Farsi 1/Lesson 1
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For help in pronouncing Persian words : Persian pronunciation
The prefix "be-" or "bo-"
The subjunctive marker be-/bo- is used:
So you see that when you have to use "to" before the second verb in English you have to use "be-" in Persian.
So the correct forms are:
"in the past tense, can you also say "Xastæm" instead of "Mixastæm" for "I wanted"
Xâstam and mixâstam are two different tenses.
Adding mi- to the simple past tense makes it durative. For many verbs like "mi-did-am" you can always translate it in English as "I used to see" but for the sense-related verbs like "mixâstam" depending on the context both "I want" or "I used to want" can serve as English translation.
and so on...
As you see for VERBing we use normally the infinitive form in Persian.
Can, may, should, must
I already learnt these before, but now that I have a clearer picture of the usage of the prefix "be," I would just like to ask one example for each auxillary verb to make sure that I am using it right. Thanks in advance.
Be- is used here because it is the second verb. (In literature and some instances of the spoken language be-can be omited, whenever you see a verb without a be- or mi- you can be sure it has been the be- which is omited thus it is subjunctive, mi- is never omited).
Like in English the present tense is used for "go".
I know how to say "might have VERBed"
But I do not know how to say "might VERB":
xorde bâsham is the subjunctive from for the past tenses. In the past tense -bâsh- (historically be+ast) is used for making the subjunctive form.
Again I know how to say "must have VERBed"
But I do not know how to say "must VERB"
Teshekkor mikonam. (thank you)
The first be- is because of (uncertainty), the second because it is the second verb.
Negation of subjunctive: The be- is replaced by na-.
The durative past tense (mixordi) has as subjunctive the same form (mixordi). Ehtemâlan means possibly.
Ne-mi-âvardi is the subjunctive of the durative (repeatetive) form mi-âvardi (you brought during a certain time). Bâlâ means up.
Indicative --> Subjunctive
Indicative --> Subjunctive
Future perfect tense
How about the future perfect tense:
Is the second part is like "terk kerdeh khahed bud" ?
We use just the tense based on "present participle" i.e. "rafte ast" for "Will have VERB-ed".
I have learnt that imperatives can be built in two ways: with or wihout the prefix "bo":
Is this the case for all verb imperatives? Does the prefix "bo" have an additional meaning?
-- Basically all the imperatives are made as: be+present stem, whithout personal endings (except for 2nd person plural).
Using imperative without be- is found in literary works and in spoken Persian in the case of much used verbs be- is omited in combinations.
Next thing you should know is that under the influence of "o" in some frequently used verb stems preffix be- is pronounced bo- in standard spoken Persian. Thus:
The same happens to be- becoming bi- in spoken language in some cases like:
Ex 1 : Quiz
Go to the Quiz.
Ex 2 : Memory training
Write out the Persian words, section by section.
Have 2 columns, clearly separated, and write Persian and English. Then cover up one column (eg. English) with paper and write the corresponding words on the paper. Then try it the other way round, cover up the Persian, and write out the words using the English as cues. This will be a little bit more difficult.
Repeat all this after an interval, the more you do it the easier you will remember the words.
If you want to add words to this page, please make sure you put them into a sentense in Lesson 2 wherever you can.
Khâhesh mikonam (You're welcome).