered at the origin and oriented along the z axis. A vector field can be expressed in cylindrical coordinates as,
${\displaystyle {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}=(2.28+1.72z)\rho ^{3}{\hat {\rho }}+7.33z^{3}{\hat {z}}}$
Let ${\displaystyle {\hat {n}}}$ be the outward unit normal to this cylinder and evaluate ,
${\displaystyle \left|\int _{side}{\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}\cdot {\hat {n}}dA\right|\,}$
over the curved side surface of the cylinder.

a) 3.232E+03
b) 3.915E+03
c) 4.743E+03
d) 5.747E+03
e) 6.962E+03
791)
A torus is centered around the x-y plane, with major radius, a = 3.24 m, and minor radius, r = 1.35m. A wire carrying 4.9A is uniformly wrapped with 731 turns. If B=μ0H is the magnetic field, what is H inside the torus, at a point on the xy plane that is 0.81m from the outermost edge of the torus?
a) 1.11E+02 amps per meter
b) 1.20E+02 amps per meter
c) 1.30E+02 amps per meter
d) 1.40E+02 amps per meter
e) 1.51E+02 amps per meter

792) If ${\displaystyle H=B/\mu _{0}}$, where ${\displaystyle B}$ is magnetic field, what is ${\displaystyle H}$ at a distance of 6.3m from a wire carrying a current of 7.4A?

a) 1.87E-01 A/m
b) 2.05E-01 A/m
c) 2.25E-01 A/m
d) 2.46E-01 A/m
e) 2.70E-01 A/m

793) Amphere's law for magnetostatic currents is that ${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}=\int {\vec {J}}\cdot {\vec {dA}}}$ equals the current enclosed by the closed loop, and ${\displaystyle B=\mu _{0}H}$ is the magnetic field. A current of 7.9A flows upward along the z axis. Noting that for this geometry, ${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {B}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}=B\oint d\ell }$, calculate the line integral ${\displaystyle \oint d\ell }$ for a circle of radius 4.2m.

a) 1.83E+01 m
b) 2.00E+01 m
c) 2.19E+01 m
d) 2.41E+01 m
e) 2.64E+01 m

794) If ${\displaystyle H=B/\mu _{0}}$, where ${\displaystyle B}$ is magnetic field, what is ${\displaystyle H_{y}}$ at the point (3.854,4.8566) if a current of 4.8A flows through a wire that runs along the z axis?

a) 6.37E-02 A/m
b) 6.99E-02 A/m
c) 7.66E-02 A/m
d) 8.40E-02 A/m
e) 9.21E-02 A/m

795) A very long and thin solenoid has 2762 turns and is 142 meters long. The wire carrys a current of 9.7A. What is the magnetic field in the center?

a) 2.37E-04 Tesla
b) 2.60E-04 Tesla
c) 2.85E-04 Tesla
d) 3.13E-04 Tesla
e) 3.43E-04 Tesla

796) A very long and thin solenoid has 1292 turns and is 122 meters long. The wire carrys a current of 8.4A. If this solenoid is sufficiently thin, what is the line integral of${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$ along an on-axis path that starts 39 meters from the center and stops 75 meters from the center?

a) 1.63E+03 A
b) 1.78E+03 A
c) 1.96E+03 A
d) 2.15E+03 A
e) 2.35E+03 A

797) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 44A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from (-∞,5) to (+,5).

a) 1.67E+01 amps
b) 1.83E+01 amps
c) 2.01E+01 amps
d) 2.20E+01 amps
e) 2.41E+01 amps

798) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 40A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from the point (0,6.6) to the point (6.6,0).

a) 1.00E+01 amps
b) 1.10E+01 amps
c) 1.20E+01 amps
d) 1.32E+01 amps
e) 1.45E+01 amps

799) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 51A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from the point (-7, 7) to the point (7, 7).

a) 9.67E+00 amps
b) 1.06E+01 amps
c) 1.16E+01 amps
d) 1.28E+01 amps
e) 1.40E+01 amps

800) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 42A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from the point (0,4.2) to the point (4.2,4.2).

a) 3.98E+00 amps
b) 4.37E+00 amps
c) 4.79E+00 amps
d) 5.25E+00 amps
e) 5.76E+00 amps

801) A circlular capactitor of radius 4.6 m has a gap of 18 mm, and a charge of 44 μC. The capacitor is discharged through a 7 kΩ resistor. What is what is the maximum magnetic field at the edge of the capacitor? (There are two ways to do this; you should know both.)

a) 6.64E-09 Tesla
b) 8.36E-09 Tesla
c) 1.05E-08 Tesla
d) 1.32E-08 Tesla
e) 1.67E-08 Tesla

802) A circlular capactitor of radius 4.5 m has a gap of 19 mm, and a charge of 13 μC. Compute the surface integral ${\displaystyle c^{-2}\oint {\vec {E}}\cdot d{\vec {A}}}$ over an inner face of the capacitor.

a) 1.35E-11 Vs2m-1
b) 1.63E-11 Vs2m-1
c) 1.98E-11 Vs2m-1
d) 2.40E-11 Vs2m-1
e) 2.91E-11 Vs2m-1

803) A circlular capactitor of radius 3.4 m has a gap of 15 mm, and a charge of 63 μC. What is the electric field between the plates?

a) 1.62E+05 N/C (or V/m)
b) 1.96E+05 N/C (or V/m)
c) 2.37E+05 N/C (or V/m)
d) 2.88E+05 N/C (or V/m)
e) 3.48E+05 N/C (or V/m)

804) A circlular capactitor of radius 3.1 m has a gap of 11 mm, and a charge of 76 μC. The capacitor is discharged through a 8 kΩ resistor. What is the decay time?

a) 1.94E-04 s
b) 2.36E-04 s
c) 2.85E-04 s
d) 3.46E-04 s
e) 4.19E-04 s

805) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 3.3
b) 9.9
c) 2.2
d) 4.4
e) 1.1

806) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as anything but "two"?

a) 1/6
b) 4/6
c) 3/6
d) 5/6
e) 2/6

807) The binomial distribution results from observing n outcomes, each having a probability p of "success"

a) True
b) False

808) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 40 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 12
b) 8
c) 6
d) 22
e) 16

809) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 3.3
b) 9.9
c) 1.1
d) 2.2

810) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is never skewed

a) True
b) False

811) By definition, a skewed distribution

a) contains no outliers
b) is a "normal" distribution
c) is asymmetric about it's peak value
d) includes negative values of the observed variable
e) is broader than an unskewed distribution

812) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is usually skewed

a) True
b) False

813) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as either a "two" or a "three"?

a) 4/6
b) 3/6
c) 1/6
d) 2/6
e) 5/6

814) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 90 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 16
b) 12
c) 6
d) 8
e) 22

815) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as "two"?

a) 5/6
b) 4/6
c) 1/6
d) 2/6
e) 3/6

816) A local college averages 2500 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 500
b) 200
c) 250
d) 50
e) 150

817) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 18
b) 6
c) 9
d) 1
e) 3

818) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 3
b) 6
c) 18
d) 2
e) 9

819) How would you describe the "skew" of a binary distribution?

a) Distributions are never skewed. Only experimental measurements of them are skewed.
b) The binary distribution is never skewed if it is a true binary distribution.
c) None of these are true.
d) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a large number of trials n.
e) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a small number of trials n.

820) A local college averages 1600 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 160
b) 40
c) 10
d) 32
e) 16

821) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5♠ to A♠?

a) lose Q points
b) win 1 point
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose 3 points

822) Suppose the partners choose the β strategy (which was not available in the solitaire version). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) None of these is correct
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$

823) When is the referee allowed to observe Alice and Bob?

a) never
b) The referee should carefully observe Alice and Bob all the time
c) While they are discussing strategy (phase 1), but not while their backs are turned to each other.
d) While their backs are turned, but not while they are discussing strategy (phase 1)

824) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.5?

a) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
b) ${\displaystyle 3}$
c) ${\displaystyle 4}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 0}$

825) Although it decreases the rate at which the partners lose point, increasing the probability of asking the same question is more effective at persuading students to act as particles by relying on the α-strategy because relying on a larger penalty for giving different answers to the same question will tempt students to use the β-strategy only briefly (hoping never to be caught) and then requesting a break to "re-establish" quantum entanglement.

a) True
b) False

826) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the different suit (different questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) None of these is correct
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$

827) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 0?

a) ${\displaystyle 0}$
b) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
c) ${\displaystyle 3}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 4}$

828) The α-strategy in the couples version of the card game is similar to the strategy introduced in the solitaire version, and calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
b) None of these describes the α-strategy
c) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
d) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
e) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")

829) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4 to A?

a) no points awarded or lost
b) win 1 point
c) lose 3 points
d) lose Q points
830)
Why is the referee smoking a pipe?
a) It is nearly impossible for Inkscape to modify an svg file.
b) The CC-BY-SA license denies the right to modify File:Silhouette Mr Pipo.svg.
c) The paper's author wishes to promote pipe smoking among college students.
d) The paper's author either likes the pipe or was too busy to remove it.

831) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.25?

a) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
b) ${\displaystyle 4}$
c) ${\displaystyle 0}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 3}$

832) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the same suit (same questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) None of these is correct
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$

833) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5 to A?

a) lose Q points
b) no points awarded or lost
c) win 1 point
d) lose 3 points

834) The β-strategy is a new strategy introduced in the couples version of the card game that calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
b) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
c) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
d) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
e) None of these describes the β-strategy

835) is it cheating for one of the partners to change mind in after communication ceases?

a) It is not cheating, and allowing to partners to do this is in the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
b) It is not cheating, but allowing to partners to do so violates the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
c) It is cheating, but fortunately the penalty allows partners to do it
d) It is cheating and the game should be terminated if the partners are caught doing this

836) Suppose referee adopts neutral scoring with Q=4 and asks the same question with a probability PS=0.25. This reduces the average loss rate for their partners for the following reason: Consider a probability space with

a) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning twice. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
b) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning once but losing twice. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
c) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
d) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning twice but losing once. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
e) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.

837) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 1?

a) ${\displaystyle 0}$
b) ${\displaystyle 4}$
c) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
d) ${\displaystyle 3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$

838) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. Why would such a strategy ever be adopted? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Two of these reasons for this strategy might be valid
b) Both partners agree that there is a 90% chance that the two question cards will have the same suit.
c) There is no reason for the partners to ever adopt this strategy
d) One partner might announce that all answers will be "even", while the other is certain that the both question cards will have the same suit.
e) The partners might have cheated so much in the past that they need to lose a round.

839) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) no points awarded or lost
c) lose Q points
d) lose 3 points

840) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) None of these is correct
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
841)
This figure is associated with
a) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
b) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
c) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
e) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.

842) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 50°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 3/4
b) 0
c) 1
d) 1/4
e) 1/2

843) If an atom absorbs a photon with 2 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 4 eV
b) decreases by 2 eV
c) decreases by 4 eV
d) stays the same
e) increases by 2 eV

844) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's wavelength λ

a) becomes 4 times as big
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) stays the same
d) is cut in half
e) becomes twice as big

845) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 35°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1/4
b) 1
c) 0
d) 1/2
e) 3/4

846) In the Phet lab for photoelectric effect, how was the electron's kinetic energy measured?

a) measuring both spin and polarization
b) measuring spin
c) measuring polarization
d) deflecting the electron with a magnetic field
e) stopping the electron with an applied voltage

847) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's energy E

a) becomes twice as big
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) becomes 4 times as big
d) stays the same
e) is cut in half

848) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 55°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1
b) 1/4
c) 3/4
d) 0
e) 1/2

849) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 70°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) 0

850) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 3/4
b) 1/2
c) 1
d) 1/4
e) 0
851)
This figure is associated with
a) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
b) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
c) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
d) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
e) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.

852) If an atom absorbs a photon with 4 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) decreases by 4 eV
b) stays the same
c) increases by 4 eV
d) increases by 2 eV
e) decreases by 2 eV

853) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon doubles, the photon's frequency f

a) becomes twice as big
b) stays the same
c) becomes 4 times as big
d) is reduced by a factor of 4
e) is cut in half

854) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 65°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1
b) 0
c) 1/2
d) 1/4
e) 3/4

855) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 3/4
b) 1
c) 1/4
d) 1/2
e) 0

856) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy?

a) The hotter object has a greater energy.
b) The larger object has a greater energy.
c) They have the same energy (since the holes are identical).
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

857) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object emits more photons per second (above a given threshold energy)?

a) The object with the greater volume.
b) They both emit the same number of photons (since the holes are identical).
c) The object with the greater temperature emits more.
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
858)
This figure is associated with
a) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
c) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
e) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.

859) If an atom emits two photons in a cascade emission and both photons have 2 eV of energy, the atom's energy

a) stays the same
b) increases by 4 eV
c) decreases by 4 eV
d) decreases by 2 eV
e) increases by 2 eV

860) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 40°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 0
b) 1/4
c) 1
d) 1/2
e) 3/4

861) If a 3 eV photon strikes a metal plate and causes an electron to escape, that electron will have a kinetic energy that is

a) zero
b) less than 3 eV
c) greater than 3 eV
d) equal to 3 eV
e) equal to 6 eV

862) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy density (energy per unit volume)?

a) They have the same energy density (since the holes are identical).
b) The hotter object has a greater energy density.
c) The larger object has a greater energy density.
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

863) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon is cut in half, the photon's energy E

a) becomes twice as big
b) becomes 4 times as big
c) stays the same
d) is reduced by a factor of 4
e) is cut in half
864)
This figure is associated with
a) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf
c) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
d) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)

865) If 1018 photons pass through a small hole in your roof every second, how many photons would pass through it if you doubled the diameter?

a) 4x1018
b) 6x1018
c) 2x1018
d) 8x1018
e) 1018

866) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction parallel to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) linear or elliptical
b) circular or linear
c) circular
d) circular or elliptical
e) linearly

867) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the longer side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$

868) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 9mW
c) 4mW
d) 3mW
e) 6mW

869) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) linearly
b) circular or elliptical
c) circular or linear
d) linear or elliptical
e) circular

870) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the shorter side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$

871) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 45° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 3mW
b) 8mW
c) 4mW
d) 6mW
e) 9mW

872) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 6mW
b) 3mW
c) 9mW
d) 4mW
e) 8mW

873) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power passes the filter?

a) 6mW
b) 9mW
c) 3mW
d) 4mW
e) 8mW

874) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters. The second is oriented 30° from the first, and the third is rotated by an additional 60°, making it at right angles from the first filter. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?

a) 1/32
b) 1/16
c) 3/16
d) 1/8
e) 3/32

875) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 9mW
b) 8mW
c) 3mW
d) 6mW
e) 4mW

876) The light is linearly polarized, the electric field is oriented ________to the direction of motion

a) parallel
b) perpendicular
c) all of these are possible
d) at 45 degrees

877) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle 1}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle 1}$
c) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
878)
A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters, each oriented 45° to the previous, as shown. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?
a) 3/16
b) 1/32
c) 1/16
d) 1/8
e) 3/32

879) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 30° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$

880) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 60° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$

881) A mathematically pure (strictly monochromatic) __________ wave (oscillation) that is unpolarized cannot be created

a) electromagnetic or pendulum
b) electromagnetic
c) pendulum
d) both can be created

882) To create an unpolarized pendulum oscillation

a) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε>0.2
b) create an elliptically polarized wave with an 0.2<ε<0.8
c) start with a linear, circular, or elliptical wave and slowly evolve to different polarizations
d) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε<0.8

883) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1}$
d) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$

884) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4

885) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 5
b) 2
c) 6
d) 4
e) 3

886) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
e) 6

887) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
e) 5

888) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) be disqualified for cheating
b) win 1 point
c) lose 1 point
d) lose 3 points
e) win 3 points

889) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following wins?

a) none of these are true
b) two of these are true
c) K and K♣
d) K and K♠
e) K♠ and K♣

890) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following loses?

a) K and K♣
b) K and K♠
c) K♠ and K♣
d) none of these are true
e) two of these are true

891) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 4♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) be disqualified for cheating
b) win 3 points
c) lose 1 point
d) win 1 point
e) lose 3 points
892)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 5/6
b) 3/4
c) 2/4=1/2
d) 2/5
e) 3/5
893)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime)+P(even), or the sum of the probability that it is even, plus the probability that it is prime?
a) 5/4
b) 1
c) 1/2
d) 1/4
e) 3/4
f) 0
894)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is either even or prime?
a) 1/4
b) 1
c) 1/2
d) 5/4
e) 0
f) 3/4
895)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 3/4
b) 2/5
c) 5/6
d) 3/5
e) 2/4=1/2
896)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(even), or the probability that the number is even?
a) 1
b) 5/4
c) 0
d) 3/4
e) 1/4
f) 1/2
897)
Calculate the measured quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) −1/5
b) +2/5
c) +1
d) 0
e) +1/5
f) −2/5
898)
Calculate the quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) −1/5
b) +2/5
c) +1
d) +1/5
e) 0
f) −2/5
899)
Calculate the probability
P(♠,)+P(♠,)+P(,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 6/5
b) 4/5
c) 5/4
d) 5/6
e) 7/5
900)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime), or the probability that the number is prime?
a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 1
d) 5/4
e) 3/4
f) 1/4
901)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is both even and prime?
a) 0
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) 1
f) 5/4

902) Three resistors, R1 = 1.39 Ω, and R2 = R2 = 3.06 Ω, are connected in parallel to a 6.21 V voltage source. Calculate the power dissipated by the smaller resistor (R1.)

a) 2.293E+01 W
b) 2.522E+01 W
c) 2.774E+01 W
d) 3.052E+01 W
e) 3.357E+01 W
903)
The resistances in the figure shown are R1= 2.42 Ω, R2= 1.09 Ω, and R2= 3.89 Ω. V1 and V3 are text 0.677 V and 1.86 V, respectively. But V2 is opposite to that shown in the figure, or, equivalently, V2=−0.745 V. What is the absolute value of the current through R1?
a) 2.089E-01 A
b) 2.298E-01 A
c) 2.528E-01 A
d) 2.781E-01 A
e) 3.059E-01 A

904) A given battery has a 9 V emf and an internal resistance of 0.141 Ω. If it is connected to a 0.663 Ω resistor what is the power dissipated by that load?

a) 5.674E+01 W
b) 6.242E+01 W
c) 6.866E+01 W
d) 7.553E+01 W
e) 8.308E+01 W
905)
In the circuit shown V=15.4 V, R1=2.77 Ω, R2=6.07 Ω, and R3=14.5 Ω. What is the power dissipated by R2?
a) 1.190E+01 W
b) 1.309E+01 W
c) 1.440E+01 W
d) 1.584E+01 W
e) 1.742E+01 W
906)
Two sources of emf ε1=40.7 V, and ε2=12.3 V are oriented as shownin the circuit. The resistances are R1=3.5 kΩ and R2=1.94 kΩ. Three other currents enter and exit or exit from portions of the circuit that lie outside the dotted rectangle and are not shown. I3=3.42 mA and I4=0.932 mA enter and leave near R2, while the current I5 exits near R1.What is the magnitude (absolute value) of voltage drop across R2?
a) 1.440E+01 V
b) 1.584E+01 V
c) 1.742E+01 V
d) 1.916E+01 V
e) 2.108E+01 V
907)
Two sources of emf ε1=29.5 V, and ε2=11.0 V are oriented as shownin the circuit. The resistances are R1=2.45 kΩ and R2=1.96 kΩ. Three other currents enter and exit or exit from portions of the circuit that lie outside the dotted rectangle and are not shown. I3=3.03 mA and I4=0.783 mA enter and leave near R2, while the current I5 exits near R1.What is the magnitude (absolute value) of I5?
a) 2.247E+00 mA
b) 2.472E+00 mA
c) 2.719E+00 mA
d) 2.991E+00 mA
e) 3.290E+00 mA

908) A battery with a terminal voltage of 14.1 V is connected to a circuit consisting of 2 20.3 Ω resistors and one 13.1 Ω resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 13.1 Ω resistor?

a) 2.843E+00 V
b) 3.127E+00 V
c) 3.440E+00 V
d) 3.784E+00 V
e) 4.162E+00 V
909)
In the circuit shown the voltage across the capaciator is zero at time t=0 when a switch is closed putting the capacitor into contact with a power supply of 554 V. If the combined external and internal resistance is 228 &Omega and the capacitance is 93 mF, how long will it take for the capacitor's voltage to reach 450.0 V?
a) 3.224E+01 s
b) 3.547E+01 s
c) 3.902E+01 s
d) 4.292E+01 s
e) 4.721E+01 s
910)
Two sources of emf ε1=26.2 V, and ε2=11.5 V are oriented as shownin the circuit. The resistances are R1=2.13 kΩ and R2=1.72 kΩ. Three other currents enter and exit or exit from portions of the circuit that lie outside the dotted rectangle and are not shown. I3=3.11 mA and I4=0.746 mA enter and leave near R2, while the current I5 exits near R1.What is the magnitude (absolute value) of voltage drop across R1?
a) 4.275E+00 V
b) 4.703E+00 V
c) 5.173E+00 V
d) 5.691E+00 V
e) 6.260E+00 V

911) An alpha-particle (q=3.2x10−19C) moves through a uniform magnetic field that is parallel to the positive z-axis with magnitude 4.91 T. What is the x-component of the force on the alpha-particle if it is moving with a velocity
(4.96 i + 6.81 j  + 8.66 k) x 104 m/s?

a) 9.727E-14 N
b) 1.070E-13 N
c) 1.177E-13 N
d) 1.295E-13 N
e) 1.424E-13 N

912) An alpha-particle (m=6.64x10−27kg, q=3.2x10−19C) briefly enters a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.0887 T . It emerges after being deflected by 69° from its original direction. How much time did it spend in that magnetic field?

a) 2.561E-07 s
b) 2.817E-07 s
c) 3.099E-07 s
d) 3.409E-07 s
e) 3.750E-07 s

913) A charged particle in a magnetic field of 4.660E-04 T is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field with a speed of 7.720E+05 m/s. What is the period of orbit if orbital radius is 0.747 m?

a) 6.080E-06 s
b) 6.688E-06 s
c) 7.356E-06 s
d) 8.092E-06 s
e) 8.901E-06 s

914) An electron beam (m=9.1 x 10−31kg, q=1.6 x 10−19C) enters a crossed-field velocity selector with magnetic and electric fields of 9.23 mT and 6.120E+03 N/C, respectively. What must the velocity of the electron beam be to transverse the crossed fields undeflected ?

a) 4.982E+05 m/s
b) 5.480E+05 m/s
c) 6.028E+05 m/s
d) 6.631E+05 m/s
e) 7.294E+05 m/s

915) A 96 cm-long horizontal wire is maintained in static equilibrium by a horizontally directed magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire (and to Earth's gravity). The mass of the wire is 10 g, and the magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.325 T. What current is required to maintain this balance?

a) 2.596E-01 A
b) 2.855E-01 A
c) 3.141E-01 A
d) 3.455E-01 A
e) 3.801E-01 A

916) A circular current loop of radius 2.99 cm carries a current of 4.54 mA. What is the magnitude of the torque if the dipole is oriented at 34 ° to a uniform magnetic fied of 0.107 T?

a) 7.629E-07 N m
b) 8.392E-07 N m
c) 9.232E-07 N m
d) 1.015E-06 N m
e) 1.117E-06 N m

917) A cyclotron used to accelerate alpha particlesm=6.64 x 10−27kg, q=3.2 x 10−19C) has a radius of 0.376 m and a magneticfield of 0.786 T. What is their maximum kinetic energy?

a) 2.875E+00 MeV
b) 3.162E+00 MeV
c) 3.479E+00 MeV
d) 3.827E+00 MeV
e) 4.209E+00 MeV

918) A long rigind wire carries a 7 A current. What is the magnetic force per unit length on the wire if a 0.851 T magnetic field is directed 65° away from the wire?

a) 4.908E+00 N/m
b) 5.399E+00 N/m
c) 5.939E+00 N/m
d) 6.533E+00 N/m
e) 7.186E+00 N/m
919)
The silver ribbon shown are a=3.84 cm, b=3.45 cm, and c= 1.38 cm. The current carries a current of 92 A and it lies in a uniform magnetic field of 1.35 T. Using the density of 5.900E+28 electrons per cubic meter for silver, find the Hallpotential between the edges of the ribbon.
a) 7.153E-07 V
b) 7.869E-07 V
c) 8.655E-07 V
d) 9.521E-07 V
e) 1.047E-06 V
920)
The numbers (1,2,3) in the figure shown represent three currents flowing in or out of the page: I1 and I3 flow out of the page, and I2 flows into the page, as shown. Two closed paths are shown, labeled ${\displaystyle \beta }$ and ${\displaystyle \omega }$. If I1=2.31 kA, I2=1.08 kA, and I3=1.77 kA, take the ${\displaystyle \beta }$ path and evalulate the line integral,
${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {B}}\cdot d{\vec {\ell }}}$:
a) 7.166E-04 T-m
b) 7.883E-04 T-m
c) 8.671E-04 T-m
d) 9.538E-04 T-m
e) 1.049E-03 T-m
921)
The numbers (1,2,3) in the figure shown represent three currents flowing in or out of the page: I1 and I3 flow out of the page, and I2 flows into the page, as shown. Two closed paths are shown, labeled ${\displaystyle \beta }$ and ${\displaystyle \omega }$. If I1=2.57 kA, I2=0.708 kA, and I3=1.48 kA, take the ${\displaystyle \omega }$ path and evalulate the line integral,
${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {B}}\cdot d{\vec {\ell }}}$:
a) 4.200E-03 T-m
b) 4.620E-03 T-m
c) 5.082E-03 T-m
d) 5.590E-03 T-m
e) 6.149E-03 T-m
922)
Three wires sit at the corners of a square of length 0.466 cm. The currents all are in the positive-z direction (i.e. all come out of the paper in the figure shown.) The currents (I1, I2, I2) are (1.4 A, 2.42 A, 1.9 A), respectively. What is the x-component of the magnetic field at point P?
a) Bx= 1.335E-04 T
b) Bx= 1.468E-04 T
c) Bx= 1.615E-04 T
d) Bx= 1.777E-04 T
e) Bx= 1.954E-04 T
923)
Three wires sit at the corners of a square of length 0.865 cm. The currents all are in the positive-z direction (i.e. all come out of the paper in the figure shown.) The currents (I1, I2, I2) are (1.62 A, 2.13 A, 2.2 A), respectively. What is the y-component of the magnetic field at point P?
a) By= 5.131E-05 T
b) By= 5.644E-05 T
c) By= 6.208E-05 T
d) By= 6.829E-05 T
e) By= 7.512E-05 T

924) Two parallel wires each carry a 8.75 mA current and are oriented in the z direction. The first wire is located in the x-y plane at (3.66 cm, 1.4 cm), while the other is located at (5.64 cm, 5.66 cm). What is the force per unit length between the wires?

a) 2.449E-10 N/m
b) 2.694E-10 N/m
c) 2.963E-10 N/m
d) 3.260E-10 N/m
e) 3.586E-10 N/m

925) Under most conditions the current is distributed uniformly over the cross section of the wire. What is the magnetic field 1.03 mm from the center of a wire of radius 3 mm if the current is 1A?

a) 1.720E-05 T
b) 1.892E-05 T
c) 2.081E-05 T
d) 2.289E-05 T
e) 2.518E-05 T

926) A wire carries a current of 306 A in a circular arc with radius 2.04 cm swept through 55 degrees. Assuming that the rest of the current is 100% shielded by mu-metal, what is the magnetic field at the center of the arc?

a) 3.551E+00 Tesla
b) 3.907E+00 Tesla
c) 4.297E+00 Tesla
d) 4.727E+00 Tesla
e) 5.200E+00 Tesla

927) A solenoid has 4.900E+04 turns wound around a cylinder of diameter 1.74 cm and length 19 m. The current through the coils is 0.432 A. Define the origin to be the center of the solenoid and neglect end effects as you calculate the line integral ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {B}}\cdot {\vec {\ell }}}$ alongthe axis from z=−4.18 cm to z=+1.77 cm

a) 6.884E-05 T-m
b) 7.573E-05 T-m
c) 8.330E-05 T-m
d) 9.163E-05 T-m
e) 1.008E-04 T-m

928) A long coil is tightly wound around a (hypothetical) ferromagnetic cylinder. If n= 27 turns per centimeter and the current applied to the solenoid is 344 mA, the net magnetic field is measured to be 1.12 T. What is the magnetic susceptibility for this case?

a) ${\displaystyle \chi {\text{ (chi) }}=}$ 7.922E+02
b) ${\displaystyle \chi {\text{ (chi) }}=}$ 8.714E+02
c) ${\displaystyle \chi {\text{ (chi) }}=}$ 9.586E+02
d) ${\displaystyle \chi {\text{ (chi) }}=}$ 1.054E+03
e) ${\displaystyle \chi {\text{ (chi) }}=}$ 1.160E+03

929) Two loops of wire carry the same current of 39 kA, and flow in the same direction. They share a common axis and orientation. One loop has a radius of 0.49 m while the other has a radius of 1.11 m. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of both loops, situated between the loops at a distance 0.552 m from the first (smaller) loopif the disance between the loops is 1.62 m?

a) 1.564E-02 T
b) 1.720E-02 T
c) 1.892E-02 T
d) 2.081E-02 T
e) 2.289E-02 T

930) The Z-pinch is an (often unstable) cylindrical plasma in which a aximuthal magnetic field is produced by a current in the z direction. A simple model for the magnetic field, valid for ${\displaystyle r is,
${\displaystyle B_{\theta }(r)=\left({\frac {2r}{a}}-{\frac {r^{2}}{a^{2}}}\right)B_{max}}$,
where ${\displaystyle B_{max}}$ is the maximum magnetic field (at ${\displaystyle r=a}$). If ${\displaystyle a=}$ 0.432 m and ${\displaystyle B_{max}=\,}$ 0.402 T, then how much current (in the z-direction) flows through a circle of radius ${\displaystyle r=}$ 0.275 m that is centered on the axis with its plane perpendicular to the axis?

a) 3.277E+05 A
b) 3.604E+05 A
c) 3.965E+05 A
d) 4.361E+05 A
e) 4.797E+05 A

931) Calculate the motional emf induced along a 24.7 km conductor moving at an orbital speed of 7.77 km/s perpendicular to Earth's 5.410E-05 Tesla magnetic field.

a) 7.801E+03 V
b) 8.581E+03 V
c) 9.439E+03 V
d) 1.038E+04 V
e) 1.142E+04 V
932)
A cylinder of height 1.69 cm and radius 4.56 cm is cut into a wedge as shown. Now imagine that the volume grows as θ increases while the radius R and height h remains constant. What is the volume's rate of change if point P is 2.33 cm from point O and moves at a speed of 4.9 cm/s? Assume that the wedge grows in such a way as the front face moves by rotating around the axis (that contains point O.)
--(Answer & Why this question is different.)
a) 3.054E+01 cm3/s
b) 3.359E+01 cm3/s
c) 3.695E+01 cm3/s
d) 4.065E+01 cm3/s
e) 4.471E+01 cm3/s

933) The current through the windings of a solenoid with n= 2.970E+03 turns per meter is changing at a rate dI/dt=15 A/s. The solenoid is 89 cm long and has a cross-sectional diameter of 3.48 cm. A small coil consisting of N=28turns wraped in a circle of diameter 1.5 cm is placed in the middle of the solenoid such that the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the central axis of the solenoid. Assume that the infinite-solenoid approximation is valid inside the small coil. What is the emf induced in the coil?

a) 2.081E-04 V
b) 2.289E-04 V
c) 2.518E-04 V
d) 2.770E-04 V
e) 3.047E-04 V

934) A long solenoid has a radius of 0.436 m and 87 turns per meter; its current decreases with time according to ${\displaystyle I_{0}e^{-\alpha t}}$, where ${\displaystyle I_{0}=}$4 A and ${\displaystyle \alpha =}$27 s−1.What is the induced electric fied at a distance 0.153 m from the axis at time t=0.02 s ?

a) 4.785E-04 V/m
b) 5.264E-04 V/m
c) 5.790E-04 V/m
d) 6.369E-04 V/m
e) 7.006E-04 V/m

935) A long solenoid has a radius of 0.757 m and 90 turns per meter; its current decreases with time according to ${\displaystyle I_{0}e^{-\alpha t}}$, where ${\displaystyle I_{0}=}$7 A and ${\displaystyle \alpha =}$30 s−1.What is the induced electric fied at a distance 2.08 m from the axis at time t=0.0442 s ?

a) 6.527E-04 V/m
b) 7.180E-04 V/m
c) 7.898E-04 V/m
d) 8.688E-04 V/m
e) 9.556E-04 V/m

936) A square coil has sides that are L= 0.465 m long and is tightly wound with N=954 turns of wire. The resistance of the coil is R=6.06 Ω. The coil is placed in a spacially uniform magnetic field that is directed perpendicular to the face of the coil and whose magnitude is increasing at a rate dB/dt=0.0367 T/s. If R represents the only impedance of the coil, what is the magnitude of the current circulting through it?

a) 1.136E+00 A
b) 1.249E+00 A
c) 1.374E+00 A
d) 1.512E+00 A
e) 1.663E+00 A

937) A time dependent magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the plane of a circular coil with a radius of 0.594 m. The magnetic field is spatially uniform but decays in time according to ${\displaystyle (2.89)e^{-\alpha t}}$, where ${\displaystyle \alpha =}$9.6 s. What is the current in the coil if the impedance of the coil is 6.65 Ω?

a) 2.088E+00 A
b) 2.297E+00 A
c) 2.527E+00 A
d) 2.779E+00 A
e) 3.057E+00 A

938) A spatially uniform magnetic points in the z-direction and oscilates with time as ${\displaystyle {\vec {B}}(t)=B_{0}\sin \omega t}$ where ${\displaystyle B_{0}=}$1.97 T and ${\displaystyle \omega =}$5.410E+03 s−1. Suppose the electric field is always zero at point ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {O}}}$, and consider a circle of radius 0.244 m that is centered at that point and oriented in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. Evaluate the maximum value of the line integral ${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {B}}\cdot d{\vec {s}}}$ around the circle.

a) 1.485E+04 V
b) 1.634E+04 V
c) 1.797E+04 V
d) 1.977E+04 V
e) 2.175E+04 V

939) A recangular coil with an area of 0.315 m2 and 20 turns is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 3.45 T. The coil is rotated about an axis that is perpendicular to this field. At time t=0 the normal to the coil is oriented parallel to the magnetic field and the coil is rotating with a constant angular frequency of 9.480E+03 s−1. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the induced emf at t = 26 s?

a) 1.342E+04 V
b) 1.476E+04 V
c) 1.624E+04 V
d) 1.786E+04 V
e) 1.965E+04 V

940) In an LC circuit, the self-inductance is 0.0156 H and the capacitance is 6.950E-06 F. At t=0 all the energy is stored in the capacitor, which has a charge of 4.830E-05 C. How long does it take for the capacitor to become completely discharged?

a) 3.886E-04 s
b) 4.275E-04 s
c) 4.702E-04 s
d) 5.172E-04 s
e) 5.689E-04 s
941)
A long solenoid has a length 0.759 meters, radius 4.51 cm, and 542 turns. It surrounds coil of radius 9.59 meters and 13turns. If the current in the solenoid is changing at a rate of 272 A/s, what is the emf induced in the surounding coil?
a) 5.791E-02 V
b) 6.370E-02 V
c) 7.007E-02 V
d) 7.708E-02 V
e) 8.478E-02 V

942) An induced emf of 3.78V is measured across a coil of 99 closely wound turns while the current throuth it increases uniformly from 0.0 to 6.36A in 0.821s. What is the self-inductance of the coil?

a) 4.033E-01 H
b) 4.436E-01 H
c) 4.880E-01 H
d) 5.367E-01 H
e) 5.904E-01 H
943)
Suppose switch S1 is suddenly closed at time t=0 in the figure shown. What is the current at t =6.45 s if ε = 7.01 V , R = 7.04 Ω, and L = 8.75 H?
a) 9.902E-01 V
b) 1.188E+00 V
c) 1.426E+00 V
d) 1.711E+00 V
e) 2.053E+00 V
944)
Suppose switch S1 in the figure shown was closed and remained closed long enough to acheive steady state. At t=0 S1 is opened as as S2 is closed. How long will it take for the energy stored in the inductor to be reduced to 2.01% of its maximum value if ε = 1.45 V , R = 4.4 Ω, and L = 2.36 H?
a) -8.659E-01 s
b) -9.525E-01 s
c) -1.048E+00 s
d) -1.153E+00 s
e) -1.268E+00 s

945) A washer has an inner diameter of 2.2 cm and an outer diamter of 4.11 cm. The thickness is ${\displaystyle h=Cr^{-n}}$ where ${\displaystyle r}$ is measured in cm, ${\displaystyle C=3.23mm}$, and ${\displaystyle n=2.74}$. What is the volume of the washer?

a) 7.110E-01 cm3
b) 7.821E-01 cm3
c) 8.603E-01 cm3
d) 9.463E-01 cm3
e) 1.041E+00 cm3

946) The output of an ac generator connected to an RLC series combination has a frequency of 5.00E+04 Hz and an amplitude of 5 V. If R =6 Ω, L= 2.50E-03H , and C=5.20E-06 F, what is the rms power transferred to the resistor?

a) 5.097E-03 Watts
b) 5.607E-03 Watts
c) 6.167E-03 Watts
d) 6.784E-03 Watts
e) 7.463E-03 Watts

947) An RLC series combination is driven with an applied voltage of of V=V0sin(ωt), where V0=0.88 V. The resistance, inductance, and capacitance are R =7 Ω, L= 8.00E-03H , and C=5.50E-04 F, respectively. What is the amplitude of the current?

a) 1.143E-01 A
b) 1.257E-01 A
c) 1.383E-01 A
d) 1.521E-01 A
e) 1.673E-01 A

948) An ac generator produces an emf of amplitude 90 V at a frequency of 130 Hz. What is the maximum amplitude of the current if the generator is connected to a 20 mF inductor?

a) 5.008E+00 A
b) 5.509E+00 A
c) 6.060E+00 A
d) 6.666E+00 A
e) 7.333E+00 A

949) The quality factor Q is a dimensionless paramater involving the relative values of the magnitudes of the at three impedances (R, XL, XC). Since Q is calculatedat resonance, XL,  XC and only twoimpedances are involved, Q=≡ω0L/R is definedso that Q is large if the resistance is low. Calculate the Q of an LRC series driven at resonance by an applied voltage of of V=V0sin(ωt), where V0=5 V. The resistance, inductance, and capacitance are R =0.21 Ω, L= 5.40E-03H , and C=3.20E-06 F, respectively.

a) Q = 1.286E+02
b) Q = 1.479E+02
c) Q = 1.701E+02
d) Q = 1.956E+02
e) Q = 2.250E+02

950) An ac generator produces an emf of amplitude 17 V at a frequency of 120 Hz. What is the maximum amplitude of the current if the generator is connected to a 6 mF capacitor?

a) 5.253E-02 A
b) 5.778E-02 A
c) 6.356E-02 A
d) 6.991E-02 A
e) 7.691E-02 A

951) The output of an ac generator connected to an RLC series combination has a frequency of 540 Hz and an amplitude of 0.18 V;. If R =3 Ω, L= 2.50E-03H , and C=8.20E-04 F, what is the impedance?

a) 7.872E+00 Ω
b) 8.659E+00 Ω
c) 9.525E+00 Ω
d) 1.048E+01 Ω
e) 1.153E+01 Ω

952) A step-down transformer steps 15 kV down to 240 V. The high-voltage input is provided by a 200 Ω power line that carries 4 A of currentWhat is the output current (at the 240 V side ?)

a) 1.708E+02 A
b) 1.878E+02 A
c) 2.066E+02 A
d) 2.273E+02 A
e) 2.500E+02 A

953) The output of an ac generator connected to an RLC series combination has a frequency of 480 Hz and an amplitude of 0.63 V;. If R =7 Ω, L= 3.80E-03H , and C=5.30E-04 F, what is the magnitude (absolute value) of the phase difference between current and emf?

954)
A parallel plate capacitor with a capicatnce C=9.20E-06 F whose plates have an area A=3.60E+03 m2 and separation d=3.50E-03 m is connected via a swith to a 28 Ω resistor and a battery of voltage V0=16 V as shown in the figure. The current starts to flow at time t=0 when the switch is closed. What is the magnitude of the electric field at time t=6.00E-04?
a) 3.751E+03 V/m
b) 4.126E+03 V/m
c) 4.539E+03 V/m
d) 4.993E+03 V/m
e) 5.492E+03 V/m
955)
A parallel plate capacitor with a capicatnce C=9.80E-06 F whose plates have an area A=5.60E+03 m2 and separation d=5.10E-03 m is connected via a swith to a 15 Ω resistor and a battery of voltage V0=54 V as shown in the figure. The current starts to flow at time t=0 when the switch is closed. What is the voltage at time t=2.50E-04?
a) 3.015E+01 V
b) 3.316E+01 V
c) 3.648E+01 V
d) 4.013E+01 V
e) 4.414E+01 V
956)
A parallel plate capacitor with a capicatnce C=6.60E-06 F whose plates have an area A=4.90E+03 m2 and separation d=6.60E-03 m is connected via a swith to a 20 Ω resistor and a battery of voltage V0=59 V as shown in the figure. The current starts to flow at time t=0 when the switch is closed. What is the magnitude of the displacement current at time t=1.70E-04?
a) 8.138E-01 A
b) 8.952E-01 A
c) 9.847E-01 A
d) 1.083E+00 A
e) 1.191E+00 A

957) A 59 kW radio transmitter on Earth sends it signal to a satellite 130 km away. At what distance in the same direction would the signal have the same maximum field strength if the transmitter's output power were increased to 76 kW?

a) 1.008E+02 km
b) 1.109E+02 km
c) 1.219E+02 km
d) 1.341E+02 km
e) 1.475E+02 km

958) What is the radiation force on an object that is 1.20E+11 m away from the sun and has cross-sectional area of 0.055 m2? The average power output of the Sun is 3.80E+26 W.

a) 5.263E-07 N
b) 5.789E-07 N
c) 6.368E-07 N
d) 7.005E-07 N
e) 7.705E-07 N

959) What is the radiation pressure on an object that is 1.20E+11 m away from the sun and has cross-sectional area of 0.082 m2? The average power output of the Sun is 3.80E+26 W.

a) 9.568E-06 N/m2
b) 1.053E-05 N/m2
c) 1.158E-05 N/m2
d) 1.274E-05 N/m2
e) 1.401E-05 N/m2

960) A large thin isolated square plate has an area of 3 m2. It is uniformly charged with 5 nC of charge. What is the magnitude of the electric field 3 mm from the center of the plate's surface?

a) 9.412E+01 N/C
b) 1.035E+02 N/C
c) 1.139E+02 N/C
d) 1.253E+02 N/C
e) 1.378E+02 N/C
961)
${\displaystyle E_{z}(x=0,z)=\int _{-a}^{b}f(x,z)dx}$
is an integral that calculates the z-component of the electric field at point P situated above the x-axis where a charged rod of length (a+b) is located. The distance between point P and the x-axis is z=1.9 m. Evaluate ${\displaystyle f(x,y)}$ at x=0.54 m if a=1.0 m, b=2.0 m. The total charge on the rod is 3 nC.
a) 1.665E+00 V/m2
b) 1.831E+00 V/m2
c) 2.014E+00 V/m2
d) 2.216E+00 V/m2
e) 2.437E+00 V/m2
962)
A ring is uniformly charged with a net charge of 9 nC. The radius of the ring is R=1.6 m, with its center at the origin and oriented normal to the z axis as shown. what is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance z=0.73 m (on axis) away from the loop's center?
a) 7.415E+09 N/C2
b) 8.156E+09 N/C2
c) 8.972E+09 N/C2
d) 9.869E+09 N/C2
e) 1.086E+10 N/C2
963)
Three small charged objects are placed as shown, where ${\displaystyle b=2a}$, and ${\displaystyle a=2\times 10^{-7}{\text{m}}}$.what angle does the force on ${\displaystyle q_{2}}$ make above the ${\displaystyle -x}$ axis if ${\displaystyle q_{1}=2e}$, ${\displaystyle q_{2}=-7e}$, and ${\displaystyle q_{3}=5e}$?
a) 4.357E+01 degrees
b) 4.793E+01 degrees
c) 5.272E+01 degrees
d) 5.799E+01 degrees
e) 6.379E+01 degrees
964)
Three small charged objects are placed as shown, where ${\displaystyle b=2a}$, and ${\displaystyle a=2\times 10^{-7}{\text{m}}}$. What is the magnitude of the net force on ${\displaystyle q_{2}}$ if ${\displaystyle q_{1}=1e}$, ${\displaystyle q_{2}=-7e}$, and ${\displaystyle q_{3}=2e}$?
a) 3.391E-14 N
b) 3.731E-14 N
c) 4.104E-14 N
d) 4.514E-14 N
e) 4.965E-14 N

965)  ${\displaystyle E(z)=\int _{0}^{R}f(r',z)dr'}$
is an integral that calculates the magnitude of the electric field at a distance ${\displaystyle z}$ fromthe center of a thin circular disk as measured along a line normal to the plane of the disk. The disk's radius is ${\displaystyle R=8.3{\text{ m}}}$ and the surface charge density is ${\displaystyle \sigma =5{\text{ nC/m}}^{3}}$. Evaluate ${\displaystyle f(r',z)}$ at ${\displaystyle r'=5.3{\text{ m}}}$.

a) 1.022E+00 V/m2
b) 1.125E+00 V/m2
c) 1.237E+00 V/m2
d) 1.361E+00 V/m2
e) 1.497E+00 V/m2
966)
Each surface of the rectangular box shown is aligned with the xyz coordinate system. Two surfaces occupy identical rectangles in the planes x=0 and x=x1=2.3 m. The other four surfaces are rectangles in y=y0=1.2 m, y=y1=5.5 m, z=z0=1.7 m, and z=z1=5.1 m. The surfaces in the yz plane each have area 15.0m2. Those in the xy plane have area 9.9m2 ,and those in the zx plane have area 7.8m2. An electric field of magnitude 6 N/C has components in the y and z directions and is directed at 58° above the xy-plane (i.e. above the y axis.) What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the electric flux through a surface aligned parallel to the xz plane?
a) 1.698E+01 N·m2/C
b) 1.868E+01 N·m2/C
c) 2.055E+01 N·m2/C
d) 2.260E+01 N·m2/C
e) 2.486E+01 N·m2/C

967) Five concentric spherical shells have radius of exactly (1m, 2m, 3m, 4m, 5m).Each is uniformly charged with 3.4 nano-Coulombs. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 2.8 m from the center of the shells?

a) 5.865E+00 N/C
b) 6.451E+00 N/C
c) 7.096E+00 N/C
d) 7.806E+00 N/C
e) 8.587E+00 N/C

968) What is the magnetude (absolute value) of the electric flux through a rectangle that occupies the z=0 plane with corners at (x,y)= (x=0, y=0), (x=6, y=0), (x=0, y=6), and (x=6, y=6), where x and y are measured in meters. The electric field is,
${\displaystyle {\vec {E}}=4y^{2.0}{\hat {i}}+3x^{2.0}{\hat {j}}+3y^{3.0}{\hat {k}}}$

a) 4.820E+03 V·m
b) 5.302E+03 V·m
c) 5.832E+03 V·m
d) 6.415E+03 V·m
e) 7.057E+03 V·m

969) A non-conducting sphere of radius R=3.3 m has a non-uniform charge density that varies with the distnce from its center as given by ρ(r)=ar1.4 (r≤R) where a=2 nC·m-1.6. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 1.5 m from the center?

a) 1.123E+02 N/C
b) 1.235E+02 N/C
c) 1.358E+02 N/C
d) 1.494E+02 N/C
e) 1.644E+02 N/C
970)
Each surface of the rectangular box shown is aligned with the xyz coordinate system. Two surfaces occupy identical rectangles in the planes x=0 and x=x1=1.6 m. The other four surfaces are rectangles in y=y0=1.5 m, y=y1=4.4 m, z=z0=1.5 m, and z=z1=5.5 m. The surfaces in the yz plane each have area 12.0m2. Those in the xy plane have area 4.6m2 ,and those in the zx plane have area 6.4m2. An electric field of magnitude 8 N/C has components in the y and z directions and is directed at 39° from the z-axis. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the electric flux through a surface aligned parallel to the xz plane?
a) 3.222E+01 N·m2/C
b) 3.544E+01 N·m2/C
c) 3.899E+01 N·m2/C
d) 4.289E+01 N·m2/C
e) 4.718E+01 N·m2/C
971)
Each surface of the rectangular box shown is aligned with the xyz coordinate system. Two surfaces occupy identical rectangles in the planes x=0 and x=x1=2.0 m. The other four surfaces are rectangles in y=y0=1.4 m, y=y1=4.7 m, z=z0=1.2 m, and z=z1=4.1 m. The surfaces in the yz plane each have area 9.6m2. Those in the xy plane have area 6.6m2 ,and those in the zx plane have area 5.8m2. An electric field has the xyz components (0, 8.4, 5.8) N/C. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the electric flux through a surface aligned parallel to the xz plane?
a) 3.328E+01 N·m2/C
b) 3.660E+01 N·m2/C
c) 4.026E+01 N·m2/C
d) 4.429E+01 N·m2/C
e) 4.872E+01 N·m2/C

972) Calculate the final speed of a free electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 30 V.

a) 2.441E+06 m/s
b) 2.685E+06 m/s
c) 2.953E+06 m/s
d) 3.249E+06 m/s
e) 3.573E+06 m/s

973) If a 18 nC charge is situated at the origin, the equipotential surface for V(x,y,z)=12 V is x2 + y2 + z2 = R2, where R=

a) 1.114E+01 m
b) 1.226E+01 m
c) 1.348E+01 m
d) 1.483E+01 m
e) 1.631E+01 m

974) When a 6.97 V battery operates a 2.6 W bulb, how many electrons pass through it each second?

a) 1.749E+18 electrons
b) 1.924E+18 electrons
c) 2.117E+18 electrons
d) 2.328E+18 electrons
e) 2.561E+18 electrons
975)
A diploe has a charge magnitude of q=6 nC and a separation distance of d=4.06 cm. The dipole is centered at the origin and points in the y-direction as shown. What is the electric potential at the point (x=3.28 cm, y=2.03 cm)? Note that following the textbook's example, the y-value of the field point at 2.03 cm matches the disance of the positive charge above the x-axis.
a) 4.590E+02 V
b) 5.049E+02 V
c) 5.554E+02 V
d) 6.109E+02 V
e) 6.720E+02 V

976) Two large parallel conducting plates are separated by 7.77 mm. Equal and opposite surface charges of 7.280E-07 C/m2 exist on the surfaces between the plates. What is the distance between equipotential planes which differ by 70 V?

a) 8.514E-01 mm
b) 9.791E-01 mm
c) 1.126E+00 mm
d) 1.295E+00 mm
e) 1.489E+00 mm

977) A 12.0 V battery can move 35,000 C of charge. How many Joules does it deliver?

a) 4.200E+05 J
b) 4.620E+05 J
c) 5.082E+05 J
d) 5.590E+05 J
e) 6.149E+05 J

978) A 7 C charge is separated from a 12 C charge by distance of 9 cm. What is the work done by increasing this separation to 15 cm?

a) 2.292E-06 J
b) 2.521E-06 J
c) 2.773E-06 J
d) 3.050E-06 J
e) 3.355E-06 J

979) Assume that a 16 nC charge is situated at the origin. Calculate the the magnitude (absolute value) of the potential difference between points P1 and P2 where the polar coordinates (r,φ) of P1 are (6 cm, 0°) and P2 is at (14 cm, 27°).

a) 9.354E+02 V
b) 1.029E+03 V
c) 1.132E+03 V
d) 1.245E+03 V
e) 1.370E+03 V
980)
An electron gun has parallel plates separated by 2.36 cm and gives electrons 54 keV of energy. What force would the field between the plates exert on a 0.45 μC charge that gets between the plates?
a) 7.033E-01 N
b) 7.736E-01 N
c) 8.510E-01 N
d) 9.361E-01 N
e) 1.030E+00 N
981)
A Van de Graff generator has a 72 cm diameter metal sphere that produces 285 kV near its surface. What is the excess charge on the sphere?
a) 1.038E+01 μC
b) 1.142E+01 μC
c) 1.256E+01 μC
d) 1.381E+01 μC
e) 1.519E+01 μC
982)
Four charges lie at the corners of a 5 cm by 5 cm square as shown (i.e., a=b=5 cm.) The charges are q1=4 μC, q2=6 μC, q3=8 μC, and q4=10 μC. How much work was required to assemble these four charges from infinity?
a) 3.819E+01 J
b) 4.201E+01 J
c) 4.621E+01 J
d) 5.083E+01 J
e) 5.591E+01 J
983)
What is the net capacitance if C1=4.7 μF, C2=4.82 μF, and C3=3.61 μF in the configuration shown?
a) 5.445E+00 μF
b) 5.990E+00 μF
c) 6.589E+00 μF
d) 7.247E+00 μF
e) 7.972E+00 μF
984)
In the figure shown C1=16.7 μF, C2=2.26 μF, and C3=4.53 μF. The voltage source provides ε=10.7 V. What is the energy stored in C2?
a) 1.292E+01 μJ
b) 1.421E+01 μJ
c) 1.563E+01 μJ
d) 1.719E+01 μJ
e) 1.891E+01 μJ
985)
In the figure shown C1=16.0 μF, C2=2.27 μF, and C3=4.4 μF. The voltage source provides ε=7.11 V. What is the charge on C1?
a) 2.515E+01 μC
b) 2.766E+01 μC
c) 3.043E+01 μC
d) 3.347E+01 μC
e) 3.682E+01 μC

986) An empty parallel-plate capacitor with metal plates has an area of 2.02 m2, separated by 1.44 mm. How much charge does it store if the voltage is 2.170E+03 V?

a) 2.450E+01 μC
b) 2.695E+01 μC
c) 2.965E+01 μC
d) 3.261E+01 μC
e) 3.587E+01 μC

987) A DC winch moter draws 26 amps at 153 volts as it lifts a 4.100E+03 N weight at a constant speed of 0.609 m/s. Assuming that all the electrical power is either converted into gravitational potential energy or ohmically heats the motor's coils, calculate the coil's resistance.

a) 2.191E+00 Ω
b) 2.410E+00 Ω
c) 2.651E+00 Ω
d) 2.916E+00 Ω
e) 3.208E+00 Ω

988) A make-believe metal has a density of 1.510E+04 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 33.6 g/mol. Taking Avogadro's number to be 6.020E+23 atoms/mol and assuming one free electron per atom, calculate the number of free electrons per cubic meter.

a) 2.236E+29 e/m3
b) 2.459E+29 e/m3
c) 2.705E+29 e/m3
d) 2.976E+29 e/m3
e) 3.274E+29 e/m3

989) Calculate the drift speed of electrons in a copper wire with a diameter of 3.3 mm carrying a 18.5 A current, given that there is one free electron per copper atom. The density of copper is 8.80 x 103kg/m3 and the atomic mass of copper is 63.54 g/mol. Avagadro's number is 6.02 x 1023atoms/mol.

a) 1.472E-04 m/s
b) 1.619E-04 m/s
c) 1.781E-04 m/s
d) 1.959E-04 m/s
e) 2.155E-04 m/s

990) The charge passing a plane intersecting a wire is ${\displaystyle Q_{M}=\left(1-e^{t/\tau }\right)}$, where ${\displaystyle Q_{M}}$=87 C and ${\displaystyle \tau =}$0.0154 s. What is the current at ${\displaystyle t=}$0.0211 s?

a) 1.435E+03 A
b) 1.579E+03 A
c) 1.737E+03 A
d) 1.910E+03 A
e) 2.102E+03 A

991) Imagine a substance could be made into a very hot filament. Suppose the resitance is 4.48 Ω at a temperature of 56°C and that the temperature coefficient of expansion is 4.550E-03 (°C)−1). What is the resistance at a temperature of 449 °C?

a) 1.028E+01 Ω
b) 1.079E+01 Ω
c) 1.133E+01 Ω
d) 1.190E+01 Ω
e) 1.249E+01 Ω

992) Calculate the electric field in a 12-gauge copper wire that is 25 m long and carries a current of 43 mA. The resistivity of copper is 1.680E-08 Ω·m and 12-gauge wire as a cross-sectional area of 3.31 mm2.

a) 2.182E-04 V/m
b) 2.401E-04 V/m
c) 2.641E-04 V/m
d) 2.905E-04 V/m
e) 3.195E-04 V/m

993) Calculate the resistance of a 12-gauge copper wire that is 30 m long and carries a current of 31 mA. The resistivity of copper is 1.680E-08 Ω·m and 12-gauge wire as a cross-sectional area of 3.31 mm2.

a) 1.384E-01 Ω
b) 1.523E-01 Ω
c) 1.675E-01 Ω
d) 1.842E-01 Ω
e) 2.027E-01 Ω

994) What is the average current involved when a truck battery sets in motion 546 C of charge in 3.7 s while starting an engine?

a) 1.220E+02 A
b) 1.342E+02 A
c) 1.476E+02 A
d) 1.623E+02 A
e) 1.786E+02 A

995) What is consumer cost to operate one 57−W incandescent bulb for 11 hours per day for 1 year (365 days) if the cost of electricity is $0.146 per kilowatt-hour? a)$2.282E+01
b) $2.510E+01 c)$2.761E+01
d) $3.038E+01 e)$3.341E+01

996) A device requires consumes 73 W of power and requires 9.14 A of current which is supplied by a single core 10-guage (2.588 mm diameter) wire. Find the magnitude of the average current density.

a) 1.187E+06 A/m2
b) 1.306E+06 A/m2
c) 1.436E+06 A/m2
d) 1.580E+06 A/m2
e) 1.738E+06 A/m2

997) The magic symbol ___ denotes the question

a) :t
b) :!
c) :?
d) :+
e) :$ 998) The magic symbol ___ is optional and can be used for a hint for students, or advice for instructors. a) :t b) :! c) :$
d) :?
e) :+

999) The magic symbol ___ denotes the correct answer

a) :?
b) :!
c) :$ d) :t e) :+ 1000) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that any student could write on any text editor if they learn the magic words introduced in this quiz. a) True b) False 1001) A good place to see a sample raw script for conceptual quizzes is a) Talk:QB/d zTemplateConceptual b) mw:Extension:Quiz c) Miraheze d) Quizbank e) Wikipedia:Main_Page 1002) The preferred attribution is CC0, with the author's ___ optional. a) username b) full name c) employer d) email address e) none of these 1003) CCO is how Creative commons labels _____ (see w:special:permalink/841826293#Seven_regularly_used_licenses for answer) a) Share alike b) Public domain c) Attribution to the author d) Non-commercial use only e) all of these 1004) The magic symbols used in for the raw script are, :t, :!, :?, :-, :+ :$, :z, and begin each line of the quiz in "raw-script" form.

a) True
b) False

1005) QB/a25GeometricOptics_thinLenses is an example of a numerical quiz that uses random numbers to generate a large number of equivalent renditions. It cannot be written by students until a convenient Python code is developed.

a) True
b) False

1006) The magic symbol ___ serves to identify the title of the conceptual quiz

a) :?
b) :$ c) :+ d) :! e) :t 1007) The magic symbol ___ permits each question to be attributed independently. a) :+ b) :? c) :! d) :t e) :$

1008) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that students cannot write without special software and/or a detailed knowledge of wikitext.[1]

a) True
b) False

#### KEY:Everything:All:V0

Everything153116638656

1) A car traveling at 38.9 mph increases its speed to 43.7 mph in 3 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

-a) 2.26 x 10-1 m/s2
-b) 4.02 x 10-1 m/s2
+c) 7.15 x 10-1 m/s2
-d) 1.27 x 100 m/s2
-e) 2.26 x 100 m/s2

2) A car traveling at 34.5 miles/hour stops in 1.7 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

-a) 9.07 x 10-1 m/s2
-b) 1.61 x 100 m/s2
-c) 2.87 x 100 m/s2
-d) 5.1 x 100 m/s2
+e) 9.07 x 100 m/s2

3) A car completes a complete circle of radius 1.7 miles at a speed of 55.1 miles per hour. How many minutes does it take?

+a) 1.16 x 101 minutes
-b) 1.55 x 101 minutes
-c) 2.07 x 101 minutes
-d) 2.76 x 101 minutes
-e) 3.68 x 101 minutes

4) Mr. Smith is backing his car at a speed of 3.57 mph when he hits a cornfield (seed corn). In the course of 2.8 seconds he stops, puts his car in forward drive, and exits the field at a speed of 6.75 mph. What was the magnitude ( absolute value) of his acceleration?

-a) 1.85 x 100 miles per hour per second
-b) 2.33 x 100 miles per hour per second
-c) 2.93 x 100 miles per hour per second
+d) 3.69 x 100 miles per hour per second
-e) 4.64 x 100 miles per hour per second

5) A car is accelerating uniformly at an acceleration of 3.2m/s/s. At x = 7.5m, the speed is 4m/s. How fast is it moving at x = 12 m?

-a) 4.65 m/s.
-b) 5.58 m/s.
+c) 6.69 m/s.
-d) 8.03 m/s.
-e) 9.64 m/s.

6) A train accelerates uniformly from 15.75 m/s to 30.375 m/s, while travelling a distance of 357 m. What is the 'average' acceleration?

-a) 0.55m/s/s.
-b) 0.66m/s/s.
-c) 0.79m/s/s.
+d) 0.94m/s/s.
-e) 1.13m/s/s.

7) What is the acceleration if a car travelling at 8.35 m/s makes a skid mark that is 8.5 m long before coming to rest? (Assume uniform acceleration.)

-a) 2.37m/s/2.
-b) 2.85m/s/2.
-c) 3.42m/s/2.
+d) 4.1m/s/2.
-e) 4.92m/s/2.

8) A particle accelerates uniformly at 12.5 m/s/s. How long does it take for the velocity to increase from 968 m/s to 1883 m/s?

-a) 42.36 s
-b) 50.83 s
-c) 61 s
+d) 73.2 s
-e) 87.84 s

9) A ball is kicked horizontally from a height of 3 m, at a speed of 10m/s. How far does it travel before landing?

-a) 6.52 m.
+b) 7.82 m.
-c) 9.39 m.
-d) 11.27 m.
-e) 13.52 m.

10) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 5.42 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.27 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.17 m/s in the +y direction. What is the value of θ (in radians)?

11) A particle is initially at the origin and moving in the x direction at a speed of 4.3 m/s. It has an constant acceleration of 1.8 m/s2 in the y direction, as well as an acceleration of 0.3 in the x direction. What angle does the velocity make with the x axis at time t = 2.5 s?

-a) 36.26 degrees.
+b) 41.7 degrees.
-c) 47.96 degrees.
-d) 55.15 degrees.
-e) 63.43 degrees.

12) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 6.54 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.91 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.42 m/s in the +y direction. At what time do they meet?

+a) 0.48 s.
-b) 0.57 s.
-c) 0.69 s.
-d) 0.83 s.
-e) 0.99 s.

13) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.6 m/s. Mrs. Smith, who is at the front of the train, fires straight towards the back with a bullet that is going forward with respect to Earth at a speed of 23.7 m/s. What was the muzzle speed of her bullet?

-a) 15.9 m/s.
+b) 23.9 m/s.
-c) 35.9 m/s.
-d) 53.8 m/s.
-e) 80.7 m/s.

14) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 48.1 m/s. The daugher fires at Mr. Smith with a pellet gun whose muzzle speed is 27.7 m/s. She was situated across the isle, perpendicular to the length of the train. What is the speed of her bullet with respect to Earth?

-a) 16.4 m/s.
-b) 24.7 m/s.
-c) 37 m/s.
+d) 55.5 m/s.
-e) 83.3 m/s.

15) The Smith family got in trouble for having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.1 m/s. Mr. Smith is charged with having fired a pellet gun at his daughter (directly across the isle) with a bullet that had a speed of 95.6 m/s with respect to Earth. How fast was the bullet going relative to the daughter (i.e. train)?

-a) 69.3 m/s.
+b) 83.2 m/s.
-c) 99.8 m/s.
-d) 119.8 m/s.
-e) 143.8 m/s.

16) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.5 m/s. Mr. Smith is at the back of the train and fires a pellet gun with a muzzle speed of 22.5 m/s at Mrs. Smith who is at the front of the train. What is the speed of the bullet with respect to Earth?

-a) 46.7 m/s.
+b) 70 m/s.
-c) 105 m/s.
-d) 157.5 m/s.
-e) 236.3 m/s.

17) A mass with weight (mg) of 37 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. The angle between the two strings (i.e. where they are attached to the mass) is 44 degrees. What is the tension in the string?

-a) 11.4 N.
-b) 13.1 N.
-c) 15.1 N.
-d) 17.4 N.
+e) 20 N.

18) A mass with weight (mg) 8.7 newtons is on a horzontal surface. It is being pulled on by a string at an angle of 30 degrees above the horizontal, with a force equal to 4.08 newtons. If this is the maximum force before the block starts to move, what is the static coefficient of friction?

-a) 0.44
+b) 0.53
-c) 0.64
-d) 0.76
-e) 0.92

19) A mass with weight (mg) equal to 37 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. Each string makes the (same) angle of 65 degrees with respect to the horizontal. What is the tension in each string?

-a) 15.4 N.
-b) 17.7 N.
+c) 20.4 N.
-d) 23.5 N.
-e) 27 N.

20) A 3.1 kg mass is sliding along a surface that has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.43 . In addition to the surface friction, there is also an air drag equal to 12 N. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the acceleration?

-a) 4.6 m/s2.
-b) 5.3 m/s2.
-c) 6.1 m/s2.
-d) 7 m/s2.
+e) 8.1 m/s2.

21) A sled of mass 5.2 kg is at rest on a perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 46N at an angle of 32 degress above the horizontal. How long will it take to reach a speed of 9.1 m/s?

-a) 1.05 s
+b) 1.21 s
-c) 1.39 s
-d) 1.6 s
-e) 1.84 s

22) A sled of mass 2.6 kg is on perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 19.2N. At what angle above the horizontal must the string pull in order to achieve an accelerations of 2.4 m/s2?

-a) 53.7 degrees
-b) 61.8 degrees
+c) 71 degrees
-d) 81.7 degrees
-e) 93.9 degrees

23) A sled of mass 5.2 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 45.3N at an angle of 59 degress above the horizontal. What is the normal force?

-a) 10.55 N.
+b) 12.13 N.
-c) 13.95 N.
-d) 16.04 N.
-e) 18.45 N.

24) A sled of mass 5.8 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 42.3N at an angle of 40 degress above the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the friction?

-a) 21.31 N.
-b) 24.5 N.
-c) 28.18 N.
+d) 32.4 N.
-e) 37.26 N.
25)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 17 degrees, and θ3 is 30 degrees. The tension T3 is 46 N. What is the tension, T1?
-a) 36.22 N.
+b) 41.66 N.
-c) 47.91 N.
-d) 55.09 N.
-e) 63.36 N.
26)
In the figure shown, θ is 32 degrees, and the mass is 2.8 kg. What is T2?
-a) 45.03 N.
+b) 51.78 N.
-c) 59.55 N.
-d) 68.48 N.
-e) 78.75 N.
27)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 18 degrees , and θ3 is 29 degrees . The mass has a weight of 50 N. What is the tension, T1?
-a) 34.19 N.
-b) 39.32 N.
-c) 45.21 N.
-d) 52 N.
+e) 59.79 N.
28)
In the figure shown, θ is 32 degrees, and the mass is 2.8 kg. What is T1?
-a) 21.2 N.
-b) 25.4 N.
-c) 30.5 N.
-d) 36.6 N.
+e) 43.9 N.
29)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 17 degrees, and θ3 is 30 degrees. The tension T3 is 46 N. What is the weight?
-a) 20.1 N.
-b) 23.1 N.
-c) 26.6 N.
-d) 30.6 N.
+e) 35.2 N.
30)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 6.5 kg, and the mass of m2 is 2.9 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 132 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume that m1 has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.37, and that for m2 the coefficient is 0.48 .
+a) 89.1 N
-b) 102.5 N
-c) 117.9 N
-d) 135.5 N
-e) 155.9 N

31) Nine barefoot baseball players, with a total mass of 625 kg plays tug of war against five basketball players wearing shoes that provide a static coefficient of friction of 0.54 . The net mass of the (shoed) basketball team is 445 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of the barefoot boys if they lose?

-a) 0.263
-b) 0.289
-c) 0.318
-d) 0.35
+e) 0.384
32)
In the figure shown (with m1 = 5.1 kg, m2 = 3.5 kg, and Fext = 135 N), what is the acceleration? Assume no friction is present.
-a) 13.7 m/s2
+b) 15.7 m/s2
-c) 18.1 m/s2
-d) 20.8 m/s2
-e) 23.9 m/s2
33)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 7 kg, and the mass of m2 is 3.6 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 153 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume no friction is present.
-a) 66.4 N
-b) 76.4 N
-c) 87.9 N
+d) 101 N
-e) 116.2 N

34) Without their shoes, members of a 9 person baseball team have a coefficient of static friction of only 0.36 . But the team wins a game of tug of war due to their superior mass of 683 kg. They are playing against a 5 person basketball team with a net mass of 406 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of static friction of the basketball team?

-a) 0.455
-b) 0.501
-c) 0.551
+d) 0.606
-e) 0.666

35) A merry-go-round has an angular frequency, ${\displaystyle \omega }$, equal to 0.182 rad/sec. How many minutes does it take to complete 12.5 revolutions?

-a) 5.44 minutes.
-b) 6.25 minutes.
+c) 7.19 minutes.
-d) 8.27 minutes.
-e) 9.51 minutes.

36) A merry-go round has a period of 0.36 minutes. What is the centripetal force on a 67.1 kg person who is standing 1.19 meters from the center?

-a) 4.4 newtons.
-b) 5.1 newtons.
-c) 5.9 newtons.
+d) 6.8 newtons.
-e) 7.8 newtons.

37) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 1.29 times more dense than Earth, and a radius that is 1.53 times greater than Earth's?

-a) 12.7 m/s2
-b) 14.6 m/s2
-c) 16.8 m/s2
+d) 19.3 m/s2
-e) 22.2 m/s2

38) A merry-go round has a period of 0.22 minutes. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction that would allow a 96.9 kg person to stand1.95 meters from the center, without grabbing something?

-a) 0.03
-b) 0.034
-c) 0.039
+d) 0.045
-e) 0.052

39) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 2.59 times more massive than Earth, and a radius that is 1.75 times greater than Earths?

+a) 8.3 m/s2
-b) 9.5 m/s2
-c) 11 m/s2
-d) 12.6 m/s2
-e) 14.5 m/s2
40)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}|-|{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
41)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}-{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
42)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/r=d\ell /v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
43)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}|-|{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
44)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell /dv=v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
45)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}-{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
46)
Is ${\displaystyle adt/v=vdt/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
47)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =vdt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
48)
Is ${\displaystyle v/d\ell =r/dv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
49)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
50)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =r/v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
51)
Is ${\displaystyle |d{\vec {v}}|=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
52)
Is ${\displaystyle rd\ell =vdv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
53)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
54) The mass of the cart is 4.0kg, and the spring constant is 5938N/m. If the initial compression of the spring is 5.00m, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
+a) 1.89E+03 m
-b) 1.99E+03 m
-c) 2.09E+03 m
-d) 2.19E+03 m
-e) 2.30E+03 m
55) What is the highest point the cart reaches if the speed was 2.4m/s, when the cart was situated at a height of 3.8m?,
-a) 3.28 m
-b) 3.45 m
-c) 3.62 m
+d) 3.80 m
-e) 3.99 m
56) If the initial velocity after leaving the spring is 7.90 m/s, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
-a) 2.62 m
-b) 2.75 m
-c) 2.89 m
-d) 3.03 m
+e) 3.18 m
57) The spring constant is 704N/m, and the initial compression is 0.13m. What is the mass if the cart reaches a height of 3.02m, before coming to rest?
+a) 0.201 kg
-b) 0.211 kg
-c) 0.222 kg
-d) 0.233 kg
-e) 0.244 kg

58) You are riding a bicycle on a flat road. Assume no friction or air drag, and that you are coasting. Your speed is 4.9m/s, when you encounter a hill of height 1.14m. What is your speed at the top of the hill?

+a) 1.291 m/s
-b) 1.368 m/s
-c) 1.450 m/s
-d) 1.537 m/s
-e) 1.630 m/s
59) The cart has a mass of 46.40kg. It is moving at a speed of 3.80m/s, when it is at a height of 3.99m. If the spring constant was 500N/m, what was the initial compression?
-a) 2.39 m
-b) 2.56 m
-c) 2.74 m
+d) 2.93 m
-e) 3.14 m

60) A car of mass 860 kg is driving on an icy road at a speed of 17 m/s, when it collides with a stationary truck. After the collision they stick and move at a speed of 5.9 m/s. What was the mass of the truck?

-a) 1124 kg
-b) 1348 kg
+c) 1618 kg
-d) 1942 kg
-e) 2330 kg

61) On object of mass 2.3 kg that is moving at a velocity of 16m/s collides with a stationary object of mass 9.6 kg. What is the final velocity if they stick? (Assume no external friction.)

-a) 1.49m/s.
-b) 1.79m/s.
-c) 2.15m/s.
-d) 2.58m/s.
+e) 3.09m/s.
62)
A 171 gm bullet strikes a ballistic pendulum of mass 2.41 kg (before the bullet struck). After impact, the pendulum rises by 65 cm. What was the speed of the bullet?
-a) 41 m/s.
-b) 44 m/s.
-c) 47 m/s.
-d) 50 m/s.
+e) 54 m/s.
63)
A massless bar of length, S = 7.7m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 33.2 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 8.2kg is suspended at a length, L =5.7m from the wall. What is the y (vertical) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
+a) 2.09E+01 N
-b) 2.53E+01 N
-c) 3.06E+01 N
-d) 3.71E+01 N
-e) 4.50E+01 N
64)
A massless bar of length, S = 8.7m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 26.5 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 7.6kg is suspended at a length, L = 4.7m from the wall. What is the tension, T, in the string?
-a) 3.59E+01 N
-b) 4.52E+01 N
-c) 5.69E+01 N
-d) 7.16E+01 N
+e) 9.02E+01 N
65)
In the figure shown, L1 = 6.1m, L2 = 4m and L3 = 7.5m. What is F2 if F1 =0.74N and F3 =0N?
-a) 6.35E-01 N
-b) 7.69E-01 N
-c) 9.31E-01 N
+d) 1.13E+00 N
-e) 1.37E+00 N
66)
In the figure shown, L1 = 5.7m, L2 = 4.5m and L3 = 8.2m. What is F1 if F2 =8.6N and F3 =6.7N?
-a) 1.36E+01 N
+b) 1.64E+01 N
-c) 1.99E+01 N
-d) 2.41E+01 N
-e) 2.92E+01 N
67)
A massless bar of length, S = 9m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 33.4 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 5.1kg is suspended at a length, L = 5.1m from the wall. What is the x (horizontal) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
-a) 2.42E+01 N
-b) 2.93E+01 N
-c) 3.55E+01 N
+d) 4.30E+01 N
-e) 5.20E+01 N

68) A car with a tire radius of 0.21 m accelerates from 0 to 26 m/s in 11.1 seconds. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?

-a) 9.21 x 100 m
+b) 1.12 x 101 m
-c) 1.35 x 101 m
-d) 1.64 x 101 m
-e) 1.98 x 101 m

69) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.37 m and mass 2.1 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.4 revolutions per second. What is the total kinetic energy if the wheel is rotating about a stationary axis?

-a) 5.16 x 100 J
-b) 6.25 x 100 J
-c) 7.58 x 100 J
-d) 9.18 x 100 J
+e) 1.11 x 101 J

70) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.33 m and mass 2.2 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.3 revolutions per second. What is the moment of inertia?

+a) 2.4 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-b) 2.9 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-c) 3.52 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-d) 4.26 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-e) 5.16 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
71)
The moment of inertia of a solid disk of mass, M, and radius, R, is ½ MR2. Two identical disks, each with mass 1.8 kg are attached. The larger disk has a diameter of 0.86 m, and the smaller disk has a diameter of 0.38 m. If a force of 31 N is applied at the rim of the smaller disk, what is the angular acceleration?
-a) 1.37 x 101 s-2
-b) 1.67 x 101 s-2
-c) 2.02 x 101 s-2
-d) 2.44 x 101 s-2
+e) 2.96 x 101 s-2

72) A cylinder with a radius of 0.29 m and a length of 2.3 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.7 m below the water. The mass of the block is 968.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the fluid on the bottom of the cylinder?

-a) 1.44E4 Pa
+b) 1.81E4 Pa
-c) 2.28E4 Pa
-d) 2.87E4 Pa
-e) 3.62E4 Pa

73) A cylinder with a radius of 0.28 m and a length of 2.6 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.1 m below the water. The mass of the block is 831.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the water at the top surface?

-a) 6.24E3 N
-b) 7.86E3 N
+c) 9.90E3 N
-d) 1.25E4 N
-e) 1.57E4 N

74) A cylinder with a radius of 0.29 m and a length of 2.8 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.6 m below the water. The mass of the block is 952.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the pressure at the top face of the cylinder?

-a) 3.07E4 Pa
-b) 3.72E4 Pa
+c) 4.51E4 Pa
-d) 5.46E4 Pa
-e) 6.62E4 Pa

75) A cylinder with a radius of 0.33 m and a length of 2.9 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.1 m below the water. The mass of the block is 912.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the buoyant force?

+a) 9.72E3 N
-b) 1.18E4 N
-c) 1.43E4 N
-d) 1.73E4 N
-e) 2.09E4 N

76) A 9.4 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.5 m^3 volume in 7.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 1.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the pressure difference (in Pascals) between the two regions of the pipe?

+a) 1.24E5
-b) 1.50E5
-c) 1.82E5
-d) 2.20E5
-e) 2.66E5

77) A 6.4 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.8 m^3 volume in 8.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 3.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the speed in the first (wider) pipe?

-a) 7.94E-1 m/s
-b) 9.62E-1 m/s
+c) 1.17E0 m/s
-d) 1.41E0 m/s
-e) 1.71E0 m/s

78) A 9.2 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.6 m^3 volume in 8.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 4.0 cm (with no loss of flow rate). If two fluid elements at the center of the pipe are separated by 34.0 mm when they are both in the wide pipe, and we neglect turbulence, what is the separation when both are in the narrow pipe?

-a) 1.23E2 mm
-b) 1.48E2 mm
+c) 1.80E2 mm
-d) 2.18E2 mm
-e) 2.64E2 mm

79) A large cylinder is filled with water so that the bottom is 7.8 m below the waterline. At the bottom is a small hole with a diameter of 5.4E-4 m. How fast is the water flowing at the hole? (Neglect viscous effects, turbulence, and also assume that the hole is so small that no significant motion occurs at the top of the cylinder.)

-a) 8.42E0 m/s
-b) 1.02E1 m/s
+c) 1.24E1 m/s
-d) 1.50E1 m/s
-e) 1.81E1 m/s

80) What is the root-mean-square of 9, -17, and -8?

+a) 1.203 x 101
-b) 1.35 x 101
-c) 1.514 x 101
-d) 1.699 x 101
-e) 1.906 x 101

81) What is the rms speed of a molecule with an atomic mass of 19 if the temperature is 78 degrees Fahrenheit?

-a) 4.27 x 102 m/s
-b) 5.17 x 102 m/s
+c) 6.26 x 102 m/s
-d) 7.59 x 102 m/s
-e) 9.19 x 102 m/s

82) If a molecule with atomic mass equal to 9 amu has a speed of 249 m/s, what is the speed at an atom in the same atmosphere of a molecule with an atomic mass of 31 ?

-a) 6.23 x 101 m/s
-b) 7.54 x 101 m/s
-c) 9.14 x 101 m/s
-d) 1.11 x 102 m/s
+e) 1.34 x 102 m/s

83) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.61 kg is filled with 0.21 kg of water. What fraction of the heat went into the aluminum?

-a) 3.3 x 10-1
+b) 3.8 x 10-1
-c) 4.5 x 10-1
-d) 5.3 x 10-1
-e) 6.3 x 10-1

84) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.68 kg is filled with 0.17 kg of water. How much heat does it take to raise both from 47.8 C to 83.2 C?

-a) 3.37 x 104 J
-b) 3.98 x 104 J
+c) 4.69 x 104 J
-d) 5.52 x 104 J
-e) 6.51 x 104 J

85) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.82 kg is filled with 0.11 kg of water. You are consulting for the flat earth society, a group of people who believe that the acceleration of gravity equals 9.8 m/s/s at all altitudes. Based on this assumption, from what height must the water and container be dropped to achieve the same change in temperature? (For comparison, Earth's radius is 6,371 kilometers)

-a) 4.68 x 100 km
-b) 5.67 x 100 km
-c) 6.87 x 100 km
-d) 8.32 x 100 km
+e) 1.01 x 101 km

86) A window is square, with a length of each side equal to 0.73 meters. The glass has a thickness of 14 mm. To decrease the heat loss, you reduce the size of the window by decreasing the length of each side by a factor of 1.45. You also increase the thickness of the glass by a factor of 2.4. If the inside and outside temperatures are unchanged, by what factor have you decreased the heat flow?. By what factor have you decreased the heat flow (assuming the same inside and outside temperatures).

+a) 5.05 x 100 unit
-b) 6.11 x 100 unit
-c) 7.41 x 100 unit
-d) 8.97 x 100 unit
-e) 1.09 x 101 unit
87)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.5 kPa, P2= 2.7 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.9m3 and V4= 3.3m3. How much work is involved between 1 and 4?
-a) 6.64 x 102 J
+b) 2.1 x 103 J
-c) 6.64 x 103 J
-d) 2.1 x 104 J
-e) 6.64 x 104 J
88)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.3 kPa, P2= 3.4 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.5m3 and V4= 4.3m3. How much work is involved between 2 and 4?
-a) 1.34 x 102 J
-b) 4.23 x 102 J
-c) 1.34 x 103 J
+d) 4.23 x 103 J
-e) 1.34 x 104 J
89)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 2.6 kPa, P2= 4.9 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.2m3 and V4= 3.5m3. What is the temperature at step 4?
-a) 5.47 x 101 K
-b) 1.73 x 102 K
+c) 5.47 x 102 K
-d) 1.73 x 103 K
-e) 5.47 x 103 K
90)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 1.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.2 kPa, P2= 2.9 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.6m3 and V4= 4.7m3. How much work is done in in one cycle?
-a) 5.64 x 102 J
+b) 1.79 x 103 J
-c) 5.64 x 103 J
-d) 1.79 x 104 J
-e) 5.64 x 104 J

91) A spring with spring constant 2.8 kN/m undergoes simple harmonic motion with a frequency of 8.5 kHz. The maximum force is 8.2 N. What is the total energy?

+a) 1.2 x 10-2 J
-b) 3.8 x 10-2 J
-c) 1.2 x 10-1 J
-d) 3.8 x 10-1 J
-e) 1.2 x 100 J

92) A spring with spring constant 7.8 kN/m is attached to a 2.5 gram mass. The maximum acelleration is 6.8 m/s2. What is the maximum displacement?

-a) 6.89 x 10-7 m
+b) 2.18 x 10-6 m
-c) 6.89 x 10-6 m
-d) 2.18 x 10-5 m
-e) 6.89 x 10-5 m

93) A spring of spring constant 4.9 kN/m causes a mass to move with a period of 8.8 ms. The maximum displacement is 2.1 mm. What is the maximum kinetic energy?

-a) 3.42 x 10-3 J
+b) 1.08 x 10-2 J
-c) 3.42 x 10-2 J
-d) 1.08 x 10-1 J
-e) 3.42 x 10-1 J

94) A 0.111 kg mass is on a spring that causes the frequency of oscillation to be 63 cycles per second. The maximum velocity is 20.3 m/s. What is the maximum force on the mass?

-a) 1.9 x 102 N
-b) 4.1 x 102 N
+c) 8.9 x 102 N
-d) 1.9 x 103 N
-e) 4.1 x 103 N

95) The temperature is -3 degrees Celsius, and you are standing 0.66 km from a cliff. What is the echo time?

-a) 2.949 x 100 seconds
-b) 3.184 x 100 seconds
-c) 3.438 x 100 seconds
-d) 3.713 x 100 seconds
+e) 4.009 x 100 seconds

96) While standing 0.94 km from a cliff, you measure the echo time to be 5.418 seconds. What is the temperature?

-a) 2.33 x 101Celsius
+b) 2.69 x 101Celsius
-c) 3.1 x 101Celsius
-d) 3.58 x 101Celsius
-e) 4.14 x 101Celsius

97) What is the speed of a transverse wave on a string if the string is 0.94 m long, clamped at both ends, and harmonic number 5 has a frequency of 715 Hz?

-a) 1.83 x 102 unit
-b) 2.22 x 102 unit
+c) 2.69 x 102 unit
-d) 3.26 x 102 unit
-e) 3.95 x 102 unit

98) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the x component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 5a, 4a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

-a) 1.76 x 10-3 unit
-b) 2.13 x 10-3 unit
-c) 2.59 x 10-3 unit
+d) 3.13 x 10-3 unit
-e) 3.79 x 10-3 unit

99) What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin if a 1.8 nC charge is placed at x = 9.6 m, and a 2 nC charge is placed at y = 8.7 m?

+a) 2.95 x 10-1N/C
-b) 3.41 x 10-1N/C
-c) 3.94 x 10-1N/C
-d) 4.55 x 10-1N/C
-e) 5.25 x 10-1N/C

100) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the y component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 1.1a, 1.2a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

-a) 1.95 x 10-1 unit
-b) 2.36 x 10-1 unit
-c) 2.86 x 10-1 unit
+d) 3.47 x 10-1 unit
-e) 4.2 x 10-1 unit

101) What angle does the electric field at the origin make with the x-axis if a 2.8 nC charge is placed at x = -8 m, and a 1.5 nC charge is placed at y = -8.7 m?

+a) 2.44 x 101degrees
-b) 2.81 x 101degrees
-c) 3.25 x 101degrees
-d) 3.75 x 101degrees
-e) 4.33 x 101degrees

102) The same parallel plate capacitor, with area 0.75 m2, plate separation 0.53mm, and an applied voltage of 3.55 kV. How much charge is stored?

-a) 29.25 μC.
-b) 33.63 μC.
-c) 38.68 μC.
+d) 44.48 μC.
-e) 51.15 μC.

103) A 1.4 Farad capacitor is charged with 2.3 Coulombs. What is the value of the electric field if the plates are 0.6 mm apart?

-a) 1.57 kV/m.
-b) 1.8 kV/m.
-c) 2.07 kV/m.
-d) 2.38 kV/m.
+e) 2.74 kV/m.

104) A parallel plate capacitor has both plates with an area of 1.45 m2. The separation between the plates is 1.53mm. Applied to the plates is a potential difference of 2.55 kV. What is the capacitance?

+a) 8.39 nF.
-b) 9.65 nF.
-c) 11.1 nF.
-d) 12.76 nF.
-e) 14.68 nF.

105) A 1.2 Farad capacitor charged with 1.6 Coulombs. What is the force between the plates if they are 0.4 mm apart?

-a) 2319 N.
+b) 2667 N.
-c) 3067 N.
-d) 3527 N.
-e) 4056 N.

106) A 1.4 Farad capacitor charged with 2.3 Coulombs. What is the energy stored in the capacitor if the plates are 0.6 mm apart?

-a) 1.08 J.
-b) 1.24 J.
-c) 1.43 J.
-d) 1.64 J.
+e) 1.89 J.

107) What voltage is required to stop a proton moving at a speed of 7.6 x 106 m/s?

+a) 3 x 105 volts
-b) 4.5 x 105 volts
-c) 6.8 x 105 volts
-d) 1 x 106 volts
-e) 1.5 x 106 volts

108) What voltage is required accelerate an electron at rest to a speed of 2.8 x 103 m/s?

-a) 4.4 x 10-6 volts
-b) 6.6 x 10-6 volts
-c) 9.9 x 10-6 volts
-d) 1.5 x 10-5 volts
+e) 2.2 x 10-5 volts

109) How fast is a 2663 eV electron moving?

+a) 3.1 x 107 m/s.
-b) 4.6 x 107 m/s.
-c) 6.9 x 107 m/s.
-d) 1 x 108 m/s.
-e) 1.5 x 108 m/s.

110) A proton is accellerated (at rest) from a plate held at 318.6 volts to a plate at zero volts. What is the final speed?

-a) 1.6 x 105 m/s.
+b) 2.5 x 105 m/s.
-c) 3.7 x 105 m/s.
-d) 5.6 x 105 m/s.
-e) 8.3 x 105 m/s.

111) A 4 volt battery moves 19 Coulombs of charge in 1.3 hours. What is the power?

+a) 1.62 x 10-2 W
-b) 1.97 x 10-2 W
-c) 2.38 x 10-2 W
-d) 2.89 x 10-2 W
-e) 3.5 x 10-2 W

112) The diameter of a copper wire is 8.7 mm, and it carries a current of 22 amps. What is the drift velocity if copper has a density of 8.8E3 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 63.54 g/mol? (1 mol = 6.02E23 atoms, and copper has one free electron per atom.)

+a) 2.77 x 10-5m/s
-b) 3.36 x 10-5m/s
-c) 4.06 x 10-5m/s
-d) 4.92 x 10-5m/s
-e) 5.97 x 10-5m/s

113) A power supply delivers 187 watts of power to a 287 ohm resistor. What was the applied voltage?

+a) 2.32 x 102 volts
-b) 2.81 x 102 volts
-c) 3.4 x 102 volts
-d) 4.12 x 102 volts
-e) 4.99 x 102 volts

114) A 104 Watt DC motor draws 0.13 amps of current. What is effective resistance?

-a) 3.46 x 103 Ω
-b) 4.19 x 103 Ω
-c) 5.08 x 103 Ω
+d) 6.15 x 103 Ω
-e) 7.46 x 103 Ω

115) Why do we say the "voltage across" or "the voltage with respect to?" Why can't we just say voltage?

-a) None these are correct
-b) It's an Electrical Cliche.
+c) Voltage is a measure of Electric Potential difference between two electrical points.
-d) The other point could be Negative or positive.

116) A resistor has 3 volts across it. Its resistance is 1.5 ohms. What is the current?

-a) 1.5A
-b) 12A
+c) 2A
-d) 3A

117) A resistor has 10 volts across it and 4 amps going through it. What is its resistance?

-a) None of these are true.
-b) ${\displaystyle 4.5\Omega .}$
-c) ${\displaystyle 3.5\Omega .}$
+d) ${\displaystyle 2.5\Omega .}$

118) The voltage across two resistors in series is 10 volts. One resistor is twice as large as the other. What is the voltage across the larger resistor? What is the voltage across the smaller one?

-a) ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=5V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=5V}$.
-b) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=3.33V}$ and${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=6.67V}$.
-c) None of these are true.
+d) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=6.67V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=3.33V}$.

119) If you plot voltage vs. current in a circuit, and you get a linear line, what is the significance of the slope?

-a) Power.
+b) Resistance.
-c) None of these are true.
-d) Discriminant.

120) A resistor has a voltage of 5 volts and a resistance of 15 ohms. What is the power consumed?

-a) 11.67 Joules
+b) 1.67 Watts
-c) 2.5 Watts
-d) None of these are ture.

121) 3 amps flow through a 1 Ohm resistor. What is the voltage?

-a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}V}$
+b) ${\displaystyle 3V}$
-c) ${\displaystyle 1V}$
-d) None these are correct.

122) A resistor is on for 5 seconds. It consumes power at a rate of 5 watts. How many joules are used?

-a) None of these are true
+b) 25 Joules
-c) 5 Joules
-d) 3 Joules

123) A 1 ohm resistor has 5 volts DC across its terminals. What is the current (I) and the power consumed?

-a) I = 5A & P = 5W.
-b) I = 5A & P = 3W.
+c) I = 5A & P = 25W.
-d) I = 5A & P = 9W
124) What is the current through R1, R2, R3, and R4 in the figure shown?
-a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=50A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=25A}$..
-b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.25A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.1A}$.
+c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.25A}$.
-d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=3.3A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=2.5A}$.

125) A resistor consumes 5 watts, and its current is 10 amps. What is its voltage?

-a) 10V.
-b) 2V.
-c) 15V.
+d) 0.5V.

126) Three 1 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

+a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {2}{3}}\Omega }$.
-c) ${\displaystyle 3\Omega }$.
-d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{2}}\Omega }$.

127) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

-a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{6}}\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{3}}\Omega }$.
+c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{11}}\Omega }$.
-d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{6}}\Omega }$.

128) A 7 ohm and a 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

+a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {21}{10}}\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{7}}\Omega }$.
-c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{11}}\Omega }$.
-d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{21}}\Omega }$.

129) A 5 ohm and a 2 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?

-a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{10}}\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{10}}\Omega }$.
+c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{7}}\Omega }$.
-d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{6}}\Omega }$.

130) A resistor has 8 volts across it and 3 Amps going through it. What is the power consumed?

-a) 3W
-b) 8W
-c) 2.2W
+d) 24W

131) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in series. What is the total resistance?

-a) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=0.5454\Omega }$.
+b) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=6\Omega }$.
-c) None of these are true.
-d) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=3\Omega }$.

132) If you put an infinite number of resistors in parallel, what would the total resistance be?

+a) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach Zero as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity.
-b) None of these are true.
-c) It is not possible to connect that Number of Resistors in parallel.
-d) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach 1 as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity

133) Two resistors are in parallel with a voltage source. How do their voltages compare?

-a) The voltage across both resistors is half the voltage of the source.
+b) The voltage across both resistors is the same as the source.
-c) None of these are true.
-d) One has full voltage, the other has none.

134) Two identical resistors are connected in series. The voltage across both of them is 250 volts. What is the voltage across each one?

+a) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=125V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=125V}$.
-b) None of these are true.
-c) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=150V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=100V}$.
-d) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=250V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=0V}$.
135) What is the current through R1 and R2 in the figure shown?
-a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=25A}$.
-b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.1667A}$.
+c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=1.667A}$.