Wright State University Lake Campus/2017-1/Phy1060/printPDF

ast20170102T232531

Online study guide

T1

2/32 from 1409004 to AstroChasingPluto
6/16 from 1388138 to AstroLunarphasesSimple
7/12 from 1388143 to AstroPtolCopTycho
6/11 from 1494854 to AstroWikipSidereNunc
10/17 from 1387156 to AstroWikipediaAstronomy
6/10 from 1387715 to AstroWikipediaAstronomy2

T2

5/9 from 1284510 to AstroApparentRetroMotion
3/32 from 1409004 to AstroChasingPluto
7/17 from 1284523 to AstroKepler
6/48 from 1284517 to AstroLunarphasesAdvancedB
4/7 from 1388427 to AstroMercury
8/15 from 1388382 to AstroWikipSolSys1
5/9 from 1298068 to AstroWikipSolSys2

T3

4/7 from 1204943 to AstroAtmosphericLoss
4/32 from 1409004 to AstroChasingPluto
4/7 from 1293955 to AstroGalileanMoons
7/12 from 1388646 to AstroJupiter
5/9 from 1327222 to AstroMars
4/7 from 1293943 to AstroMirandaTitan
2/3 from 1298071 to AstroPlanetaryScience
3/5 from 1388652 to AstroPluto and planetary mass
6/13 from 1388772 to AstroVenus
2/8 from 1396006 to b_WhyIsSkyDarkAtNight

T4

2/32 from 1409004 to AstroChasingPluto
12/21 from 1389043 to AstroSizeWhitdwrfNeutstarQSO
8/14 from 1388988 to AstroStarCluster
7/12 from 1389023 to AstroStellarMeasurements
8/17 from 1293945 to AstroWikipStar
2/8 from 1396006 to b_WhyIsSkyDarkAtNight

FE

2/9 from 1284510 to AstroApparentRetroMotion
1/7 from 1204943 to AstroAtmosphericLoss
2/32 from 1409004 to AstroChasingPluto
1/7 from 1293955 to AstroGalileanMoons
3/12 from 1388646 to AstroJupiter
2/17 from 1284523 to AstroKepler
2/48 from 1284517 to AstroLunarphasesAdvancedB
2/16 from 1388138 to AstroLunarphasesSimple
2/9 from 1327222 to AstroMars
1/7 from 1388427 to AstroMercury
1/7 from 1293943 to AstroMirandaTitan
1/3 from 1298071 to AstroPlanetaryScience
1/5 from 1388652 to AstroPluto and planetary mass
2/12 from 1388143 to AstroPtolCopTycho
3/21 from 1389043 to AstroSizeWhitdwrfNeutstarQSO
3/14 from 1388988 to AstroStarCluster
2/12 from 1389023 to AstroStellarMeasurements
2/13 from 1388772 to AstroVenus
2/11 from 1494854 to AstroWikipSidereNunc
3/15 from 1388382 to AstroWikipSolSys1
2/9 from 1298068 to AstroWikipSolSys2
3/17 from 1293945 to AstroWikipStar
3/17 from 1387156 to AstroWikipediaAstronomy
2/10 from 1387715 to AstroWikipediaAstronomy2
2/8 from 1396006 to b_WhyIsSkyDarkAtNight

Pdf

ast20170102T232531

• Pdf (instructors should make a trusted offline versionof this pdf available to the students)

S_G: Studyguide

ast20170102T232531

1) ____ motion is in the usual direction, and _______ is motion that has temporarily reversed itself.

a) elliptical; retrograde

b) direct; retrograde

c) retrograde; direct

d) direct; elliptical

e) indirect; direct

2) Under what conditions would a planet not seem to rise in the east and set in the west?

a) if the observer is below the equator

b) if the planet is in elliptical motion

c) if the planet is in retrograde motion

d) if the planet is in direct motion

e) if the observer is near the north or south poles

3) When the faster moving Earth overtakes a slower planet outside Earth's orbit

a) two of these are true

b) tidal forces can be observed on the planet

c) retrograde motion occurs

d) all of these are true

e) tidal forces can be observed on Earth

4) Which planet spends more days in a given retrograde?

a) Saturn

b) It depends on the season

c) Mars

d) Earth

e) They are all equal

5) Which planet has more days between two consecutive retrogrades?

a) Earth

b) They are all equal

c) It depends on the season

d) Mars

e) Saturn

6) A planet that is very, very far from the Sun would be in retrograde for approximately ___ months.

a) 3

b) 24

c) 1

d) 6

e) 12

7) If a planet that is very, very far from the Sun begins a retrograde, how many months must pass before it begins the next retrograde?

a) 3

b) 6

c) 24

d) 12

e) 1

8) Planet comes from the Greek word for 'wanderer'.

a) false

b) true

9) We know that Galileo saw Neptune, but is not credited with its discovery because

a) none of these are true

b) he thought it was a moon of Saturn

c) he never published his drawing

d) it was too faint to be worth drawing

e) it was in a transition between retrograde and direct motion

10) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about an individual molecule. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which has the greater escape velocity?

a) all molecules have the same escape velocity

b) all molecules move at the escape velocity

c) the heavier molecule has the greater escape velocity

d) no molecules have escape velocity

e) the lighter molecule has the greater escape velocity

11) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about a typical molecule in the gas. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which type of gas is more likely to escape?

a) all types of gas are equally likely to escape

b) atoms in a hotter gas is more likely to escape

c) atoms in a denser gas are more likely to escape

d) atoms in a colder gas are more likely to escape

e) atoms in a gas with more atomic mass are more likely to escape

12) Which type of gas is likely to have the faster particles?

a) a hot gas with high mass atoms

b) a cold gas with low mass atoms

c) a cold gas with high mass atoms

d) all gasses on a given planet have the same speed

e) a hot gas with low mass atoms

13) What is it about the isotopes of Argon-36 and Argon-38 that causes their relative abundance to be so unusual on Mars?

a) different speed

b) identical abundance

c) different half-life

d) different chemical properties

e) identical mass

14) In the formula, ${\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }v_{\mathrm {escape} }^{2}=G_{\mathrm {Newton} }{\frac {M_{\mathrm {planet} }m_{\mathrm {atom} }}{r_{\mathrm {planet} }}}$, which of the following is FALSE?

a) v_escape is independent of m_atom

b) the particle is assumed to have been launched vertically

c) the formula can be used to estimate how fast an atom must move before exiting the planet

d) the formula is valid only if the particle is launched from the surface of planet of radius r_planet

e) the formula is valid for all launch angles

15) What statement is FALSE about ${\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T$?

a) Temperature is measured in Kelvins

b) The average speed of a low mass particle is higher than the average speed of a high mass particle

c) The kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature.

d) This equation does not involve the size or mass of the planet.

e) Temperature is measured in Centigrades

16) ${\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T$, where T is temperature on the Kelvin scale. This formula describes:

a) The speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.

b) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the planet.

c) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the atom.

d) The the speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass planet.

e) The speed an atom needs to orbit the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.

17) The trip by New Horizons from Earth to Pluto took almost a

a) century

b) year

c) week

d) month

e) decade

18) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed in order to learn something about Pluto's

a) atmosphere

b) size

c) mass

19) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed

a) from the 200 inch Hale Telescope in 1968

b) from the Hubble Space Telescope in 1998

c) from the Keck Observatory in 1994

d) from a cargo plane in 1988

20) A stellar occultation occurs when a planet passes in front of a star

a) false

b) true

21) A stellar occultation occurs when the north or south pole of a planet is aligned with a star

a) false

b) true

22) Stellar occultation tells something about a planet because

a) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are emission lines

b) blocking the nearby stars allows a better view of the planet

c) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are absorption lines

d) the orientation of the planet's rotation about its axis can be precisely determined

23) Silicon carbide was used to construct the telescope LORRI because this material is

a) all of these

b) strong

c) not prone to warp at low temperature

d) light

24) The darker portions of Pluto are believe to be from "snowflakes" of

a) silicates

b) water

c) nitrogen

d) hydrocarbons

25) "Pepssi", "Rex", "Swap", "Lorri", "Alice" and "Ralf" are

a) Kuiper objects discovered by New Horizon

b) asteroids discovered by New Horizon

c) instruments on the New Horizon

d) the people responsible for calculating the orbit of New Horizon

e) named after friends of the cartoon charactor 'Pluto'

26) What was the concern about taking a telescope/camera to the cold environment near Pluto?

a) the the mirror might crack

b) the electronics might fail

c) the telescope might bend

d) the plates might crack

27) As New Horizon's approaches Jupiter, it was essential that

a) avoid going into the rings of Jupiter

b) avoid hitting the moons of Jupiter

c) it approach Jupiter closely enough for Jupiter's gravity to pull New Horizons to a 20% higher speed

28) The time to reach __________ was shortened from 9 days to 3 hours due to the speed of the rocket that delivered New Horizons

a) Jupiter

b) Mars

c) the Moon

d) the asteroid belt

29) While close to Jupiter, New Horizons the most spectacular image was of

a) Jupiter's rings

b) the great red spot

c) a live volcano

d) a newly discovered moon

30) The Kuiper belt has been described as a ___________ made of ___________

a) mystery band ... rock and metal

b) deep freeze ... rock and metal

c) mystery band ... rock and ice

d) deep freeze ... rock and ice

31) For most of its nine-year journey, it was asleep, but once a week, the New Horizon's spacecraft

a) adjusted the ORBIT

b) called MOM

c) photographed EARTH

d) photographed PLUTO

32) Clyde Tombaugh, who discovered Pluto back in the 1930s

a) privately funded the Lowell observatory

b) was self educated

c) had resigned from a position at Yale to focus his efforts on discovering "Planet X"

33) Clyde Tombaugh's reward for discovering Pluto was

a) a Nobel prize

b) an invitation to teach at Yale

c) a college education

34) The blink comparator compared

a) the atmosphere around an object with the object itself

b) the size of two different objects

c) the location of an object on two different days

35) A typical average radio station uses 50,000 watts to transmit a signal. The transmitter on New Horizons used

a) 5 thousand times less power

b) 5 times less power

c) almost the same amount of power

d) 5 times more power

e) 5 thousand times more power

36) Mike Brown's search for another Pluto-like object eventually led to the discovery of Eris in 2005. What was the first clue that Eris was larger than Pluto?

a) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that slowly

b) it had a surprisingly large influence on Pluto's orbit

c) It was brighter in the sky than Pluto

d) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that quickly

37) Pluto ceased to be called a planet in 2006, after the IAU defined a planet of our Sun as an object that is (1) in orbit around the Sun, (2) roughly spherical due to it's mass, and (3):

a) is larger than Earth's moon

b) has a nearly circular orbit

c) is more massive than Mercury

d) has cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.

e) lies in the same plane as the other nine planets

38) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually pushes Pluto away

a) true

b) false

39) When the discovery of the "ninth planet" was made in 1930, the name Pluto was chosen after a cartoon that was a common childhood experience shared by most astronomers of the day

a) true

b) false

40) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually brings Pluto closer

a) true

b) false

41) Which was NOT listed as one of the three things commonly considered necessary for the formation of life?

a) sunlight

b) water

c) organic matter

d) energy

42) As New Horizon approached Jupiter, it looked for new Moons, and the ground crew was glad that

a) the New Horizon discovered three new moons

b) there were no new moons because moons are debris generators

c) there were no new moons because moons are capable of capturing spacecraft

43)

The image to the right corresponds to

a)

b)

44)

The image to the right corresponds to

a)

b)

45)

These two images of Pluto represent:

a) New Horizon near Earth and mid-way to Pluto

b) New Horizon and the Hubble Space Telescope

c) a land-based telescope and the Hubble Space Telescope

d) New Horizon mid-way to Pluto and near Pluto

e) raw and processed images

46) The atmosphere of Pluto

a) is mostly oxygen

b) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Neptune

c) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Jupiter

d) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from the Moons

e) emerges when the surface thaws as it approaches the Sun

47) Energy for the New Horizon is provided by

a) solar power

b) fuel cells

c) nuclear power

d) lithium batteries

48) As it approached Pluto, New Horizon was slightly larger than

a) a 10 story building

b) the Hubble Space Telescope

c) a grand piano

49) How does the density of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from Jupiter?

a) all the moons have nearly the same density

b) the less dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

c) the more dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

d) the most dense moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

e) the density of the moons is unknown

50) How does the mass of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from the central body?

a) the mass of the moons is unknown

b) the less massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

c) the most massive moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

d) the more massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

e) all the moons have nearly the same mass

51) Does Jupiter's moon Io have craters?

a) yes, from impacts

b) no, the surface is too old

c) yes, about half from impacts and the others from volcanoes

d) yes, from volcanoes

e) no, the surface is too new

52) The mechanism that heats the cores of the Galilean moons is

a) radiation from the Sun

b) tides from Jupiter

c) radioactive decay of heavy elements

d) tides from the other moons and Jupiter

e) radiation from the Sun and from Jupiter

53) Immediately after publication of Newton's laws of physics (Principia), it was possible to "calculate" the mass of Jupiter. What important caveat applied to this calculation?

a) The different moons yielded vastly different values for the mass of Jupiter.

b) They needed to wait over a decade for Jupiter to make approximately one revolution around the Sun.

c) tides from the other moons and Jupiter.

d) Only the mass of Jupiter relative to that of the Sun could be determined.

e) The different moons yielded slightly different values for the mass of Jupiter.

54) Ganymede, Europa, and Io have ratios in __________ that are 1:2:4.

a) orbital period

b) Argon isotope abundance

c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

d) density

e) rotational period

55) Which of Jupiter's moons has an anhydrous core?

a) Ganymede

b) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

c) Europa

d) Ganymede

e) Io

56)

The black spot in this image of Jupiter is

a) a magnetic storm

b) a solar eclipse

c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

d) an electric storm

e) the shadow of a moon

57) Although there is some doubt as to who discovered Jupiter's great red spot, it is generally credited to

a) Messier in 1771

b) Cassini in 1665

c) Galileo in 1605

d) Tycho in

e) Newton in 1668

58) The bands in the atmosphere of Jupiter are associated with a patter of alternating wind velocities that are

a) both of these

b) updrafts and downdrafts

c) easterly and westerly

59) As one descends down to Jupiter's core, the temperature

a) decreases

b) increases

c) stays about the same

60) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Jupiter has a system of rings

b) Jupiter has four large moons and many smaller ones

c) Jupiter is the largest known planet

d) Jupiter emits more energy than it receives from the Sun

e) The Great Red Spot is a storm that has raged for over 300 years

61) What is the mechanism that heats the interior of Jupiter?

a) magnetism

b) radioactivity

c) rain

d) electricity

e) tides

62) Why is Jupiter an oblate spheroid?

a) tides from the Sun

b) tides from other gas planets

c) tides from the Jupiter's moons

d) revolution around Sun

e) rotation about axis

63) What statement best describes the Wikipedia's explanation of the helium (He) content of Jupiter's upper atmosphere (relative to the hydrogen (H) content)?

a) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He fell to the core.

b) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen escaped into space.

c) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He escaped into space.

d) Jupiter and the Sun have nearly the same ratio of He to H.

e) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen fell to the core.

64) Where is the Sun-Jupiter barycenter?

a) At the center of Jupiter

b) At the center of the Sun

c) The question remains unresolved

d) Just above the Sun's surface

e) Just above Jupiter's surface

65) The barycenter of two otherwise isolated celestial bodies is?

a) the focal point of two elliptical orbital paths

b) both of these are true

c) a place where two bodies exert equal and opposite gravitational forces

66) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the total mass

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

67) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the ratio of the two masses

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

68) Kepler began his career as a teacher of

a) philosophy

b) history

c) mathematics

d) astronomy

e) theology

69) As a child, Kepler's interest in astronomy grew as a result of

a) two of these

b) a lunar eclipse

c) a solar eclipse

d) watching his uncle make a telescope

e) a comet

70) When Kepler's studies at the university were over, what he really wanted to do was

a) become a minister

b) work with Tycho

c) work with Newton

d) visit Athens

e) visit Rome

71) Which of the following is NOT associated with Kepler's Laws

a) planets speed up as they approach the sun

b) elliptical paths for the planets

c) circular motions with epicycles

d) Earth orbits the sun

e) planets farther from the Sun have longer orbital periods.

72) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated at one focal point of the ellipse

a) false

b) true

73) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated midway between the two focal points of the ellipse

a) false

b) true

74) Newton was able to use the motion of the Moon to calculate the universal constant of gravity, G

a) true

b) false

75) The force of (gravitational) attraction between you and a friend is small because neither of you possess significant mass

a) false

b) true

76) Cavendish finally measured G by carefully weighing the force between

a) two lead balls

b) Jupiter and moons

c) Sun and Moon

d) Earth and Sun

e) Earth and Moon

77) Kepler is also known for his improvements to

a) the telescope

b) translations of the Bible

c) the abacus

d) a perpetual motion machine

e) Ptolemy's star charts

78) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

a) false

b) true

79) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of mathematics

a) true

b) false

80) In Kepler's era, astronomy closely linked to astrology

a) true

b) false

81) In Kepler's era, physics (how and why things moved) was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

a) true

b) false

82) Kepler incorporated religious arguments and reasoning into his work

a) true

b) false

83) Kepler avoided religious arguments and reasoning in his work

a) false

b) true

84) How would one describe the status of Kepler's family when he was a child?

a) neither wealthy nor of noble birth

b) wealthy but not of noble birth

c) wealth and of noble birth

d) his father and grandfather were scientists

e) of noble birth, but in poverty

85) At 3am a new moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon

b) high in eastern sky

c) nadir

d) overhead

e) eastern horizon

86) At noon a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) eastern horizon

b) nadir

c) high in western sky

d) high in eastern sky

e) overhead

87) At 9am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) eastern horizon

b) high in eastern sky

c) high in western sky

d) western horizon

e) nadir

88) At 9am a 1st quarter moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon

b) nadir

c) high in western sky

d) below the western horizon

e) western horizon

89) At 3pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) high in western sky

b) nadir

c) eastern horizon

d) western horizon

e) overhead

90) At 3am a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) high in western sky

b) below the eastern horizon

c) below the western horizon

d) overhead

e) nadir

91) At noon a waning crescent moon would be}

a) eastern horizon

b) nadir

c) high in eastern sky

d) high in western sky

e) overhead

92) At 9pm a new moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon

b) western horizon

c) high in western sky

d) below the western horizon

e) nadir

93) At 3pm a waning crescent moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon

b) high in western sky

c) western horizon

d) high in eastern sky

e) nadir

94) At 3am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) high in western sky

b) below the eastern horizon

c) western horizon

d) nadir

e) overhead

95) At 6pm a 1st quarter moon would be

a) below the horizon

b) overhead

c) western horizon

d) eastern horizon

96) At 6pm a full moon would be

a) below the horizon

b) overhead

c) western horizon

d) eastern horizon

97) At 6pm a new moon would be

a) eastern horizon

b) western horizon

c) below the horizon

d) overhead

98) At midnight a third quarter moon would be

a) western horizon

b) below the horizon

c) eastern horizon

d) overhead

99) At 6pm a third quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon

b) overhead

c) below the horizon

d) western horizon

100) At noon a 1st quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon

b) below the horizon

c) western horizon

d) overhead

101) At 6am a full moon would be

a) overhead

b) below the horizon

c) eastern horizon

d) western horizon

102) At midnight a 1st quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon

b) below the horizon

c) overhead

d) western horizon

103) At noon a new moon would be

a) overhead

b) eastern horizon

c) western horizon

d) below the horizon

104) At noon a full moon would be

a) below the horizon

b) eastern horizon

c) overhead

d) western horizon

105)

Giovanni Schiaparelli 1877

Lowell circa 1914.

These drawings by Schiaparelli and Lowell were ultimately shown to be:

a) rilles

b) subduction zones

c) slip faults

d) optical illusions

e) rift valleys

106) Antipodal to the Tharsis bulge is

a) What Wikipedia contends IS an active volcano

b) What Wikipedia contends IS an impact basin

c) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an active volcano

d) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an impact basin

e) the northern lowlands

107)

Martian lobate feature

The lobate feature shown in the figure is evidence of


}

a) water flow

b) lava flow

c) plate tectonics

d) wind erosion

e) dust storms

108) The Martian dichotomy separates

a) the Tharsus buldge from Hellas basin

b) Valles Marineris from Olympus Mons

c) the highlands from the lowlands

d) the crust from the mantle

e) the rift valley from the volcanoes

109) According to Wikipedia, ______ was formed due to swelling of the Tharsis bulge which caused the crust to collapse

a) Hellas basin

b) the northern lowlands

c) the southern lowlands

d) Elysium

e) Valles Marineris

110)

gray hematite

What is this hematite?

a) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes

b) evidence that Mars once had oceans

c) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life

d) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes

e) controversial evidence that Mars once had life

111) The polar ice caps on Mars are ___

a) a nearly equal mix of water and carbon dioxide

b) actually clouds above the surface of Mars

c) mostly carbon dioxide

d) mostly water

e) caused by geysers

112) Liquid water cannot exist on Mars due to ___

a) low temperature

b) high pressure

c) high temperature

d) low pressure

e) the solar wind

113)

magnified Martian meteorite

What is at the center of this magnified image of a Martian meteorite? fragment?

a) evidence that Mars once had oceans

b) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life

c) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes

d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes

e) controversial evidence that Mars once had life

114)

horizontal crack

The horizontal crack along the center of figure is a

a) meander

b) antipodal

c) rille

d) scarp

e) propodal

115) Antipodal to Caloris Basin is

a) a water deposits

b) a scarp

c) a silicon deposits

d) an iron/nickel deposit

e) weird terrain

116) A volatile is a substance that

a) melts or evaporates at low temperature

b) reacts violently with water

c) melts or evaporates at high temperature

d) reacts violently with oxygen

e) reacts violently with acids

117) The four smaller inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of ___ and ___.

a) metal and rock

b) ice and gas

c) ice and rock

d) carbon and oxygen

e) ice and water

118) If the universe is mostly hydrogen, why aren't terrestrial planets made of mostly hydrogen?

a) tidal forces from Jupiter prevented accretion

b) thermonuclear fusion in the protosun turned the hydrogen into helium

c) These planets lie inside the frost line for hydrogen

d) tidal forces from the Sun prevented accretion

e) tidal forces between the terrestrial planets prevented accretion

119) Mercury's atmosphere consists mostly of

a) helium

b) carbon dioxide

c) oxygen

d) hydrogen

e) nitrogen

120) In what sequence did Mercury's weird terrain and Caloris basin form?

a) The were formed at exactly the same time

b) The weird terrain was formed a few millions years after the Caloris basin

c) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years after the Caloris basin

d) The weird terrain was formed almost immediately after the Caloris basin

e) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years before the Caloris basin

121) The 1982 Voyager flyby of Miranda (a moon of Uranus) established that _____

a) inspired a theory a previous incarnation was destroyed by a collision

b) Miranda probably has an iron core

c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

d) Miranda has geysers.

e) Miranda has the largest active volcano in the solar system

122) It has been suggested that Miranda's "racetrack"

a) is an impact crater

b) is a series of rifts created by an upwelling of warm ice

c) is associated with tidal heating

d) is antipodal to an impact crater

e) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

123) According to Wikipedia, the largest lakes on Titan are probably fed by

a) rivers from the highlands

b) liquid water rain

c) geysers

d) underground aquifers

e) methane rain

124)

The bright spot on Saturn's moon Titan is

a) a volcano

b) solar wind particles striking the atmosphere

c) aurora borealis (northern lights)

d) lightening

e) a lake

125) One "year" on Saturn's largest moon Titan lasts

a) 3 hours

b) 30 hours

c) 30 years

d) 300 days

e) 3 years

126)

The photographs compare

a) northern and southern hemispheres

b) Titan and Earth

c) winter windstorms and summer doldrums

d) wet and dry seasons

e) summer windstorms and winter doldrums

127) The liquid water ocean of Saturn's largest moon Titan,

a) is less than one meter in depth

b) explains how the elevation of a smooth planet seems to rise and fall

c) is postulated to cover 15-30% of its surface

d) is known to contain life

e) Two other answers are correct

128)

incomplete rim

The incomplete rims seen in the figure are caused by:

a) vulcanism

b) meteorite erosion

c) rilles

d) low surface gravity

e) micrometeorite erosion

129) Rilles are caused by

a) lava

b) impacts

c) water

d) meteors

e) meteorites

130) In the Wikipedia excerpt on "Planetary Astronomy" the mechanism by which a meander grows over time was discussed. Which of the the following is best describes why meanders grow? (Pick only one best answer)

a) combination of erosion and underlying bedrock strength

b) occasional periods of intense flooding

c) a combination of deposition and erosion

d) wind erosion

e) combination of deposition and underlying bedrock strength

131) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

a) the motion of a moon

b) the rotation of the planet about its axis

c) the motion of a neighboring planet

d) all of these have been used

e) the motion of an artificial satellite

132) What is unusual about calculations of the mass of Pluto made in the early part of the 20th century?

a) It was the first time a moon was used to calculate the mass of a planet

b) The estimates were correct to within less than 10%

c) The estimates were high. Pluto was less massive than they calculated

d) The estimates were too low. Pluto was actually more massive than they thought.

e) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass

133) Why was the discovery of Pluto peculiar?

a) It was discovered during a survey looking for stars

b) It was seen by Galileo, who thought it was a star

c) It was discovered by a calculation based on flawed assumptions

d) It was seen by Halley, who was looking for comets

e) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass

134) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

a) the motion of a moon

b) the motion of a neighboring planet

c) the motion of an artificial satellite

d) all of these have been used

135) Which statement describes the relation between Pluto and Neptune

a) Pluto's orbit lies outside Neptune's orbit

b) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit an the two bodies will eventually collide

c) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they don't collide because of an orbital resonance between the two

d) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they avoid each other because Pluto's mass is too small

136) The Ptolemaic system was geocentric.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

137) An argument used to support the geocentric model held that heavenly bodies, while perhaps large, were able to move quickly.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

138) Tycho tended to favor religious arguments over scientific arguments when justifying his opinions about the geocentric/heliocentric controversy.

a) FALSE

b) TRUE

139) Tycho was the first to propose an earth-orbiting sun had planets in orbit around the Sun.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

140) The Ptolemaic system was heliocentric.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

141) Most ancient Roman and most medieval scholars thought the Earth was flat.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

142) Evidence for the Copernican system is that the Earth does not seem to move.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

143) The ancient Greeks believed in circular orbits, causing them to devise the epicycle and the deferent.

a) FALSE

b) TRUE

144) Copernicus was a university-trained Catholic priest dedicated to astronomy.

a) FALSE

b) TRUE

145) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the geocentric theory.

a) FALSE

b) TRUE

146) Copernicus shared his heliocentric theory with colleagues decades before he died.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

147) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the heliocentric theory.

a) FALSE

b) TRUE

148) At the center of the Crab nebula is

a)d) a neutron star

b)b) a pulsar

c)e) the remnants of a supernova

d)c) none of these is correct

e)a) all of these is correct

149) One way to determine the distance to a nebula or small cluster of clouds is to compare the angular expansion to the spectroscopic Doppler shift. Two clusters (A and B) have the same spectroscopically measured velocity. Cluster A is moving towards the observer and exhibits the greater angular expansion. Which cluster is closer?

a) cluster A, because it exhibits greater angular expansion

b) cluster B, because it exhibits a red Doppler shift

c) cluster A, because it exhibits a blue Doppler shift

d) either cluster might be more distant

e) cluster B, because it exhibits less angular expansion

150) What causes the "finger-like" filamentary structure in the Crab nebula?

a) a heavy (high density) fluid underneath a light (low density) fluid, like a lava lamp

b) a light(low density) fluid underneath a heavy(high density) fluid, like a lava lamp

c) electrons striking hydrogen molecules, like a lava lamp

d) electrons striking oxygen molecules, like a lava lamp

e) cyclotron motion, causing the electrons to strike oxygen molecules

151) $KE={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$ is the kinetic energy of a solid rotating ball, where M is mass, R is radius, and P is period. And, $power={\frac {energy}{time}}$.
You are banging espressos in a little coffeehouse with your astronomy friends, talking about a new SN remnant that closely resembles the Crab. You have observed the pulsar, and wonder what the total power output of the nebula might be. You know both the period of the pulsar, as well as $\tau$, which represents the amount of time you think the pulsar will continue pulsing if it continues slowing down at its present rate. What formula do you write on your napkin?

a) $power={\frac {5}{4\tau \pi ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

b) $power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

c) $power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}\tau ^{4}$

d) $power={\frac {4\tau \pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

e) $power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau }}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

152) In one respect, the universie is arguably "young", considering how much complexity it contains. This is often illustrated by a calculation of

a) cosmic redshift

b) cosmic expansion

c) recalibration of supernovae relative magnitude

d) chimps typing Shakespeare

e) recalibration of supernovae luminosity

153) Comparing Hubble's original (1929) plot of redshift versus distance with the later one in 2007, the latter extends farther into space by a factor of

a) 10

b) 1000

c) 10,000

d) 100,000

e) 100

154) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. Hubble's original (1929) plot used

a) novae

b) red giants

c) supernovae

d) Cepheid variables

e) entire galaxies

155) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. The more recent (2007) plot used

a) novae

b) red giants

c) Cepheid variables

d) entire galaxies

e) supernovae

156) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expands out to 12 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expand?

a) 3

b) 8

c) 4

d) 6

e) 2

157) You at the center raisin of an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion, and from your location a raisin originally situated at a distance of 1 cm expands out to a distance of 4 cm. The nearest raisin with intelligent life is situated exactly halfway between your (central) location and the edge. How would this second "intelligent" raisin view an expansion of a raisin 1 cm away?

a) expansion from 1 cm to 4 cm (just like yours).

b) expansion from 1 cm to 3 cm (since 3-1=2)

c) expansion from 1 cm to 8 cm (twice yours).

d) expansion from 1 cm to 9 cm (since 5-1=4)

e) expansion from 1 cm to 2 cm (half of yours)

158) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expands out to 4 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expand?

a) 2

b) 6

c) 3

d) 8

e) 4

159) Aside from its location on the HR diagram, evidence that the white dwarf has a small radius can be found from

a) the gravitational redshift

b) the doppler shift

c) the expansion of the universe

d) the temperature

e) the mass as measured by Kepler's third law (modified by Newton)

160)

This light clock is associated with

a) doppler shift

b) gravitational shift

c) special relativity

d) general relativity

e) all of these are true

161)

Suppose the light clock involved a ball being tossed back and forth on a train going just under the speed of sound. In contrast to the situation for light reflecting back and forth on a train going just under the speed of light, there is virtually no time dilation. Why?

a) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be greater.

b) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling faster.

c) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be smaller.

d) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling more slowly.

e) Special relativity is valid only for objects travelling in a vacuum.

162)

This spectrum of the star Vega suggests that

a) it is an approximate black body

b) if is not really a black body

c) it's surface can be associated with a range of temperatures

d) all of these are true

e) it can be associated with an "effective" temperature

163) Which of the following is NOT an essential piece of a a strong argument that a white dwarf is not only the size of the earth, but typically has the same mass as the Sun.

a) all of these are true

b) the wobble of Sirius A

c) the distance to Sirius A

d) the relative magnitude of Sirius B

e) the "color" (spectral class) of Sirius B

164) The course materials presented three arguments suggesting that a white dwarf is roughly the size of the earth. Which best summarizes them?

a) temperature-luminosity...redshift...quantum-theory-of-solids

b) HR-diagram-location...X-ray-emmision...spectral-lines

c) x-ray-emmission...doppler-shift...rotation-rate

d) all of these are true

e) doppler-shift...period-of-pulsation...temperature-luminosity

165) As of 2008, the percent uncertainty in the distance to the Crab nebula is approximately,

a) 1%

b) 25%

c) 10%

d) 100%

e) 0.1%

166) What was Messier doing when he independently rediscovered the Crab in 1758?

a) Attempting to count asteroids

b) Looking for lobsters

c) Attempting one of the first star charts

d) Looking for a comet that he knew would be appearing in that part of the sky.

e) Trying to measure the orbital radius of a planet

167)

What best explains this figure?

a) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, E=hf, and therefore by c=f&;lambda it turns red.

b) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, c=fλ, and therefore by E=hf it turns red.

c) The photon loses energy, not speed. By E=hf, it loses frequency, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength and turns red.

d) The photon slows down as it goes uphill, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength therefore by E=hf, it turns red.

e) The photon loses energy, not speed. By c=fλ , it loses frequency, and by E=hf it increases wavelength and turns red.

168) What causes the blue glow of the Crab nebula?

a) the Gravitational blue shift

b) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion traps ultra-violet and blue light

c) the same emission found in a Lava lamp (ultra-violet)

d) the Doppler blue shift

e) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion resembles a radio antenna

169) A grouping with 100 thousand stars would probably be a

a) globular cluster

b) open cluster

c) A-B association

d) dwarf galaxy

e) elliptical galaxy

170) Many stars in a typical open cluster are nearly as old as the universe

a) True

b) False

171) Many stars in a typical globular cluster are nearly as old as the universe

a) False

b) True

172) The number of globular clusters in the Milky way galaxy is about

a) 150

b) 15 million

c) 1,500

d) 15 thousand

173) The location of open clusters can be described as

a) uniformly distributed within the galactic disk

b) uniformly distributed in a sphere centered at the Milky Way's center

c) in the spiral arms

d) between the spiral arms

174) Stars can "evaporate" from a cluster. What does this mean?

a) The gravitational attraction between stars evaporates the gas from stars

b) The solar wind from neighboring stars blows the atmosphere away

c) Close encounters between 3 or more cluster members gives one star enough speed to leave the cluster

175) A grouping with a hundred stars is probably a

a) open cluster

b) globular cluster

c) elliptical galaxy

d) dwarf galaxy

e) A-B association

176) I gravity is what holds stars in a cluster together, what is the most important process that causes them to spread apart?

a) anti-gravity

b) random motion

c) supernovae

d) solar wind

e) magnetism

177) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces only due to gravitational interaction with each other

a) True

b) False

178) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces from nearby giant molecular clouds

a) True

b) False

179) Members of a globular cluster tend to be

a) old

b) of all ages

c) young

180) Members of a globular cluster tend to have

a) low mass

b) high mass

c) a wide range of masses

181) In 1917, the astronomer Harlow Shapley was able to estimate the Sun's distance from the galactic centre using

a) open clusters

b) a combination of open and globular clusters

c) goblular clusters

182) Most globular clusters that we see in the sky orbit _____ and have ______ orbits

a) the center of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits

b) the center of the Milky way ... nearly circular

c) within the disk of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits

d) within the disk of the Milky way ... nearly circular

183) Stellar parallax is

a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

c) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

d) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

e) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

184) A star that is increasing it's temperature while maintaining constant luminosity is

a)e) getting larger in size

b) on the verge of becoming a supernovae

c) getting smaller in size

d) turning red

e) in the process of dying

185) The range of wavelength for visible light is between

a) 400 and 700 nanometers

b) 0.1 and 10 nanometers

c) 1 and 10 nanometers

d) 5000 and 6000 nanometers

e) 600 and 1200 nanometers

186) Based on the HR diagrams and images in stars shown in the materials, a very large red supergiant has a diameter that is about ____ greater than a small white dwarf.

a) 3x10⁹

b) 3x10⁵

c) 3x10³

d) 3x10¹¹

e) 3x10⁷

187) Luminosity is

a) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

b) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

d) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

e) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

188) A standard candle is

a) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

b) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

d) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

e) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

189) Absolute magnitude is

a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

c) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

190) Relative magnitude is

a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

c) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

d) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

191) In 1989 the satellite Hipparcos was launched primarily for obtaining parallaxes and proper motions allowing measurements of stellar parallax for stars up to about 500 parsecs away, which is about ____ times the diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy.

a) 1.5

b) 15

c) 0.15

d) 150

e) .015

192) An object emits thermal (blackbody) radiation with a peak wavelength of 250nm. How does its temperature compare with the Sun?

a) The temperature is the same

b) 5 times colder than the Sun

c) 2 times colder than the Sun

d) 2 times hotter than the Sun

e) 5 times hotter than the Sun

193) The "normalized intensity" of a Sun-like star situated one parsec from Earth would be 4πI = 1. What is 4πI for a star with 100 times the Sun's energy output that is situated 10pc from Earth?

a) 10^-3

b) 10^-4

c) 10^-1

d) 1

e) 10^-2

194) An orbiting satellite makes a circular orbit 5 AU from the Sun. It measures a parallax angle of 0.2 of an arcsecond (each way from the average position). What is the star's distance?

a) 25 parsecs

b) 10 parsecs

c) 50 parsecs

d) 5 parsecs

e) 1 parsec

195) When imaged in visible light Venus appears like ______ rather than ______.

a) Venus ... Mars

b) a gas dwarf ... a rocky planet

c) Mars ... Venus

d) an asteroid ... a terrestrial planet

196) The clouds on Venus are made of

a) steam

b) nitrogen

c) water

d) sulfuric acid

e) carbon dioxide

197) The geology of Venus is predominantly

a) Picrite

b) Andesite

c) Basalt

198) Basalt is what type of rock?

a) Sedimentary

b) Igneous

c) Metamorphic

199) The rocks on Venus are mostly

a) from the seabed of a now non-existent ocean

b) associated with plate tectonics

c) from volcanoes

200) The rocky surface of the planet Venus can be detected when Venus is observed using infrared astronomy.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

201) When Venus is viewed in the ultraviolet, its color appears brownish.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

202) Moldavite is a mineral that may be associated with what radiation astronomy phenomenon?

a) meteorite impacts and fireballs

b) evidence that Venus was once a comet

c) lightening strikes

d) predicting when currently dormant volcanoes will erupt

203) According to Wikipedia, a "mineral" is a naturally occurring solid that

a) has useful value

b) contains carbon

c) is by a chemical formula

d) is heterogeneous

e) does not contain carbon

204) Which types of radiation astronomy directly observe the rocky-object surface of Venus?

a) radio astronomy

b) visual astronomy

c) X-ray astronomy

d) ultraviolet astronomy

e) infrared astronomy

205) One reason that Venus's atmosphere has more carbon dioxide than Earth's is that

a) Venus was too hot for oceans that could absorb the carbon dioxide

b) Venus has a lower magnetic field that disassociates carbon dioxide

c) Venus is exposed to a stronger solar wind strips away the other gasses

d) the mass of Venus is slightly higher

206) The surface temperature of Venus is about

a) 450 Fahrenheit (500 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

b) 850 Fahrenheit (730 Kelvin or 230 Celsius)

c) 150 Fahrenheit (340 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

207) The Venetian atmosphere consists of mostly carbon dioxide and

a) hydrogen

b) oxygen

c) nitrogen

d) sulfuric acid

e) helium

208) The Wikipedia article Sidereus Nuncius suggests that the inventor of the telescope was likely to be

a) none of these

b) a Chinese scientist

c) A Greek scholar

d) Galileo

e) a lensmaker

209) When the German astronomy Marius provided evidence that he (Marius) had first seen the moons of Jupiter, Galileo

a) used his political contacts to ensure that he (Galileo) would get credit

b) won the argument using his knowledge of calendars

c) didn't care; he was a true scientist

d) appealed to the Pope

e) pointed out that the telescope Marius was using could not have seen the Moons

210) Prior to the publication of Sidereus Nuncius, the Church

a) none of these are true (according to the Wikipedia permalink to Sidereus Nuncius.)

b) accepted the Copernican heliocentric system as strictly mathematical and hypothetical

c) had given Galileo a commission to look into the Copernican heliocentric system

d) was unaware of any controversy concerning the Copernican heliocentric system

e) had outlawed all discussion of the Copernican heliocentric system

211) Galileo called his telescope

a) a mistake

b) a double magnifying glass

c) the magic eye

d) the liberator

e) an optical cannon

212) The "terminator" for Galileo was

a) the equator

b) his trial for heresy

c) the most distant star he could see

d) the division between east and west

e) sunrise or sunset

213) Galileo used the terminator to

a) observe the wobble of the Moon's orbit

b) deduce the color beneath the dust layer

c) correlate color with whether the region had mountains

d) none of these

e) compensate for stellar parallax

214) Galileo used the terminator to

a) two of these

b) compensate for stellar parallax

c) publicize his ideas

d) correlate dark and light regions with terrain

e) measure the height of mountains

215) What statement is FALSE about Galileo and the Median Stars

a) motion could be observed after observing a moon for just one hour

b) they are actually moons

c) Galileo named them after a famous and wealthy family

d) they were lined up

e) they were described by Aristotle

216) The title of Galileo's book, Sidereus Nuncius, is often translated as ____, but it is probably more proper to translate it as _______

a) the Moon close up - - the Moon through a telescope

b) the motion of the earth - - the location of the earth

c) the motion of the stars - - the location of the stars

d) Starry messenger - - Starry message

e) the moons of Jupiter

217) The Wikipedia article, Sidereus Nuncius, points out that what the ancient Greek scientist thought was a cloudy star was really

a) the rings of Saturn

b) many faint stars

c) a comet

d) a supernovae remnant

e) a planetary nebula

218) Galileo's naming of the "Medicean Stars"

a) two of these are true

b) was controversial because stars were supposed to be named after Roman gods

c) broke an agreement he made with the Pope to stop writing about astronomy

d) might have earned him a promotion

e) caused his house arrest

219) Very far from the sun, the heliosphere

a) spins in the opposite direction

b) reverses direction

c) becomes weaker than the interstellar wind

d) becomes the magnetosphere

e) never ends

220) According to Wikipedia, if all the mass of the asteroid belt were combined to one object, it's mass would _______ times less than Earth's mass.

a) 10

b) 1,000

c) 100

d) 10,000

e) 1

221)

planetary disk

In this hypothetical image of a sun-like star we see a bright band of dust that we on Earth call zodiacal light. It is due to sunlight reflecting off dust in the

a) ecliptic plane

b) Oort Cloude

c) Van Allen belt

d) magnetic sun's magnetic field

e) Kuiper belt

222) In planetary science, the frost line refers to a distance away from

a) either pole of a planet

b) ecliptic plane

c) the south pole of a planet

d) the star in the middle

e) the north pole of a planet

223) Oort's cloud was hypothesized to explain the source of

a) comets

b) planets

c) asteroids

d) water outside the frost line

e) water inside the frost line

224) According to Wikipedia _______ and ______ are referred to as volatiles.

a) electrons and protons

b) asteroids and terrestrial planets

c) planets and moons

d) acids and bases

e) ices and gasses

225) Which of the following list is properly ranked, starting with objects closest to the Sun?

a) Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt

b) Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud

c) Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt

d) Kuiper belt, Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud

e) Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud, Kuiper belt

226) When the sun turns into a red giant,

a) surface temperature increases; energy output decreases

b) The sun will not turn into a red giant

c) surface temperature increases; energy output increases

d) surface temperature decreases; energy output increases

e) surface temperature decreases; energy output decreases

227) A volatile is a substance that

a) melts or evaporates at high temperature

b) reacts violently with water

c) melts or evaporates at low temperature

d) reacts violently with acids

e) reacts violently with oxygen

228) All planets lie within a nearly flat disc called the __________ plane

a) fissile

b) angular

c) ecliptic

d) retrograde

e) interstellar

229) The AU is

a) the distance from Earth to the Moon

b) the most distant Kuiper object from the Sun

c) the distance from the Sun to Earth

d) a measure of the brightness of a planet

e) the size of Oort's cloud

230) The Sun and Earth are about

a) 500 million years old

b) 5 million years old

c) 50 million years old

d) 50 billion years old

e) 5 billion years old

231) The universe is about

a) 15 billion years old

b) 15 million years old

c) 1.5 billion years old

d) 150 million years old

e) 150 billion years old

232) Roughly how much bigger is a gas planet than a terrestrial planet?

a) 30

b) 100

c) 3

d) 300

e) 10

233) Roughly how much bigger is a the Sun than a gas planet?

a) 3

b) 30

c) 10

d) 300

e) 100

234) In astrophysics, what is accretion?

a) the growth in size of a massive star as its outer atmosphere expands

b) the growth of a comet's tail as it comes close to the Sun

c) the growth of a massive object by gravitationally attracting more matter

d) the condensation of volatiles as a gas cools

e) the increase in temperature and pressure of a star as it collapses from its own gravity

235) Dwarf planets are defined as objects orbiting the Sun and smaller than planets, that?

a) are too far from the Sun to be planets

b) have been rounded by their own gravity

c) possess an atmosphere

d) lie in the asteroid belt

e) lack an atmosphere

236) Dwarf planets have no natural satellites,

a) true

b) false

237) Pluto is classified as

a) a natural satellite of Uranus

b) an asteroid belt object

c) a natural satellite of Neptune

d) a dwarf planet with no natural satellites

e) a dwarf planet and a trans-Neptunian object.

238) How many of the outer planets have rings?

a) 1

b) 4

c) 3

d) 2

239) Currently there are 7 billion people on Earth, if that ever increases to 10 billion people, for every person on Earth there will be ____ stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

a) 2000

b) 20

c) 2

d) 200

240) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is nearly circular.

a) true

b) false

241) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is opposite that of the 8 planets.

a) true

b) false

242) The frost line is situated approximately

a) 5 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun

b) 10 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun

c) 10 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

d) 5 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

243) Why is a star made of plasma?

a) the interstellar gas was mostly plasma

b) plasma is generic word for "important"

c) the intense gravity liquifies the substance, just as red blood cells liquify plasma in the body

d) plasma is always present when there are strong magnetic fields

e) it is so hot that electrons are stripped away from the protons

244) Pre–main sequence stars are often surrounded by a protoplanetary disk and powered mainly by

a) collisions between protoplanets

b) chemical reactions

c) the release of gravitational energy

d) the fusion of Helium to Carbon

e) the fission of Carbon from Helium

245) Stars that begin with more than 50 solar masses will typically lose _______ while on the main sequence.

a) 1% their mass

b) all of their magnetic field

c) 10% their mass

d) 10% of their magnetic field

e) 50% their mass

246) The Hayashi and Henyey tracks refer to how T Tauri of different masses will move

a) through an HR diagram as they die

b) Two of these are true

c) through an HR diagram as they are born

d) through a cluster as they die

e) through a cluster as they are born

247) How do low-mass stars change as they are born?

Birth of stars HR path tracks

a) Increasing luminosity with no change in temperature

b) Decreasing temperature with no change in luminosity

c) Decreasing luminosity with no change in temperature

d) Decreasing temperature and increasing luminosity

e) Increasing temperature with no change in luminosity

248) When a star with more than 10 solar masses ceases fuse hydrogen to helium, it

a) it fuses elements up to uranium, and continues to produce energy by the fission of uranium.

b) it fuses helium to carbon and other elements up to iron and then ceases to produce more energy

c) it fuses helium to carbon to iron (and other elements), then continues to release more energy by fusing the iron to heavier elements such as uranium.

d) ceases to convert nuclear energy.

e) it fuses helium to carbon and then ceases to produce more energy

249) Many supernovae begin as a shock wave in the core that was caused by

a) the conversion of carbon into diamonds,

b) iron fusing into heavier elements such as uranium

c) carbon and other elements fusing into iron

d) all of these processes contribute to the shock wave

e) electrons being driven into protons to form neutrons

250) A dying star with more than 1.4 solar masses becomes a ______, and those with more than 5 solar masses becomes a _____

a) white dwarf...red dwarf

b) neutron star....black hole

c) blue giant....red giant

d) white dwarf....neutron star

e) white dwarf....black hole

251) According to Wikipedia, a star with over 20 solar masses converts its Hyrogen to Helium in about 8 billion years, but the conversion of Oxygen to heavier elements take about _____

a) 1 million years

b) 1 year

c) 1 billion years

d) 1 thousand years

e) 10 billion years

252) What is the difference between a constellation and an asterism?

a) asterisms are smaller than constellations

b) constellations consist of never more than ten stars.

c) asterisms are larger than constellations

d) none of these is correct

e) constellations represent regions of the sky, like state boundaries on a map of the USA

253) Stellar parallax is

a) Using spectral lines to deduce the distance to nearby stars

b) Triangulation to deduce the distance to nearby stars

c) Using changes in the angular position of a star to deduce the star’s distance

d) Two of these is correct

e) None of these is correct.

254) Giant molecular clouds with sufficient conditions to form a star cluster would have formed them long ago. Any stellar births in the past couple of billions years probably resulted from _____ between clouds.

a) Two of these are correct

b) ion exchange

c) photon exchange

d) collisions

e) None of these is correct.

255) A starburst galaxy.

a) is a region of active stellar birth

b) has only dead or dying stars

c) Two of these are correct

d) usually is a result of collisions between galaxies

e) All of these are correct

256) Which of the following expresses Jean's criterion for the collapse of a giant molecular cloud of mass, M, radius, R, and temperature T, and pressure P? (Here ? is some constant)

a) R>?MT

b) P>?MT

c) T>?RM

d) M>?RT

e) P>?MR

257) Which of the following changes in the properties of a giant molecular cloud might cause it to collapse?

a) Decrease mass at fixed temperature and size

b) Increase size at fixed pressure and mass

c) Increase temperature at fixed mass and size

d) Increase mass at fixed temperature and size

e) Two of these are correct

258) What happens if you increase the size of a giant molecular cloud while keeping temperature and mass fixed?

a) It is less likely to collapse spreading it out weakens the force of gravity

b) It is more likely to collapse because larger things have more gravity

c) It is equally likely to collapse because size is not part of the Jean's criterion.

d) It is less likely to collapse because temperature can never be kept fixed

e) It is more likely to collapse because this will increase the temperature

259) What is a Bok globule in the formation of stellar systems?

a) A cluster of giant molecular clouds that coalesce to form a solar system

b) A black hole that enters a cloud and triggers the collapse

c) A small planet that formed before any stars have formed

d) A supernovae precurser that attracts more gas atoms

e) A small portion of a giant cloud that collapses

260) When did astronomy split between theoretical and observational branches?

a) In the 19th century

b) In the 20th century

c) After Galileo

d) In the 18th century

e) In the last decade

261) According to the Wikipedia Astronomy article, the first known efforts in the mathematical and scientific study of Astronomy began

a) in central America

b) among the Babylonians

c) among the Chinese

d) in ancient Greece

e) in south America

262) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as Antikythera?

a) 30 years

b) 1500 years

c) 3000 years

d) 15,000 years

e) 300 years

263) The saro cycle was about repeating cycles of

a) eclipses

b) seasons

c) planets

264)

Who drew these sketches?

a) Ptolemy

b) Copernicus

c) Aristotle

d) Galileo

e) Kepler

265) In what century was parallax first used to measure the distance to a Star (other than our Sun)?

a) 18th century

b) 19th century

c) 16th century

d) 17th century

e) 20th century

266) The largest galaxy in the local group is

a) M-31

b) Andromeda

c) M52

d) Milky way

e) ant-galexy

267) What two names are associated with the first new planet found (after those known by the ancients using the naked eye)

a) Mercury and Friendship

b) Pluto and Goofy

c) Mars and the Candy Bar

d) Uranus and George's Star

e) Neptune and the Alabama Streaker

268) The historical record shows that in 1066 AD a supernovae was discovered by astronomers in _____ and _____

a) Greece and China

b) Egypt and China

c) Greece and North America

d) Greece and Central America

e) China and South America

269) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' call astrology?

a) the belief that all people should learn astronomy

b) the study of planetary atmospheres

c) the study of comets and asteroids

d) the belief system which claims that human affairs are correlated with the positions of celestial objects.

e) the study of planetary cores

270) Cosmology is the study of

a) the formation of the solar system

b) planetary atmospheres

c) the universe as a whole

d) the oceans

e) the birth and death of stars

271) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' article say about astronomy and astrophysics

a) They must be in agreement or the result cannot be trusted

b) They are often considered to be synonymous

c) They often yield different results

d) They are often in conflict

e) They are often considered to be opposites

272) The goecentric theory put the Sun

a) in orbit around Earth

b) at the center of the universe

c) orbiting around the Moon

d) at the center of the solar system

e) none of the above or below are true

273) In the 3rd century BC, Aristarchus of Samos estimated the size of

a) the Sun

b) the Moon

c) the Moon and Sun

d) Earth and the Sun

e) Earth and the Moon

274) In the 19th century Fraunhoffer and Kirchoff studied light from the Sun and found

a) a golden ring

b) spectral lines and concluded that they were caused by the elements

c) Mercury's shadow

d) a wobble that led to the discovery of new planets

e) sunspots and the sunspot cycle

275) The ancient Greeks discovered (named) most of the constellations

a) in the eastern hemisphere

b) in the western hemisphere

c) in the southern hemisphere

d) in both all hemispheres

e) in the northern hemisphere

276) When did astronmers establish that the Milky way is only one of many billions of galaxies in the universe?

a) 14th century

b) 20th century

c) 18th century

d) 16th century

277)

What is this?

a) the magnetic field of Venus

b) a supernovae remnant

c) colliding galaxies

d) the magnetic field of Saturn

e) a dying star

278) An active galaxy is emitting a significant amount of its energy from _____

a) magnetism

b) exploding stars

c) nuclear fusion

d) gravity

e) nuclear fission

279) Wihlem Conrad Rontgen, a pioneer in X-rays is famous for his photo of

a) a supernovae

b) a double star

c) Barnard's star

d) his wife

e) The Sun

280) Earth based infrared observatories tend to be located in

a) near the equator

b) where the air is cold

c) underground

d) where the air is dry

e) near the north and south poles

281) The shortest wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is associated with

a) gamma rays

b) infrared

c) blue light

d) ultra violet

e) X-rays

282)

What are the blue things in this figure?

a) a globular cluster

b) one galaxy

c) a cluster of galaxy

d) an open cluster of stars

e) none of these is correct

283) Most of the ______ that astronomers observe from Earth is seen in the form of synchrotron radiation, which is produced when electrons oscillate around magnetic fields.

a) photons

b) meteorites

c) energy

d) radio waves

e) meteors

284) Most gamma rays are

a) from hot stars

b) the Andromeda galaxy

c) from the Sun

d) in bursts

e) from cold stars

285) Studies in the infrared are useful for objects that are

a) in other galaxies

b) cold

c) in our own galaxy

d) inside the solar system

e) associated with supernovae

286) The best place to observe neutrinos is

a) near the equator

b) near the north and south poles

c) where the air is cold

d) where the air is dry

e) underground

287)

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

a) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

288)

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

c) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

289) In optics, normal means

a) to the right of the optical axis

b) parallel to the surface

c) perpendicular to the surface

d) to the left of the optical axis

290) The law of reflection applies to

a) both flat and curved surfaces

b) curved surfaces

c) only light in a vacuum

d) flat surfaces

e) telescopes but not microscopes

291) When light passes from air to glass

a) it bends towards the normal

b) it bends away from the normal

c) the frequency increases

d) the frequency decreases

e) it does not bend

292) When light passes from glass to air

a) it bends away from the normal

b) the frequency decreases

c) it does not bend

d) the frequency increases

e) it bends towards the normal

293) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) the Doppler shift

b) total internal reflection

c) the invariance of the speed of light

d) partial internal absorption

e) total external refraction

294) The focal point is where

a) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens

b) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

c) the center of the lens

d) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens

e) rays meet whenever they are forming an image

295) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

a) They have the same focal lengh.

b)

c)

296) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) Two (of the other answers) are true

b) One focal length in front of the eye

c) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)

d) very far away

e) at infinity

297) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) false

b) true

298) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)

b)

c)

299) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once every 50 years

b) once a 5 months

c) once every 5 years

300) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines

b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines

c) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

301) An example of a standard candle is

a) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

b) all of these are standard candles

c) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

d) a supernova in a distant galaxy

302) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 1400km/s

b) 700km/s

c) 350km/s

303) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

b) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away

c) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion

304) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

a) they all have nearly the same speed

b) they have a wide variety of speeds

c) the cluster is close to us

d) they are not receding away from us

305) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light

b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.

d) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

306) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, the clouds would get hot

b) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies

c) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox

d) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis

307) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere

a) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.

b) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.

c) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.

d) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.

e) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.

308) ${\frac {360\,{\text{degrees}}}{30\,{\text{days}}}}={\frac {36}{3}}\,$, calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______

a) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars

b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars

c) degrees per hour across the sky

d) degrees per day across the sky

309) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)

a) 3

b) 1

c) 4

d) 2

e) 0

310) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.

a) false

b) true

311) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one

a) year

b) week

c) day

d) month

312) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac

a) false

b) true

313) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

a) false

b) true

314) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

a) false

b) true

315) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations

a) true

b) false

316) ${\frac {360}{24}}={\frac {36\cdot 10}{12\cdot 2}}={\frac {12\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 2}{12\cdot 2\,}}$, calculates that the Sun moves 15

a) degrees per day across the sky

b) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars

c) degrees per hour across the sky

d) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars

317) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 6.0 meters

b) 4.0 meters

c) 3.0 meters

d) 5.0 meters

e) 7.0 meters

318) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 10.0 meters

b) 9.0 meters

c) 8.0 meters

d) 11.0 meters

e) 7.0 meters

319) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 8.0 meters

b) 9.0 meters

c) 10.0 meters

d) 11.0 meters

e) 12.0 meters

320) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 7.0 meters

b) 8.0 meters

c) 6.0 meters

d) 9.0 meters

e) 5.0 meters

321) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 8.0 meters

b) 9.0 meters

c) 11.0 meters

d) 7.0 meters

e) 10.0 meters

322) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 20.0 meters

b) 23.0 meters

c) 21.0 meters

d) 19.0 meters

e) 22.0 meters

323) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 4.0 meters

b) 3.0 meters

c) 6.0 meters

d) 7.0 meters

e) 5.0 meters

324) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 11.0 meters

b) 9.0 meters

c) 12.0 meters

d) 10.0 meters

e) 8.0 meters

325) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 18.0 meters

b) 20.0 meters

c) 19.0 meters

d) 17.0 meters

e) 16.0 meters

326) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 4.0 meters

b) 5.0 meters

c) 2.0 meters

d) 1.0 meters

e) 3.0 meters

327) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 25.0 meters

b) 24.0 meters

c) 23.0 meters

d) 27.0 meters

e) 26.0 meters

328) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 17.0 meters

b) 14.0 meters

c) 13.0 meters

d) 16.0 meters

e) 15.0 meters

329) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

a) above a threshold wavelength

b) above a threshold intensity

c) above a threshold frequency

d) at a specific frequency

330) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

a) above a threshold intensity

b) at a specific frequency

c) above a threshold wavelength

d) above a thresholdfrequency

331) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?

a) by measuring the distance between the electrodes

b) by measuring the wavelength of the light

c) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.

332) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

a) true

b) false

333) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

a) 15

b) 10

c) 30

d) 40

334) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

a) 40

b) 2

c) 1

d) 10

e) 20

335) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

a) true

b) false

336) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) true

b) false

337) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

a) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)

b) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD)

c) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)

d) an unknown Babylonian

338) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

a) precession of the equinoxes

b) a wobble in the Moon's orbit

c) leap years

d) precession of the Moon's orbit

339) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

a) time of day

b) season of the year

c) day of the month

340) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

a) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.

b) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day

c) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)

d) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)

341) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

b) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

c) phase of moon and earth-moon distance

342) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

a) 8

b) 30

c) 15

d) 5

S_G (key)

1) ____ motion is in the usual direction, and _______ is motion that has temporarily reversed itself.

-a) retrograde; direct

-b) elliptical; retrograde

-c) direct; elliptical

+d) direct; retrograde

-e) indirect; direct

2) Under what conditions would a planet not seem to rise in the east and set in the west?

-a) if the planet is in elliptical motion

-b) if the observer is below the equator

-c) if the planet is in direct motion

+d) if the observer is near the north or south poles

-e) if the planet is in retrograde motion

3) When the faster moving Earth overtakes a slower planet outside Earth's orbit

-a) all of these are true

+b) retrograde motion occurs

-c) two of these are true

-d) tidal forces can be observed on Earth

-e) tidal forces can be observed on the planet

4) Which planet spends more days in a given retrograde?

-a) Mars

-b) It depends on the season

-c) They are all equal

-d) Earth

+e) Saturn

5) Which planet has more days between two consecutive retrogrades?

+a) Mars

-b) Saturn

-c) Earth

-d) It depends on the season

-e) They are all equal

6) A planet that is very, very far from the Sun would be in retrograde for approximately ___ months.

-a) 1

-b) 3

-c) 12

-d) 24

+e) 6

7) If a planet that is very, very far from the Sun begins a retrograde, how many months must pass before it begins the next retrograde?

-a) 3

-b) 1

-c) 24

-d) 6

+e) 12

8) Planet comes from the Greek word for 'wanderer'.

+a) true

-b) false

9) We know that Galileo saw Neptune, but is not credited with its discovery because

+a) it was in a transition between retrograde and direct motion

-b) he never published his drawing

-c) it was too faint to be worth drawing

-d) none of these are true

-e) he thought it was a moon of Saturn

10) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about an individual molecule. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which has the greater escape velocity?

-a) the lighter molecule has the greater escape velocity

-b) all molecules move at the escape velocity

+c) all molecules have the same escape velocity

-d) the heavier molecule has the greater escape velocity

-e) no molecules have escape velocity

11) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about a typical molecule in the gas. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which type of gas is more likely to escape?

-a) atoms in a denser gas are more likely to escape

-b) all types of gas are equally likely to escape

-c) atoms in a colder gas are more likely to escape

+d) atoms in a hotter gas is more likely to escape

-e) atoms in a gas with more atomic mass are more likely to escape

12) Which type of gas is likely to have the faster particles?

-a) a hot gas with high mass atoms

-b) a cold gas with low mass atoms

-c) all gasses on a given planet have the same speed

-d) a cold gas with high mass atoms

+e) a hot gas with low mass atoms

13) What is it about the isotopes of Argon-36 and Argon-38 that causes their relative abundance to be so unusual on Mars?

-a) different chemical properties

-b) identical abundance

-c) different half-life

-d) identical mass

+e) different speed

14) In the formula, ${\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }v_{\mathrm {escape} }^{2}=G_{\mathrm {Newton} }{\frac {M_{\mathrm {planet} }m_{\mathrm {atom} }}{r_{\mathrm {planet} }}}$, which of the following is FALSE?

-a) the formula can be used to estimate how fast an atom must move before exiting the planet

+b) the formula is valid for all launch angles

-c) the particle is assumed to have been launched vertically

-d) the formula is valid only if the particle is launched from the surface of planet of radius r_planet

-e) v_escape is independent of m_atom

15) What statement is FALSE about ${\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T$?

-a) The kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature.

+b) Temperature is measured in Centigrades

-c) This equation does not involve the size or mass of the planet.

-d) Temperature is measured in Kelvins

-e) The average speed of a low mass particle is higher than the average speed of a high mass particle

16) ${\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T$, where T is temperature on the Kelvin scale. This formula describes:

-a) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the planet.

-b) The the speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass planet.

-c) The speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.

-d) The speed an atom needs to orbit the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.

+e) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the atom.

17) The trip by New Horizons from Earth to Pluto took almost a

-a) week

-b) month

+c) decade

-d) year

-e) century

18) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed in order to learn something about Pluto's

-a) size

-b) mass

+c) atmosphere

19) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed

-a) from the 200 inch Hale Telescope in 1968

-b) from the Hubble Space Telescope in 1998

+c) from a cargo plane in 1988

-d) from the Keck Observatory in 1994

20) A stellar occultation occurs when a planet passes in front of a star

+a) true

-b) false

21) A stellar occultation occurs when the north or south pole of a planet is aligned with a star

+a) false

-b) true

22) Stellar occultation tells something about a planet because

-a) the orientation of the planet's rotation about its axis can be precisely determined

-b) blocking the nearby stars allows a better view of the planet

-c) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are emission lines

+d) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are absorption lines

23) Silicon carbide was used to construct the telescope LORRI because this material is

-a) strong

+b) all of these

-c) not prone to warp at low temperature

-d) light

24) The darker portions of Pluto are believe to be from "snowflakes" of

+a) hydrocarbons

-b) nitrogen

-c) silicates

-d) water

25) "Pepssi", "Rex", "Swap", "Lorri", "Alice" and "Ralf" are

-a) asteroids discovered by New Horizon

-b) Kuiper objects discovered by New Horizon

-c) named after friends of the cartoon charactor 'Pluto'

+d) instruments on the New Horizon

-e) the people responsible for calculating the orbit of New Horizon

26) What was the concern about taking a telescope/camera to the cold environment near Pluto?

-a) the electronics might fail

+b) the telescope might bend

-c) the plates might crack

-d) the the mirror might crack

27) As New Horizon's approaches Jupiter, it was essential that

-a) avoid hitting the moons of Jupiter

+b) it approach Jupiter closely enough for Jupiter's gravity to pull New Horizons to a 20% higher speed

-c) avoid going into the rings of Jupiter

28) The time to reach __________ was shortened from 9 days to 3 hours due to the speed of the rocket that delivered New Horizons

-a) Mars

-b) the asteroid belt

+c) the Moon

-d) Jupiter

29) While close to Jupiter, New Horizons the most spectacular image was of

-a) the great red spot

-b) Jupiter's rings

+c) a live volcano

-d) a newly discovered moon

30) The Kuiper belt has been described as a ___________ made of ___________

-a) mystery band ... rock and metal

-b) deep freeze ... rock and metal

+c) deep freeze ... rock and ice

-d) mystery band ... rock and ice

31) For most of its nine-year journey, it was asleep, but once a week, the New Horizon's spacecraft

-a) photographed EARTH

-b) photographed PLUTO

+c) called MOM

-d) adjusted the ORBIT

32) Clyde Tombaugh, who discovered Pluto back in the 1930s

-a) privately funded the Lowell observatory

+b) was self educated

-c) had resigned from a position at Yale to focus his efforts on discovering "Planet X"

33) Clyde Tombaugh's reward for discovering Pluto was

+a) a college education

-b) a Nobel prize

-c) an invitation to teach at Yale

34) The blink comparator compared

-a) the atmosphere around an object with the object itself

+b) the location of an object on two different days

-c) the size of two different objects

35) A typical average radio station uses 50,000 watts to transmit a signal. The transmitter on New Horizons used

-a) almost the same amount of power

-b) 5 times more power

+c) 5 thousand times less power

-d) 5 times less power

-e) 5 thousand times more power

36) Mike Brown's search for another Pluto-like object eventually led to the discovery of Eris in 2005. What was the first clue that Eris was larger than Pluto?

-a) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that quickly

+b) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that slowly

-c) it had a surprisingly large influence on Pluto's orbit

-d) It was brighter in the sky than Pluto

37) Pluto ceased to be called a planet in 2006, after the IAU defined a planet of our Sun as an object that is (1) in orbit around the Sun, (2) roughly spherical due to it's mass, and (3):

-a) has a nearly circular orbit

-b) lies in the same plane as the other nine planets

-c) is larger than Earth's moon

+d) has cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.

-e) is more massive than Mercury

38) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually pushes Pluto away

-a) false

+b) true

39) When the discovery of the "ninth planet" was made in 1930, the name Pluto was chosen after a cartoon that was a common childhood experience shared by most astronomers of the day

+a) false

-b) true

40) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually brings Pluto closer

+a) false

-b) true

41) Which was NOT listed as one of the three things commonly considered necessary for the formation of life?

-a) water

-b) energy

-c) organic matter

+d) sunlight

42) As New Horizon approached Jupiter, it looked for new Moons, and the ground crew was glad that

-a) the New Horizon discovered three new moons

+b) there were no new moons because moons are debris generators

-c) there were no new moons because moons are capable of capturing spacecraft

43)

The image to the right corresponds to

+a)

-b)

44)

The image to the right corresponds to

+a)

-b)

45)

These two images of Pluto represent:

-a) New Horizon near Earth and mid-way to Pluto

-b) New Horizon mid-way to Pluto and near Pluto

+c) raw and processed images

-d) New Horizon and the Hubble Space Telescope

-e) a land-based telescope and the Hubble Space Telescope

46) The atmosphere of Pluto

-a) is mostly oxygen

+b) emerges when the surface thaws as it approaches the Sun

-c) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from the Moons

-d) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Neptune

-e) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Jupiter

47) Energy for the New Horizon is provided by

+a) nuclear power

-b) solar power

-c) fuel cells

-d) lithium batteries

48) As it approached Pluto, New Horizon was slightly larger than

+a) a grand piano

-b) the Hubble Space Telescope

-c) a 10 story building

49) How does the density of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from Jupiter?

-a) the less dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

+b) the more dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

-c) the density of the moons is unknown

-d) the most dense moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

-e) all the moons have nearly the same density

50) How does the mass of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from the central body?

-a) the less massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

-b) all the moons have nearly the same mass

-c) the more massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

-d) the mass of the moons is unknown

+e) the most massive moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

51) Does Jupiter's moon Io have craters?

+a) yes, from volcanoes

-b) yes, from impacts

-c) no, the surface is too new

-d) yes, about half from impacts and the others from volcanoes

-e) no, the surface is too old

52) The mechanism that heats the cores of the Galilean moons is

-a) radioactive decay of heavy elements

-b) radiation from the Sun and from Jupiter

+c) tides from the other moons and Jupiter

-d) radiation from the Sun

-e) tides from Jupiter

53) Immediately after publication of Newton's laws of physics (Principia), it was possible to "calculate" the mass of Jupiter. What important caveat applied to this calculation?

-a) tides from the other moons and Jupiter.

-b) The different moons yielded vastly different values for the mass of Jupiter.

-c) The different moons yielded slightly different values for the mass of Jupiter.

-d) They needed to wait over a decade for Jupiter to make approximately one revolution around the Sun.

+e) Only the mass of Jupiter relative to that of the Sun could be determined.

54) Ganymede, Europa, and Io have ratios in __________ that are 1:2:4.

-a) rotational period

-b) density

-c) orbital period

-d) Argon isotope abundance

+e) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

55) Which of Jupiter's moons has an anhydrous core?

-a) Ganymede

-b) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

+c) Io

-d) Ganymede

-e) Europa

56)

The black spot in this image of Jupiter is

-a) a magnetic storm

-b) a solar eclipse

-c) the shadow of a moon

+d) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

-e) an electric storm

57) Although there is some doubt as to who discovered Jupiter's great red spot, it is generally credited to

+a) Cassini in 1665

-b) Newton in 1668

-c) Galileo in 1605

-d) Tycho in

-e) Messier in 1771

58) The bands in the atmosphere of Jupiter are associated with a patter of alternating wind velocities that are

-a) easterly and westerly

-b) updrafts and downdrafts

+c) both of these

59) As one descends down to Jupiter's core, the temperature

-a) decreases

-b) stays about the same

+c) increases

60) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

-a) Jupiter has a system of rings

-b) The Great Red Spot is a storm that has raged for over 300 years

-c) Jupiter emits more energy than it receives from the Sun

-d) Jupiter has four large moons and many smaller ones

+e) Jupiter is the largest known planet

61) What is the mechanism that heats the interior of Jupiter?

-a) magnetism

+b) rain

-c) electricity

-d) radioactivity

-e) tides

62) Why is Jupiter an oblate spheroid?

-a) tides from the Sun

-b) tides from the Jupiter's moons

-c) revolution around Sun

-d) tides from other gas planets

+e) rotation about axis

63) What statement best describes the Wikipedia's explanation of the helium (He) content of Jupiter's upper atmosphere (relative to the hydrogen (H) content)?

-a) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen escaped into space.

-b) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He escaped into space.

-c) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen fell to the core.

+d) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He fell to the core.

-e) Jupiter and the Sun have nearly the same ratio of He to H.

64) Where is the Sun-Jupiter barycenter?

-a) At the center of Jupiter

+b) Just above the Sun's surface

-c) At the center of the Sun

-d) The question remains unresolved

-e) Just above Jupiter's surface

65) The barycenter of two otherwise isolated celestial bodies is?

-a) a place where two bodies exert equal and opposite gravitational forces

-b) both of these are true

+c) the focal point of two elliptical orbital paths

66) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the total mass

+a) FALSE

-b) TRUE

67) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the ratio of the two masses

+a) TRUE

-b) FALSE

68) Kepler began his career as a teacher of

-a) astronomy

+b) mathematics

-c) philosophy

-d) theology

-e) history

69) As a child, Kepler's interest in astronomy grew as a result of

-a) watching his uncle make a telescope

-b) a lunar eclipse

-c) a solar eclipse

-d) a comet

+e) two of these

70) When Kepler's studies at the university were over, what he really wanted to do was

-a) work with Newton

+b) become a minister

-c) visit Rome

-d) visit Athens

-e) work with Tycho

71) Which of the following is NOT associated with Kepler's Laws

-a) Earth orbits the sun

+b) circular motions with epicycles

-c) planets farther from the Sun have longer orbital periods.

-d) elliptical paths for the planets

-e) planets speed up as they approach the sun

72) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated at one focal point of the ellipse

-a) false

+b) true

73) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated midway between the two focal points of the ellipse

+a) false

-b) true

74) Newton was able to use the motion of the Moon to calculate the universal constant of gravity, G

-a) true

+b) false

75) The force of (gravitational) attraction between you and a friend is small because neither of you possess significant mass

+a) true

-b) false

76) Cavendish finally measured G by carefully weighing the force between

-a) Earth and Moon

-b) Earth and Sun

-c) Jupiter and moons

+d) two lead balls

-e) Sun and Moon

77) Kepler is also known for his improvements to

-a) a perpetual motion machine

-b) Ptolemy's star charts

-c) the abacus

+d) the telescope

-e) translations of the Bible

78) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

-a) true

+b) false

79) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of mathematics

-a) false

+b) true

80) In Kepler's era, astronomy closely linked to astrology

+a) true

-b) false

81) In Kepler's era, physics (how and why things moved) was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

-a) false

+b) true

82) Kepler incorporated religious arguments and reasoning into his work

+a) true

-b) false

83) Kepler avoided religious arguments and reasoning in his work

-a) true

+b) false

84) How would one describe the status of Kepler's family when he was a child?

-a) wealth and of noble birth

-b) his father and grandfather were scientists

-c) neither wealthy nor of noble birth

-d) wealthy but not of noble birth

+e) of noble birth, but in poverty

85) At 3am a new moon would be}

-a) overhead

-b) nadir

+c) below the eastern horizon

-d) high in eastern sky

-e) eastern horizon

86) At noon a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon

-b) high in western sky

-c) nadir

+d) high in eastern sky

-e) overhead

87) At 9am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) high in western sky

-b) western horizon

-c) high in eastern sky

-d) eastern horizon

+e) nadir

88) At 9am a 1st quarter moon would be}

-a) nadir

-b) below the western horizon

-c) high in western sky

-d) western horizon

+e) below the eastern horizon

89) At 3pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) western horizon

-b) high in western sky

-c) overhead

-d) eastern horizon

+e) nadir

90) At 3am a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) below the eastern horizon

-b) high in western sky

+c) nadir

-d) overhead

-e) below the western horizon

91) At noon a waning crescent moon would be}

+a) high in western sky

-b) nadir

-c) overhead

-d) eastern horizon

-e) high in eastern sky

92) At 9pm a new moon would be}

-a) nadir

-b) below the eastern horizon

-c) western horizon

-d) high in western sky

+e) below the western horizon

93) At 3pm a waning crescent moon would be}

+a) western horizon

-b) high in eastern sky

-c) below the eastern horizon

-d) high in western sky

-e) nadir

94) At 3am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) below the eastern horizon

+b) western horizon

-c) overhead

-d) high in western sky

-e) nadir

95) At 6pm a 1st quarter moon would be

-a) eastern horizon

-b) western horizon

+c) overhead

-d) below the horizon

96) At 6pm a full moon would be

-a) overhead

-b) below the horizon

+c) eastern horizon

-d) western horizon

97) At 6pm a new moon would be

-a) below the horizon

+b) western horizon

-c) eastern horizon

-d) overhead

98) At midnight a third quarter moon would be

+a) eastern horizon

-b) western horizon

-c) below the horizon

-d) overhead

99) At 6pm a third quarter moon would be

-a) eastern horizon

+b) below the horizon

-c) overhead

-d) western horizon

100) At noon a 1st quarter moon would be

-a) western horizon

-b) below the horizon

-c) overhead

+d) eastern horizon

101) At 6am a full moon would be

-a) overhead

-b) below the horizon

+c) western horizon

-d) eastern horizon

102) At midnight a 1st quarter moon would be

-a) eastern horizon

+b) western horizon

-c) overhead

-d) below the horizon

103) At noon a new moon would be

+a) overhead

-b) western horizon

-c) below the horizon

-d) eastern horizon

104) At noon a full moon would be

-a) overhead

-b) eastern horizon

-c) western horizon

+d) below the horizon

105)

Giovanni Schiaparelli 1877

Lowell circa 1914.

These drawings by Schiaparelli and Lowell were ultimately shown to be:

-a) slip faults

-b) rilles

-c) rift valleys

-d) subduction zones

+e) optical illusions

106) Antipodal to the Tharsis bulge is

-a) the northern lowlands

+b) What Wikipedia contends IS an impact basin

-c) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an active volcano

-d) What Wikipedia contends IS an active volcano

-e) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an impact basin

107)

Martian lobate feature

The lobate feature shown in the figure is evidence of


}

-a) dust storms

+b) lava flow

-c) water flow

-d) plate tectonics

-e) wind erosion

108) The Martian dichotomy separates

-a) Valles Marineris from Olympus Mons

+b) the highlands from the lowlands

-c) the Tharsus buldge from Hellas basin

-d) the crust from the mantle

-e) the rift valley from the volcanoes

109) According to Wikipedia, ______ was formed due to swelling of the Tharsis bulge which caused the crust to collapse

-a) the southern lowlands

+b) Valles Marineris

-c) Elysium

-d) the northern lowlands

-e) Hellas basin

110)

gray hematite

What is this hematite?

-a) controversial evidence that Mars once had life

+b) evidence that Mars once had oceans

-c) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life

-d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes

-e) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes

111) The polar ice caps on Mars are ___

-a) mostly carbon dioxide

+b) mostly water

-c) caused by geysers

-d) a nearly equal mix of water and carbon dioxide

-e) actually clouds above the surface of Mars

112) Liquid water cannot exist on Mars due to ___

-a) the solar wind

-b) low temperature

+c) low pressure

-d) high pressure

-e) high temperature

113)

magnified Martian meteorite

What is at the center of this magnified image of a Martian meteorite? fragment?

-a) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes

-b) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes

-c) evidence that Mars once had oceans

-d) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life

+e) controversial evidence that Mars once had life

114)

horizontal crack

The horizontal crack along the center of figure is a

-a) propodal

-b) meander

-c) rille

-d) antipodal

+e) scarp

115) Antipodal to Caloris Basin is

-a) a silicon deposits

-b) a water deposits

-c) an iron/nickel deposit

-d) a scarp

+e) weird terrain

116) A volatile is a substance that

-a) reacts violently with acids

+b) melts or evaporates at low temperature

-c) reacts violently with water

-d) melts or evaporates at high temperature

-e) reacts violently with oxygen

117) The four smaller inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of ___ and ___.

-a) ice and rock

-b) carbon and oxygen

-c) ice and gas

-d) ice and water

+e) metal and rock

118) If the universe is mostly hydrogen, why aren't terrestrial planets made of mostly hydrogen?

+a) thermonuclear fusion in the protosun turned the hydrogen into helium

-b) tidal forces from Jupiter prevented accretion

-c) tidal forces between the terrestrial planets prevented accretion

-d) These planets lie inside the frost line for hydrogen

-e) tidal forces from the Sun prevented accretion

119) Mercury's atmosphere consists mostly of

-a) helium

-b) oxygen

-c) carbon dioxide

-d) nitrogen

+e) hydrogen

120) In what sequence did Mercury's weird terrain and Caloris basin form?

-a) The weird terrain was formed a few millions years after the Caloris basin

-b) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years before the Caloris basin

-c) The were formed at exactly the same time

+d) The weird terrain was formed almost immediately after the Caloris basin

-e) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years after the Caloris basin

121) The 1982 Voyager flyby of Miranda (a moon of Uranus) established that _____

-a) Miranda has geysers.

-b) Miranda has the largest active volcano in the solar system

+c) inspired a theory a previous incarnation was destroyed by a collision

-d) Miranda probably has an iron core

-e) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

122) It has been suggested that Miranda's "racetrack"

-a) is a series of rifts created by an upwelling of warm ice

-b) is associated with tidal heating

-c) is antipodal to an impact crater

-d) is an impact crater

+e) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).

123) According to Wikipedia, the largest lakes on Titan are probably fed by

-a) methane rain

+b) underground aquifers

-c) liquid water rain

-d) rivers from the highlands

-e) geysers

124)

The bright spot on Saturn's moon Titan is

-a) aurora borealis (northern lights)

-b) lightening

-c) a volcano

+d) a lake

-e) solar wind particles striking the atmosphere

125) One "year" on Saturn's largest moon Titan lasts

-a) 30 hours

-b) 300 days

+c) 30 years

-d) 3 years

-e) 3 hours

126)

The photographs compare

-a) winter windstorms and summer doldrums

+b) Titan and Earth

-c) northern and southern hemispheres

-d) wet and dry seasons

-e) summer windstorms and winter doldrums

127) The liquid water ocean of Saturn's largest moon Titan,

-a) is postulated to cover 15-30% of its surface

-b) is known to contain life

+c) explains how the elevation of a smooth planet seems to rise and fall

-d) Two other answers are correct

-e) is less than one meter in depth

128)

incomplete rim

The incomplete rims seen in the figure are caused by:

-a) low surface gravity

-b) micrometeorite erosion

-c) rilles

+d) vulcanism

-e) meteorite erosion

129) Rilles are caused by

-a) water

+b) lava

-c) meteorites

-d) meteors

-e) impacts

130) In the Wikipedia excerpt on "Planetary Astronomy" the mechanism by which a meander grows over time was discussed. Which of the the following is best describes why meanders grow? (Pick only one best answer)

-a) combination of erosion and underlying bedrock strength

-b) combination of deposition and underlying bedrock strength

+c) a combination of deposition and erosion

-d) occasional periods of intense flooding

-e) wind erosion

131) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

+a) the rotation of the planet about its axis

-b) the motion of an artificial satellite

-c) the motion of a moon

-d) the motion of a neighboring planet

-e) all of these have been used

132) What is unusual about calculations of the mass of Pluto made in the early part of the 20th century?

-a) The estimates were correct to within less than 10%

-b) The estimates were too low. Pluto was actually more massive than they thought.

-c) It was the first time a moon was used to calculate the mass of a planet

+d) The estimates were high. Pluto was less massive than they calculated

-e) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass

133) Why was the discovery of Pluto peculiar?

+a) It was discovered by a calculation based on flawed assumptions

-b) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass

-c) It was seen by Halley, who was looking for comets

-d) It was discovered during a survey looking for stars

-e) It was seen by Galileo, who thought it was a star

134) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

-a) the motion of an artificial satellite

-b) the motion of a moon

+c) all of these have been used

-d) the motion of a neighboring planet

135) Which statement describes the relation between Pluto and Neptune

+a) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they don't collide because of an orbital resonance between the two

-b) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they avoid each other because Pluto's mass is too small

-c) Pluto's orbit lies outside Neptune's orbit

-d) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit an the two bodies will eventually collide

136) The Ptolemaic system was geocentric.

+a) TRUE

-b) FALSE

137) An argument used to support the geocentric model held that heavenly bodies, while perhaps large, were able to move quickly.

+a) TRUE

-b) FALSE

138) Tycho tended to favor religious arguments over scientific arguments when justifying his opinions about the geocentric/heliocentric controversy.

+a) FALSE

-b) TRUE

139) Tycho was the first to propose an earth-orbiting sun had planets in orbit around the Sun.

-a) TRUE

+b) FALSE

140) The Ptolemaic system was heliocentric.

+a) FALSE

-b) TRUE

141) Most ancient Roman and most medieval scholars thought the Earth was flat.

+a) FALSE

-b) TRUE

142) Evidence for the Copernican system is that the Earth does not seem to move.

-a) TRUE

+b) FALSE

143) The ancient Greeks believed in circular orbits, causing them to devise the epicycle and the deferent.

-a) FALSE

+b) TRUE

144) Copernicus was a university-trained Catholic priest dedicated to astronomy.

-a) FALSE

+b) TRUE

145) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the geocentric theory.

-a) TRUE

+b) FALSE

146) Copernicus shared his heliocentric theory with colleagues decades before he died.

+a) TRUE

-b) FALSE

147) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the heliocentric theory.

-a) FALSE

+b) TRUE

148) At the center of the Crab nebula is

-a)c) none of these is correct

-b)b) a pulsar

-c)d) a neutron star

-d)e) the remnants of a supernova

+e)a) all of these is correct

149) One way to determine the distance to a nebula or small cluster of clouds is to compare the angular expansion to the spectroscopic Doppler shift. Two clusters (A and B) have the same spectroscopically measured velocity. Cluster A is moving towards the observer and exhibits the greater angular expansion. Which cluster is closer?

-a) either cluster might be more distant

-b) cluster B, because it exhibits a red Doppler shift

-c) cluster B, because it exhibits less angular expansion

-d) cluster A, because it exhibits a blue Doppler shift

+e) cluster A, because it exhibits greater angular expansion

150) What causes the "finger-like" filamentary structure in the Crab nebula?

-a) electrons striking oxygen molecules, like a lava lamp

-b) a heavy (high density) fluid underneath a light (low density) fluid, like a lava lamp

+c) a light(low density) fluid underneath a heavy(high density) fluid, like a lava lamp

-d) electrons striking hydrogen molecules, like a lava lamp

-e) cyclotron motion, causing the electrons to strike oxygen molecules

151) $KE={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$ is the kinetic energy of a solid rotating ball, where M is mass, R is radius, and P is period. And, $power={\frac {energy}{time}}$.
You are banging espressos in a little coffeehouse with your astronomy friends, talking about a new SN remnant that closely resembles the Crab. You have observed the pulsar, and wonder what the total power output of the nebula might be. You know both the period of the pulsar, as well as $\tau$, which represents the amount of time you think the pulsar will continue pulsing if it continues slowing down at its present rate. What formula do you write on your napkin?

-a) $power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}\tau ^{4}$

-b) $power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

+c) $power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau }}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

-d) $power={\frac {4\tau \pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

-e) $power={\frac {5}{4\tau \pi ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}$

152) In one respect, the universie is arguably "young", considering how much complexity it contains. This is often illustrated by a calculation of

-a) cosmic expansion

-b) recalibration of supernovae luminosity

-c) cosmic redshift

-d) recalibration of supernovae relative magnitude

+e) chimps typing Shakespeare

153) Comparing Hubble's original (1929) plot of redshift versus distance with the later one in 2007, the latter extends farther into space by a factor of

-a) 1000

-b) 100,000

-c) 100

+d) 10

-e) 10,000

154) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. Hubble's original (1929) plot used

-a) red giants

-b) Cepheid variables

-c) supernovae

-d) novae

+e) entire galaxies

155) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. The more recent (2007) plot used

+a) supernovae

-b) red giants

-c) Cepheid variables

-d) entire galaxies

-e) novae

156) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expands out to 12 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expand?

-a) 4

-b) 2

-c) 3

+d) 6

-e) 8

157) You at the center raisin of an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion, and from your location a raisin originally situated at a distance of 1 cm expands out to a distance of 4 cm. The nearest raisin with intelligent life is situated exactly halfway between your (central) location and the edge. How would this second "intelligent" raisin view an expansion of a raisin 1 cm away?

+a) expansion from 1 cm to 4 cm (just like yours).

-b) expansion from 1 cm to 9 cm (since 5-1=4)

-c) expansion from 1 cm to 2 cm (half of yours)

-d) expansion from 1 cm to 3 cm (since 3-1=2)

-e) expansion from 1 cm to 8 cm (twice yours).

158) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expands out to 4 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expand?

-a) 6

-b) 2

+c) 8

-d) 4

-e) 3

159) Aside from its location on the HR diagram, evidence that the white dwarf has a small radius can be found from

-a) the doppler shift

-b) the expansion of the universe

-c) the mass as measured by Kepler's third law (modified by Newton)

-d) the temperature

+e) the gravitational redshift

160)

This light clock is associated with

-a) all of these are true

+b) special relativity

-c) general relativity

-d) gravitational shift

-e) doppler shift

161)

Suppose the light clock involved a ball being tossed back and forth on a train going just under the speed of sound. In contrast to the situation for light reflecting back and forth on a train going just under the speed of light, there is virtually no time dilation. Why?

-a) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling more slowly.

-b) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be greater.

-c) Special relativity is valid only for objects travelling in a vacuum.

-d) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be smaller.

+e) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling faster.

162)

This spectrum of the star Vega suggests that

-a) it is an approximate black body

+b) all of these are true

-c) it can be associated with an "effective" temperature

-d) it's surface can be associated with a range of temperatures

-e) if is not really a black body

163) Which of the following is NOT an essential piece of a a strong argument that a white dwarf is not only the size of the earth, but typically has the same mass as the Sun.

+a) all of these are true

-b) the distance to Sirius A

-c) the wobble of Sirius A

-d) the relative magnitude of Sirius B

-e) the "color" (spectral class) of Sirius B

164) The course materials presented three arguments suggesting that a white dwarf is roughly the size of the earth. Which best summarizes them?

-a) x-ray-emmission...doppler-shift...rotation-rate

+b) temperature-luminosity...redshift...quantum-theory-of-solids

-c) HR-diagram-location...X-ray-emmision...spectral-lines

-d) doppler-shift...period-of-pulsation...temperature-luminosity

-e) all of these are true

165) As of 2008, the percent uncertainty in the distance to the Crab nebula is approximately,

-a) 10%

-b) 1%

-c) 0.1%

+d) 25%

-e) 100%

166) What was Messier doing when he independently rediscovered the Crab in 1758?

+a) Looking for a comet that he knew would be appearing in that part of the sky.

-b) Looking for lobsters

-c) Attempting to count asteroids

-d) Trying to measure the orbital radius of a planet

-e) Attempting one of the first star charts

167)

What best explains this figure?

-a) The photon loses energy, not speed. By c=fλ , it loses frequency, and by E=hf it increases wavelength and turns red.

-b) The photon slows down as it goes uphill, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength therefore by E=hf, it turns red.

-c) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, c=fλ, and therefore by E=hf it turns red.

+d) The photon loses energy, not speed. By E=hf, it loses frequency, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength and turns red.

-e) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, E=hf, and therefore by c=f&;lambda it turns red.

168) What causes the blue glow of the Crab nebula?

-a) the same emission found in a Lava lamp (ultra-violet)

-b) the Doppler blue shift

+c) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion resembles a radio antenna

-d) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion traps ultra-violet and blue light

-e) the Gravitational blue shift

169) A grouping with 100 thousand stars would probably be a

+a) globular cluster

-b) dwarf galaxy

-c) elliptical galaxy

-d) A-B association

-e) open cluster

170) Many stars in a typical open cluster are nearly as old as the universe

-a) True

+b) False

171) Many stars in a typical globular cluster are nearly as old as the universe

+a) True

-b) False

172) The number of globular clusters in the Milky way galaxy is about

+a) 150

-b) 1,500

-c) 15 thousand

-d) 15 million

173) The location of open clusters can be described as

-a) between the spiral arms

-b) uniformly distributed in a sphere centered at the Milky Way's center

-c) uniformly distributed within the galactic disk

+d) in the spiral arms

174) Stars can "evaporate" from a cluster. What does this mean?

+a) Close encounters between 3 or more cluster members gives one star enough speed to leave the cluster

-b) The solar wind from neighboring stars blows the atmosphere away

-c) The gravitational attraction between stars evaporates the gas from stars

175) A grouping with a hundred stars is probably a

-a) dwarf galaxy

-b) A-B association

+c) open cluster

-d) globular cluster

-e) elliptical galaxy

176) I gravity is what holds stars in a cluster together, what is the most important process that causes them to spread apart?

-a) solar wind

-b) magnetism

+c) random motion

-d) anti-gravity

-e) supernovae

177) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces only due to gravitational interaction with each other

-a) True

+b) False

178) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces from nearby giant molecular clouds

-a) False

+b) True

179) Members of a globular cluster tend to be

-a) young

+b) old

-c) of all ages

180) Members of a globular cluster tend to have

-a) a wide range of masses

-b) high mass

+c) low mass

181) In 1917, the astronomer Harlow Shapley was able to estimate the Sun's distance from the galactic centre using

+a) goblular clusters

-b) open clusters

-c) a combination of open and globular clusters

182) Most globular clusters that we see in the sky orbit _____ and have ______ orbits

+a) the center of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits

-b) within the disk of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits

-c) the center of the Milky way ... nearly circular

-d) within the disk of the Milky way ... nearly circular

183) Stellar parallax is

-a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

-b) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

-c) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

-d) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

+e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

184) A star that is increasing it's temperature while maintaining constant luminosity is

-a)e) getting larger in size

-b) in the process of dying

+c) getting smaller in size

-d) turning red

-e) on the verge of becoming a supernovae

185) The range of wavelength for visible light is between

-a) 5000 and 6000 nanometers

-b) 600 and 1200 nanometers

+c) 400 and 700 nanometers

-d) 0.1 and 10 nanometers

-e) 1 and 10 nanometers

186) Based on the HR diagrams and images in stars shown in the materials, a very large red supergiant has a diameter that is about ____ greater than a small white dwarf.

-a) 3x10⁹

-b) 3x10³

-c) 3x10⁷

-d) 3x10¹¹

+e) 3x10⁵

187) Luminosity is

-a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

-b) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

-c) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

+d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

-e) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

188) A standard candle is

-a) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

-b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

-c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

+d) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

-e) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

189) Absolute magnitude is

-a) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

-b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

+c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

-d) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

-e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

190) Relative magnitude is

-a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

+b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth

-c) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

-d) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

-e) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

191) In 1989 the satellite Hipparcos was launched primarily for obtaining parallaxes and proper motions allowing measurements of stellar parallax for stars up to about 500 parsecs away, which is about ____ times the diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy.

-a) 15

-b) 150

-c) 0.15

-d) 1.5

+e) .015

192) An object emits thermal (blackbody) radiation with a peak wavelength of 250nm. How does its temperature compare with the Sun?

-a) The temperature is the same

-b) 5 times hotter than the Sun

-c) 2 times colder than the Sun

+d) 2 times hotter than the Sun

-e) 5 times colder than the Sun

193) The "normalized intensity" of a Sun-like star situated one parsec from Earth would be 4πI = 1. What is 4πI for a star with 100 times the Sun's energy output that is situated 10pc from Earth?

-a) 10^-4

-b) 10^-1

-c) 10^-2

+d) 1

-e) 10^-3

194) An orbiting satellite makes a circular orbit 5 AU from the Sun. It measures a parallax angle of 0.2 of an arcsecond (each way from the average position). What is the star's distance?

-a) 5 parsecs

-b) 1 parsec

-c) 50 parsecs

+d) 25 parsecs

-e) 10 parsecs

195) When imaged in visible light Venus appears like ______ rather than ______.

-a) Mars ... Venus

-b) an asteroid ... a terrestrial planet

-c) Venus ... Mars

+d) a gas dwarf ... a rocky planet

196) The clouds on Venus are made of

-a) steam

+b) sulfuric acid

-c) carbon dioxide

-d) nitrogen

-e) water

197) The geology of Venus is predominantly

-a) Picrite

+b) Basalt

-c) Andesite

198) Basalt is what type of rock?

-a) Sedimentary

-b) Metamorphic

+c) Igneous

199) The rocks on Venus are mostly

+a) from volcanoes

-b) from the seabed of a now non-existent ocean

-c) associated with plate tectonics

200) The rocky surface of the planet Venus can be detected when Venus is observed using infrared astronomy.

-a) TRUE

+b) FALSE

201) When Venus is viewed in the ultraviolet, its color appears brownish.

+a) FALSE

-b) TRUE

202) Moldavite is a mineral that may be associated with what radiation astronomy phenomenon?

-a) lightening strikes

-b) evidence that Venus was once a comet

+c) meteorite impacts and fireballs

-d) predicting when currently dormant volcanoes will erupt

203) According to Wikipedia, a "mineral" is a naturally occurring solid that

-a) is heterogeneous

-b) does not contain carbon

+c) is by a chemical formula

-d) contains carbon

-e) has useful value

204) Which types of radiation astronomy directly observe the rocky-object surface of Venus?

-a) ultraviolet astronomy

-b) X-ray astronomy

-c) infrared astronomy

+d) radio astronomy

-e) visual astronomy

205) One reason that Venus's atmosphere has more carbon dioxide than Earth's is that

-a) the mass of Venus is slightly higher

+b) Venus was too hot for oceans that could absorb the carbon dioxide

-c) Venus has a lower magnetic field that disassociates carbon dioxide

-d) Venus is exposed to a stronger solar wind strips away the other gasses

206) The surface temperature of Venus is about

+a) 850 Fahrenheit (730 Kelvin or 230 Celsius)

+b) 150 Fahrenheit (340 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

+c) 450 Fahrenheit (500 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

207) The Venetian atmosphere consists of mostly carbon dioxide and

-a) oxygen

-b) hydrogen

+c) nitrogen

-d) helium

-e) sulfuric acid

208) The Wikipedia article Sidereus Nuncius suggests that the inventor of the telescope was likely to be

-a) Galileo

+b) a lensmaker

-c) A Greek scholar

-d) a Chinese scientist

-e) none of these

209) When the German astronomy Marius provided evidence that he (Marius) had first seen the moons of Jupiter, Galileo

+a) won the argument using his knowledge of calendars

-b) didn't care; he was a true scientist

-c) used his political contacts to ensure that he (Galileo) would get credit

-d) appealed to the Pope

-e) pointed out that the telescope Marius was using could not have seen the Moons

210) Prior to the publication of Sidereus Nuncius, the Church

-a) had given Galileo a commission to look into the Copernican heliocentric system

-b) was unaware of any controversy concerning the Copernican heliocentric system

+c) accepted the Copernican heliocentric system as strictly mathematical and hypothetical

-d) had outlawed all discussion of the Copernican heliocentric system

-e) none of these are true (according to the Wikipedia permalink to Sidereus Nuncius.)

211) Galileo called his telescope

+a) an optical cannon

-b) a mistake

-c) a double magnifying glass

-d) the liberator

-e) the magic eye

212) The "terminator" for Galileo was

-a) the most distant star he could see

-b) the equator

+c) sunrise or sunset

-d) his trial for heresy

-e) the division between east and west

213) Galileo used the terminator to

+a) correlate color with whether the region had mountains

-b) compensate for stellar parallax

-c) none of these

-d) deduce the color beneath the dust layer

-e) observe the wobble of the Moon's orbit

214) Galileo used the terminator to

+a) two of these

-b) correlate dark and light regions with terrain

-c) measure the height of mountains

-d) publicize his ideas

-e) compensate for stellar parallax

215) What statement is FALSE about Galileo and the Median Stars

-a) Galileo named them after a famous and wealthy family

+b) they were described by Aristotle

-c) they are actually moons

-d) motion could be observed after observing a moon for just one hour

-e) they were lined up

216) The title of Galileo's book, Sidereus Nuncius, is often translated as ____, but it is probably more proper to translate it as _______

-a) the motion of the earth - - the location of the earth

+b) Starry messenger - - Starry message

-c) the Moon close up - - the Moon through a telescope

-d) the motion of the stars - - the location of the stars

-e) the moons of Jupiter

217) The Wikipedia article, Sidereus Nuncius, points out that what the ancient Greek scientist thought was a cloudy star was really

-a) a planetary nebula

-b) a comet

-c) a supernovae remnant

-d) the rings of Saturn

+e) many faint stars

218) Galileo's naming of the "Medicean Stars"

-a) broke an agreement he made with the Pope to stop writing about astronomy

+b) two of these are true

-c) might have earned him a promotion

-d) caused his house arrest

-e) was controversial because stars were supposed to be named after Roman gods

219) Very far from the sun, the heliosphere

+a) becomes weaker than the interstellar wind

-b) becomes the magnetosphere

-c) never ends

-d) reverses direction

-e) spins in the opposite direction

220) According to Wikipedia, if all the mass of the asteroid belt were combined to one object, it's mass would _______ times less than Earth's mass.

-a) 1

-b) 10,000

-c) 10

-d) 100

+e) 1,000

221)

planetary disk

In this hypothetical image of a sun-like star we see a bright band of dust that we on Earth call zodiacal light. It is due to sunlight reflecting off dust in the

-a) magnetic sun's magnetic field

-b) Oort Cloude

-c) Kuiper belt

+d) ecliptic plane

-e) Van Allen belt

222) In planetary science, the frost line refers to a distance away from

-a) the south pole of a planet

-b) either pole of a planet

-c) the north pole of a planet

+d) the star in the middle

-e) ecliptic plane

223) Oort's cloud was hypothesized to explain the source of

+a) comets

-b) water outside the frost line

-c) water inside the frost line

-d) planets

-e) asteroids

224) According to Wikipedia _______ and ______ are referred to as volatiles.

-a) asteroids and terrestrial planets

-b) acids and bases

-c) electrons and protons

-d) planets and moons

+e) ices and gasses

225) Which of the following list is properly ranked, starting with objects closest to the Sun?

-a) Kuiper belt, Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud

-b) Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud, Kuiper belt

-c) Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt

-d) Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt

+e) Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud

226) When the sun turns into a red giant,

-a) surface temperature decreases; energy output decreases

-b) The sun will not turn into a red giant

-c) surface temperature increases; energy output increases

-d) surface temperature increases; energy output decreases

+e) surface temperature decreases; energy output increases

227) A volatile is a substance that

-a) melts or evaporates at high temperature

-b) reacts violently with oxygen

+c) melts or evaporates at low temperature

-d) reacts violently with acids

-e) reacts violently with water

228) All planets lie within a nearly flat disc called the __________ plane

-a) angular

+b) ecliptic

-c) retrograde

-d) interstellar

-e) fissile

229) The AU is

+a) the distance from the Sun to Earth

-b) the distance from Earth to the Moon

-c) a measure of the brightness of a planet

-d) the most distant Kuiper object from the Sun

-e) the size of Oort's cloud

230) The Sun and Earth are about

-a) 50 billion years old

-b) 5 million years old

-c) 500 million years old

-d) 50 million years old

+e) 5 billion years old

231) The universe is about

-a) 1.5 billion years old

-b) 15 million years old

-c) 150 million years old

+d) 15 billion years old

-e) 150 billion years old

232) Roughly how much bigger is a gas planet than a terrestrial planet?

-a) 300

-b) 30

+c) 10

-d) 3

-e) 100

233) Roughly how much bigger is a the Sun than a gas planet?

-a) 100

-b) 3

-c) 300

-d) 30

+e) 10

234) In astrophysics, what is accretion?

+a) the growth of a massive object by gravitationally attracting more matter

-b) the condensation of volatiles as a gas cools

-c) the growth in size of a massive star as its outer atmosphere expands

-d) the growth of a comet's tail as it comes close to the Sun

-e) the increase in temperature and pressure of a star as it collapses from its own gravity

235) Dwarf planets are defined as objects orbiting the Sun and smaller than planets, that?

-a) lie in the asteroid belt

-b) are too far from the Sun to be planets

+c) have been rounded by their own gravity

-d) possess an atmosphere

-e) lack an atmosphere

236) Dwarf planets have no natural satellites,

+a) false

-b) true

237) Pluto is classified as

-a) an asteroid belt object

-b) a dwarf planet with no natural satellites

+c) a dwarf planet and a trans-Neptunian object.

-d) a natural satellite of Uranus

-e) a natural satellite of Neptune

238) How many of the outer planets have rings?

-a) 3

-b) 1

+c) 4

-d) 2

239) Currently there are 7 billion people on Earth, if that ever increases to 10 billion people, for every person on Earth there will be ____ stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

+a) 20

-b) 2000

-c) 200

-d) 2

240) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is nearly circular.

+a) false

-b) true

241) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is opposite that of the 8 planets.

-a) false

+b) true

242) The frost line is situated approximately

-a) 10 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun

+b) 5 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun

-c) 5 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

-d) 10 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

243) Why is a star made of plasma?

-a) the interstellar gas was mostly plasma

+b) it is so hot that electrons are stripped away from the protons

-c) plasma is always present when there are strong magnetic fields

-d) plasma is generic word for "important"

-e) the intense gravity liquifies the substance, just as red blood cells liquify plasma in the body

244) Pre–main sequence stars are often surrounded by a protoplanetary disk and powered mainly by

-a) the fusion of Helium to Carbon

-b) the fission of Carbon from Helium

+c) the release of gravitational energy

-d) chemical reactions

-e) collisions between protoplanets

245) Stars that begin with more than 50 solar masses will typically lose _______ while on the main sequence.

-a) 10% their mass

-b) all of their magnetic field

+c) 50% their mass

-d) 1% their mass

-e) 10% of their magnetic field

246) The Hayashi and Henyey tracks refer to how T Tauri of different masses will move

-a) through a cluster as they are born

-b) Two of these are true

-c) through an HR diagram as they die

+d) through an HR diagram as they are born

-e) through a cluster as they die

247) How do low-mass stars change as they are born?

Birth of stars HR path tracks

-a) Decreasing temperature with no change in luminosity

-b) Increasing luminosity with no change in temperature

+c) Decreasing luminosity with no change in temperature

-d) Increasing temperature with no change in luminosity

-e) Decreasing temperature and increasing luminosity

248) When a star with more than 10 solar masses ceases fuse hydrogen to helium, it

-a) ceases to convert nuclear energy.

-b) it fuses helium to carbon and then ceases to produce more energy

-c) it fuses elements up to uranium, and continues to produce energy by the fission of uranium.

+d) it fuses helium to carbon and other elements up to iron and then ceases to produce more energy

-e) it fuses helium to carbon to iron (and other elements), then continues to release more energy by fusing the iron to heavier elements such as uranium.

249) Many supernovae begin as a shock wave in the core that was caused by

-a) carbon and other elements fusing into iron

-b) iron fusing into heavier elements such as uranium

-c) the conversion of carbon into diamonds,

-d) all of these processes contribute to the shock wave

+e) electrons being driven into protons to form neutrons

250) A dying star with more than 1.4 solar masses becomes a ______, and those with more than 5 solar masses becomes a _____

-a) white dwarf...red dwarf

-b) white dwarf....neutron star

+c) neutron star....black hole

-d) white dwarf....black hole

-e) blue giant....red giant

251) According to Wikipedia, a star with over 20 solar masses converts its Hyrogen to Helium in about 8 billion years, but the conversion of Oxygen to heavier elements take about _____

+a) 1 year

-b) 1 thousand years

-c) 1 billion years

-d) 1 million years

-e) 10 billion years

252) What is the difference between a constellation and an asterism?

-a) constellations consist of never more than ten stars.

+b) constellations represent regions of the sky, like state boundaries on a map of the USA

-c) asterisms are larger than constellations

-d) none of these is correct

-e) asterisms are smaller than constellations

253) Stellar parallax is

-a) Using changes in the angular position of a star to deduce the star’s distance

+b) Two of these is correct

-c) Triangulation to deduce the distance to nearby stars

-d) None of these is correct.

-e) Using spectral lines to deduce the distance to nearby stars

254) Giant molecular clouds with sufficient conditions to form a star cluster would have formed them long ago. Any stellar births in the past couple of billions years probably resulted from _____ between clouds.

-a) Two of these are correct

+b) collisions

-c) None of these is correct.

-d) photon exchange

-e) ion exchange

255) A starburst galaxy.

+a) Two of these are correct

-b) usually is a result of collisions between galaxies

-c) has only dead or dying stars

-d) is a region of active stellar birth

-e) All of these are correct

256) Which of the following expresses Jean's criterion for the collapse of a giant molecular cloud of mass, M, radius, R, and temperature T, and pressure P? (Here ? is some constant)

-a) R>?MT

-b) P>?MT

-c) T>?RM

+d) M>?RT

-e) P>?MR

257) Which of the following changes in the properties of a giant molecular cloud might cause it to collapse?

-a) Decrease mass at fixed temperature and size

-b) Increase temperature at fixed mass and size

+c) Increase mass at fixed temperature and size

-d) Increase size at fixed pressure and mass

-e) Two of these are correct

258) What happens if you increase the size of a giant molecular cloud while keeping temperature and mass fixed?

+a) It is less likely to collapse spreading it out weakens the force of gravity

-b) It is more likely to collapse because larger things have more gravity

-c) It is less likely to collapse because temperature can never be kept fixed

-d) It is more likely to collapse because this will increase the temperature

-e) It is equally likely to collapse because size is not part of the Jean's criterion.

259) What is a Bok globule in the formation of stellar systems?

-a) A supernovae precurser that attracts more gas atoms

-b) A black hole that enters a cloud and triggers the collapse

+c) A small portion of a giant cloud that collapses

-d) A cluster of giant molecular clouds that coalesce to form a solar system

-e) A small planet that formed before any stars have formed

260) When did astronomy split between theoretical and observational branches?

+a) In the 20th century

-b) After Galileo

-c) In the 19th century

-d) In the last decade

-e) In the 18th century

261) According to the Wikipedia Astronomy article, the first known efforts in the mathematical and scientific study of Astronomy began

-a) in south America

-b) among the Chinese

-c) in central America

-d) in ancient Greece

+e) among the Babylonians

262) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as Antikythera?

-a) 15,000 years

-b) 300 years

+c) 1500 years

-d) 30 years

-e) 3000 years

263) The saro cycle was about repeating cycles of

-a) planets

-b) seasons

+c) eclipses

264)

Who drew these sketches?

+a) Galileo

-b) Ptolemy

-c) Kepler

-d) Copernicus

-e) Aristotle

265) In what century was parallax first used to measure the distance to a Star (other than our Sun)?

+a) 19th century

-b) 17th century

-c) 18th century

-d) 16th century

-e) 20th century

266) The largest galaxy in the local group is

-a) M52

-b) ant-galexy

+c) Andromeda

-d) M-31

-e) Milky way

267) What two names are associated with the first new planet found (after those known by the ancients using the naked eye)

-a) Neptune and the Alabama Streaker

-b) Mars and the Candy Bar

+c) Uranus and George's Star

-d) Pluto and Goofy

-e) Mercury and Friendship

268) The historical record shows that in 1066 AD a supernovae was discovered by astronomers in _____ and _____

-a) China and South America

+b) Egypt and China

-c) Greece and North America

-d) Greece and Central America

-e) Greece and China

269) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' call astrology?

-a) the study of comets and asteroids

-b) the belief that all people should learn astronomy

-c) the study of planetary atmospheres

+d) the belief system which claims that human affairs are correlated with the positions of celestial objects.

-e) the study of planetary cores

270) Cosmology is the study of

-a) the oceans

+b) the universe as a whole

-c) the formation of the solar system

-d) the birth and death of stars

-e) planetary atmospheres

271) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' article say about astronomy and astrophysics

-a) They must be in agreement or the result cannot be trusted

+b) They are often considered to be synonymous

-c) They are often considered to be opposites

-d) They are often in conflict

-e) They often yield different results

272) The goecentric theory put the Sun

-a) at the center of the universe

+b) in orbit around Earth

-c) orbiting around the Moon

-d) none of the above or below are true

-e) at the center of the solar system

273) In the 3rd century BC, Aristarchus of Samos estimated the size of

-a) Earth and the Moon

-b) the Sun

-c) the Moon

+d) the Moon and Sun

-e) Earth and the Sun

274) In the 19th century Fraunhoffer and Kirchoff studied light from the Sun and found

-a) Mercury's shadow

-b) a wobble that led to the discovery of new planets

+c) spectral lines and concluded that they were caused by the elements

-d) a golden ring

-e) sunspots and the sunspot cycle

275) The ancient Greeks discovered (named) most of the constellations

+a) in the northern hemisphere

-b) in the western hemisphere

-c) in the southern hemisphere

-d) in the eastern hemisphere

-e) in both all hemispheres

276) When did astronmers establish that the Milky way is only one of many billions of galaxies in the universe?

-a) 18th century

+b) 20th century

-c) 16th century

-d) 14th century

277)

What is this?

-a) a supernovae remnant

+b) a dying star

-c) the magnetic field of Venus

-d) colliding galaxies

-e) the magnetic field of Saturn

278) An active galaxy is emitting a significant amount of its energy from _____

-a) nuclear fusion

-b) nuclear fission

+c) gravity

-d) exploding stars

-e) magnetism

279) Wihlem Conrad Rontgen, a pioneer in X-rays is famous for his photo of

-a) The Sun

-b) Barnard's star

+c) his wife

-d) a supernovae

-e) a double star

280) Earth based infrared observatories tend to be located in

-a) where the air is cold

-b) near the north and south poles

+c) where the air is dry

-d) underground

-e) near the equator

281) The shortest wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is associated with

-a) infrared

-b) blue light

-c) X-rays

+d) gamma rays

-e) ultra violet

282)

What are the blue things in this figure?

+a) one galaxy

-b) a globular cluster

-c) an open cluster of stars

-d) none of these is correct

-e) a cluster of galaxy

283) Most of the ______ that astronomers observe from Earth is seen in the form of synchrotron radiation, which is produced when electrons oscillate around magnetic fields.

-a) energy

-b) photons

-c) meteorites

-d) meteors

+e) radio waves

284) Most gamma rays are

-a) from cold stars

+b) in bursts

-c) from hot stars

-d) from the Sun

-e) the Andromeda galaxy

285) Studies in the infrared are useful for objects that are

-a) inside the solar system

-b) in our own galaxy

-c) in other galaxies

+d) cold

-e) associated with supernovae

286) The best place to observe neutrinos is

+a) underground

-b) near the north and south poles

-c) where the air is dry

-d) where the air is cold

-e) near the equator

287)

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

-a) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

-b) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

-c) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

+d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

288)

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

-a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

-b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

+c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

-d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

289) In optics, normal means

-a) parallel to the surface

+b) perpendicular to the surface

-c) to the left of the optical axis

-d) to the right of the optical axis

290) The law of reflection applies to

-a) curved surfaces

-b) flat surfaces

-c) only light in a vacuum

+d) both flat and curved surfaces

-e) telescopes but not microscopes

291) When light passes from air to glass

-a) the frequency decreases

-b) the frequency increases

-c) it does not bend

-d) it bends away from the normal

+e) it bends towards the normal

292) When light passes from glass to air

-a) it does not bend

-b) the frequency decreases

+c) it bends away from the normal

-d) it bends towards the normal

-e) the frequency increases

293) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

-a) the Doppler shift

+b) total internal reflection

-c) partial internal absorption

-d) the invariance of the speed of light

-e) total external refraction

294) The focal point is where

-a) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

+b) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens

-c) rays meet whenever they are forming an image

-d) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens

-e) the center of the lens

295) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

-a)

+b)

-c) They have the same focal lengh.

296) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

-a) at infinity

-b) One focal length in front of the eye

+c) Two (of the other answers) are true

-d) very far away

-e) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)

297) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

+a) false

-b) true

298) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

+a)

-b)

-c)

299) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

-a) once a 5 months

+b) once every 50 years

-c) once every 5 years

300) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

-a) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

+b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines

-c) there would be no shift in the spectral lines

301) An example of a standard candle is

-a) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

-b) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

+c) a supernova in a distant galaxy

-d) all of these are standard candles

302) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

-a) 350km/s

+b) 1400km/s

-c) 700km/s

303) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

-a) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away

+b) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

-c) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion

304) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

-a) they are not receding away from us

+b) they have a wide variety of speeds

-c) they all have nearly the same speed

-d) the cluster is close to us

305) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

-a) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

+b) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.

-c) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

-d) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light

306) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

-a) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies

-b) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox

+c) No, the clouds would get hot

-d) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis

307) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere

-a) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.

-b) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.

+c) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.

-d) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.

-e) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.

308) ${\frac {360\,{\text{degrees}}}{30\,{\text{days}}}}={\frac {36}{3}}\,$, calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______

-a) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars

+b) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars

-c) degrees per hour across the sky

-d) degrees per day across the sky

309) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)

+a) 2

-b) 1

-c) 3

-d) 0

-e) 4

310) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.

-a) false

+b) true

311) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one

-a) year

+b) day

-c) week

-d) month

312) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac

+a) false

-b) true

313) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

-a) false

+b) true

314) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

-a) true

+b) false

315) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations

-a) false

+b) true

316) ${\frac {360}{24}}={\frac {36\cdot 10}{12\cdot 2}}={\frac {12\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 2}{12\cdot 2\,}}$, calculates that the Sun moves 15

-a) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars

+b) degrees per hour across the sky

-c) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars

-d) degrees per day across the sky

317) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 3.0 meters

-b) 5.0 meters

-c) 4.0 meters

-d) 7.0 meters

+e) 6.0 meters

318) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 9.0 meters

+b) 10.0 meters

-c) 8.0 meters

-d) 7.0 meters

-e) 11.0 meters

319) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 9.0 meters

-b) 10.0 meters

+c) 12.0 meters

-d) 8.0 meters

-e) 11.0 meters

320) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

+a) 6.0 meters

-b) 5.0 meters

-c) 7.0 meters

-d) 9.0 meters

-e) 8.0 meters

321) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 11.0 meters

+b) 10.0 meters

-c) 7.0 meters

-d) 8.0 meters

-e) 9.0 meters

322) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

-a) 22.0 meters

+b) 20.0 meters

-c) 21.0 meters

-d) 19.0 meters

-e) 23.0 meters

323) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 7.0 meters

+b) 3.0 meters

-c) 5.0 meters

-d) 4.0 meters

-e) 6.0 meters

324) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 8.0 meters

-b) 10.0 meters

-c) 11.0 meters

-d) 12.0 meters

+e) 9.0 meters

325) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

+a) 16.0 meters

-b) 19.0 meters

-c) 17.0 meters

-d) 18.0 meters

-e) 20.0 meters

326) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 5.0 meters

-b) 1.0 meters

+c) 3.0 meters

-d) 2.0 meters

-e) 4.0 meters

327) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 23.0 meters

-b) 25.0 meters

-c) 26.0 meters

+d) 24.0 meters

-e) 27.0 meters

328) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

-a) 13.0 meters

-b) 17.0 meters

+c) 16.0 meters

-d) 15.0 meters

-e) 14.0 meters

329) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

-a) above a threshold frequency

+b) above a threshold intensity

-c) above a threshold wavelength

-d) at a specific frequency

330) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

-a) above a threshold wavelength

+b) at a specific frequency

-c) above a threshold intensity

-d) above a thresholdfrequency

331) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?

+a) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.

-b) by measuring the wavelength of the light

-c) by measuring the distance between the electrodes

332) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

+a) false

-b) true

333) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

-a) 10

-b) 40

+c) 30

-d) 15

334) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

-a) 20

-b) 1

-c) 2

+d) 40

-e) 10

335) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

+a) true

-b) false

336) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

+a) true

-b) false

337) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

-a) an unknown Babylonian

-b) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD)

+c) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)

-d) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)

338) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

-a) precession of the Moon's orbit

-b) precession of the equinoxes

-c) a wobble in the Moon's orbit

+d) leap years

339) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

-a) time of day

-b) day of the month

+c) season of the year

340) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

+a) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day

-b) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)

-c) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.

-d) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)

341) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

-a) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

-b) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

+c) phase of moon and earth-moon distance

342) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

-a) 8

-b) 5

-c) 30

+d) 15

List of questions for each test

questions	max	T1	T2	T3	T4	FE	oldid	q_	1st
1−9	9	0	5	0	0	2	1284510
10−16	7	0	0	4	0	1	1204943
17−48	32	2	3	4	2	2	1409004
49−55	7	0	0	4	0	1	1293955
56−67	12	0	0	7	0	3	1388646
68−84	17	0	7	0	0	2	1284523
85−94	48	0	6	0	0	2	1284517
95−104	16	6	0	0	0	2	1388138
105−113	9	0	0	5	0	2	1327222
114−120	7	0	4	0	0	1	1388427
121−127	7	0	0	4	0	1	1293943
128−130	3	0	0	2	0	1	1298071
131−135	5	0	0	3	0	1	1388652
136−147	12	7	0	0	0	2	1388143
148−168	21	0	0	0	12	3	1389043
169−182	14	0	0	0	8	3	1388988
183−194	12	0	0	0	7	2	1389023
195−207	13	0	0	6	0	2	1388772
208−218	11	6	0	0	0	2	1494854
219−233	15	0	8	0	0	3	1388382
234−242	9	0	5	0	0	2	1298068
243−259	17	0	0	0	8	3	1293945
260−276	17	10	0	0	0	3	1387156
277−286	10	6	0	0	0	2	1387715
287−294	8	0	0	0	0	0	1415988
295−298	4	0	0	0	0	0	1378615
299−306	8	0	0	2	2	2	1396006
307−316	10	0	0	0	0	0	1409900
317−328	12	0	0	0	0	0	1395847
329−331	3	0	0	0	0	0	1395828
332−342	11	0	0	0	0	0	1409696