1) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 4.0 meters
b) 3.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters
2) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 9.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 10.0 meters
d) 11.0 meters
e) 8.0 meters
3) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 12.0 meters
b) 9.0 meters
c) 10.0 meters
d) 8.0 meters
e) 11.0 meters
4) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
a) 5.0 meters
b) 6.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters
5) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 7.0 meters
b) 9.0 meters
c) 11.0 meters
d) 8.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters
6) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
a) 22.0 meters
b) 23.0 meters
c) 21.0 meters
d) 19.0 meters
e) 20.0 meters
7) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 5.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 3.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters
8) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 11.0 meters
b) 9.0 meters
c) 12.0 meters
d) 10.0 meters
e) 8.0 meters
9) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
a) 17.0 meters
b) 19.0 meters
c) 16.0 meters
d) 20.0 meters
e) 18.0 meters
10) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 4.0 meters
b) 5.0 meters
c) 3.0 meters
d) 1.0 meters
e) 2.0 meters
11) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?
a) 25.0 meters
b) 26.0 meters
c) 23.0 meters
d) 24.0 meters
e) 27.0 meters
12) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
a) 15.0 meters
b) 13.0 meters
c) 17.0 meters
d) 16.0 meters
e) 14.0 meters
13) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because
a) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly
b) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied
c) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
14) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is
a) zero
b) up
c) down
15) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is
a) up
b) zero
c) down
16) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is
a) down
b) zero
c) up
17) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is
a) down
b) up
c) zero
18) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
a) northeast
b) northwest
c) southwest
d) north
e) south
19) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
a) north
b) northeast
c) south
d) southwest
e) northwest
20) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points
a) southeast
b) north
c) northeast
d) northwest
e) northeast
21) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points
a) northwest
b) northeast
c) southwest
d) south
e) north
22) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
a) northwest
b) southwest
c) south
d) southeast
e) west
23) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
a) south
b) northeast
c) southeast
d) northwest
e) north
24) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is
a) zero
b) to the west
c) to the east
25) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is
a) to the west
b) zero
c) to the east
26) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is
a) zero
b) to the east
c) to the west
27) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is
a) up
b) zero
c) down
28) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is
a) south
b) north
c) west
d) zero
e) east
29) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is
a) east
b) west
c) south
d) north
e) zero
30) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is
a) towards Earth
b) away from Earth
c) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
d) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
e) zero
31) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is
a) zero
b) down
c) up
32) These two pulses will collide and produce
a) negative diffraction
b) positive interference
c) positive diffraction
d) negative interference
33) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes
a) unchanged
b) lower
c) higher
34) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?
a) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.
b) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
c) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
35) People don't usually perceive an echo when
a) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
b) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound
c) it arrives at a higher pitch
d) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
e) it arrives at a lower pitch
36) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,
a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
37) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?
a) the wavelength stays the same
b) the wavelength gets longer
c) the wavelength gets shorter
38) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave
a) has lower amplitude than the incident wave
b) both of these are true
c) has higher frequency than the incident wave
39) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have
a) reverberation instead of echo
b) both reverberation and echo
c) echo instead of reverberation
d) neither reverberation nor echo
40) These two pulses will collide and produce
a) positive interference
b) negative interference
c) negative diffraction
d) positive diffraction
41) These two pulses will collide and produce
a) negative interference
b) negative diffraction
c) positive interference
d) positive diffraction
42) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
a) octave
b) dissonance
c) fifth
43) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
a) octave
b) dissonance
c) fifth
44) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
a) fifth
b) dissonance
c) octave
45) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?
a) Echo usually stifles the beats
b) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
c) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
d) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard
46) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?
a) 30
b) 60
c) 20
d) 50
e) 40
47) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes
a) lower
b) higher
c) unchanged
48) Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
d) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
49) Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
50) In optics, normal means
a) perpendicular to the surface
b) to the left of the optical axis
c) to the right of the optical axis
d) parallel to the surface
51) The law of reflection applies to
a) curved surfaces
b) only light in a vacuum
c) both flat and curved surfaces
d) flat surfaces
e) telescopes but not microscopes
52) When light passes from air to glass
a) it bends away from the normal
b) it does not bend
c) the frequency decreases
d) it bends towards the normal
e) the frequency increases
53) When light passes from glass to air
a) the frequency decreases
b) the frequency increases
c) it does not bend
d) it bends towards the normal
e) it bends away from the normal
54) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is
a) total external refraction
b) total internal reflection
c) the invariance of the speed of light
d) partial internal absorption
e) the Doppler shift
55) The focal point is where
a) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
b) rays meet if they are parallel to each other
c) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
d) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
e) the center of the lens
56) Which lens has the shorter focal length?
a)
b)
c) They have the same focal lengh.
57) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?
a) at infinity
b) very far away
c) Two (of the other answers) are true
d) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
e) One focal length in front of the eye
58) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.
a) false
b) true
59) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?
a)
b)
c)
60) Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?
a) low mass
b) confinement to a small space
c) low speed
d) high speed
61) How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?
a) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits
b) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits
c) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.
d) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.
62) What are the units of Plank's constant?
a) energy x time
b) mass x velocity x distance
c) momentum x distance
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
63) What are the units of Plank's constant?
a) none of the above
b) all of the above
c) energy x time
d) momentum x distance x mass
e) mass x velocity
64) How would you describe Old Quantum Theory
a) neither complete nor self-consistent
b) complete but not self-consistent
c) complete and self-consistent
d) self-consistent but not complete
65) The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of
a) energy
b) electrons
c) light
d) protons
66) What are examples of energy?
a) all of the above
b) heat
c)
d) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height
67) What are examples of energy?
a) momentum
b) heat
c) all of the above
d)
68) What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?
a) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick
b) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct
c) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation
d) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize
69) What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?
a) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur
b) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.
c) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.
d) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.
70) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______
a) at a specific frequency
b) above a threshold wavelength
c) above a threshold intensity
d) above a threshold frequency
71) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______
a) above a threshold wavelength
b) at a specific frequency
c) above a threshold intensity
d) above a thresholdfrequency
72) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?
a) by measuring the wavelength of the light
b) by measuring the distance between the electrodes
c) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.
73) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before
a) the American revolution (1776)
b) the American civil war (1861)
c) World War I (1914)
74) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them
a) burned down
b) was transported to Germany
c) is still in use today
d) two of these are true
e) was sabotaged by workers
75) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to
a) weave cotton
b) remove seeds
c) pick cotton
d) clean cotton
e) spin cotton
76) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______
a) Coalopolis, coal mines
b) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
c) Weavopolis, Weaving factories
d) Cottonopolis, textile factories
77) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required
a) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.
b) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).
c) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.
78) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______
a) cheaper, hammering
b) faster, puddling
c) faster, hammering
d) cheaper, puddling
79) Puddling involved
a) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
b) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring
c) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
d) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
80) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by
a) water and steam.
b) water and wind.
c) steam and wind.
81) The Miner's Friend
a) transported miners
b) was electrical lighting
c) provided ventilation
d) pumped water
82) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to
a) shape plates for ship hulls
b) drill coal mines
c) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
d) plane rails for railroads
83) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by
a) replacing lead containers with glass containers
b) replacing iron containers with glass containers
c) replacing glass containers with lead containers
d) replacing glass containers with iron containers
84) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years
a) 500
b) 400
c) 200
d) 100
e) 300
85) Early uses for sulphuric acid included
a) making cement and bleaching cloth
b) producing dyes and making cement
c) producing dyes and bleaching cloth
d) removing rust and making cement
e) removing rust and bleaching cloth
86) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in
a) Sweden
b) Germany
c) United States
d) Italy
e) Great Britain
87) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was
a) military spending
b) farm equipment
c) railroads
d) ship building
e) textiles
88) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?
a) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.
b) the question is a subject of controversy
c) sustained growth, for the first time in history
d) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
89) The industrial revolution began in
a) Great Britain
b) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
c) United States
d) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
e) Germany
90) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?
a) iron making
b) assembly lines
c) textiles
d) steam power
91) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect
a) domestic cotton production
b) small manufacturers
c) large manufacturers
d) the woollen industry
92) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.
a) spinning, weaving, more
b) weaving, spinning, fewer
c) weaving, spinning, more
d) spinning, weaving, fewer
93) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.
a) spinning, weaving, fewer
b) weaving, spinning, fewer
c) weaving, spinning, more
d) spinning, weaving, more
94) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?
a) 63%
b) 3%
c) 33%
d) 13%
95) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because
a) neutrons are slow
b) neutrons permit induced radiation
c) neutrons are stable
96) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?
a) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
b) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
c) protons are positively charged
d) protons move at the speed of light
97) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______
a) "moonshine"; fast neutrons
b) slow neutrons; a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)
c) slow neutrons; "moonshine"
d) transuranic (heavy) elements; a new source of slow neutrons
98) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________
a) fission; hesparium
b) hesperium; fusion
c) fusion; hesparium
d) hesperium; fission
99) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?
a) they were developed simultaneously
b) nuclear power generation
c) nuclear weapons
100) The Manhattan project made
a) plutonium and enriched hesparium
b) uranium and enriched plutonium
c) plutonium and enriched uranium
101) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...
a) a world government to prevent nuclear war
b) nuclear war
c) that fossil fuels would go unused
d) widespread radiation poisoning
102) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was
a) a congressional committee
b) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
c) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
d) a protest movement centered in US universities
103) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in
a) Russia
b) Virginia
c) Great Britain
d) Oak Ridge
104) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was
a) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy
b) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
c) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
105) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?
a) unlikely
b) expected
c) likely
d) impossible
106) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years
a) false
b) true
107) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines
a) false
b) true
108) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia
a) true
b) false
109) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and
a) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
b) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)
c) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
d) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)
110) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.
a) comparable
b) more
c) less
111) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)
a) less
b) greater
c) about the same
112) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.
a) 90
b) 50
c) 10
113) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is
a) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.
b) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.
c) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.
d) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.
114) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______
a) early 20th century
b) early 19th century
c) late 19th century
115) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons
a) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
b) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price
c) are not radioactive
116) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was
a) what called neutrons
b) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
c) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
d) what he called alpha particles
117) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure
a) to reduce the heat required to boil it
b) to slow down the neutrons
c) to prevent it from boiling
d) only in the reactor core
118) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal
a) about the same as
b) 100 times more than
c) 10 times more than
d) 100 times less than
e) 10 times less than
119) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies
a) true
b) false
120) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico
a) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
b) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
c) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership
121) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium
a) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
b) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
c) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns
d) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states
122) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage
a) false
b) true
123) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage
a) false
b) true
124) Nuclear power plants typically have
a) high capital costs and high fuel costs
b) high capital costs and low fuel costs
c) low capital costs and high fuel costs
d) low capital costs and low fuel costs
125) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?
a) zero
b) from 0 to 1000
c) from 4000 to 25,000
126) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.
a) false
b) true
127) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years
a) false
b) true
128) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned
a) 6 months; 30%
b) 6 years; 30%
c) 6 years; 3%
d) 6 months; 3%
129) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries
a) false
b) true
130) The Megatons to Megawatts Program
a) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure
b) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
c) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
d) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure
131) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.
a) 5 months
b) 50 years
c) 5 years
132) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.
a) 4 times less common
b) 40 times more common
c) 40 times less common
d) 4 times more common
133) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are
a) considered impossible
b) are likely to emerge in the next few decades
c) are already in use
134) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium
a) 3%
b) 99%
c) 30%
d) 60%
e) 1 %
135) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly
a) false
b) true
136) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because
a) the isotopes are short-lived
b) they cannot be stored underground
c) the isotopes are long-lived
137) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material
144) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred
a) in the western hemisphere
b) near the poles
c) on the ocean surface
d) near the equator
145) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by
a) 60% of the academies of science
b) all but the US academy of science
c) all of the academies of science
d) 90% of the academies of science
146) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are
a) The United States has warmed more than Australia
b) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
c) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
d) all portions of Antarctica have warmed
149) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in
a) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
b) the sun's energy output
c) the world economy
d) the earth's distance from the sun
150) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.}
a) 0.07°C
b) 0.7°C
c) 7.0°C
151) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because
a) both of these are true
b) water tends to expand as it warms
c) ice and snow melts
152) What happens when water is heated?
a) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
b) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C
c) it absorbs CO2
153) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming
a) false
b) true
154) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.
a) false
b) true
155) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun
a) true
b) false
156) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to
a) 0.7 °C per century
b) 0.7 °C per decade
c) 0.7 °C per year
157) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was
a) half as much
b) twice as much
c) about the same
158) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was
a) about the same
b) half as much
c) twice as much
159) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.
a) 0%
b) 0.3%
c) 3%
d) 30%
160) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth
a)false
b) true
161) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.
a) false
b) true
162) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents
a) the Little Ice Age
b) the Medieval Warming Period
c) tree proxy measurements
d) thermometer measurements
e) a 10 year average
163) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)
a) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period
b) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
c) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
d) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements
164) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.
a) false
b) true
165) Emissions scenarios are
a) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases
b) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature
d) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
166) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.
a) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
b) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.
c) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.
168) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants
a) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
b) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
c) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming
169) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.
a) false
b) true
170) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.
a) true
b) false
171) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.
a) false
b) true
172) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.
a) true
b) false
173) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?
a) 0%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 30%
174) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere
a) true
b) false
175) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.
a) false
b) true
176) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere
a) false
b) true
177) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made
a) true
b) false
178) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.
a) false
b) true
179) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.
a) true
b) false
180) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?
a) orbital cycles
b) greenhouse gasses
c) volcanic eruptions
d) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)
181) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.
a) true
b) false
182) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.
a) true
b) false
183) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.
a) false
b) true
184) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.
a) true
b) false
185) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations
a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.
c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
186) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.
a) false
b) true
187) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in
a) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun
b) how much ice is melted during the summer months
c) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight
189) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.
a) false
b) true
190) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.
a) true
b) false
191) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?
a) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.
b) all of these are true
c) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
d) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
192) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet
a) true
b) false
193) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet
a) true
b) false
194) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.
a) true
b) false
195) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.
a) true
b) false
196) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.}
a) true
b) false
197) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.}
a) true
b) false
198) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.
a) false
b) true
199) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.
a) false
b) true
200) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to
204) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0: * Add 3 * If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10 * Stop if the number exceeds 100 * Go to top
a) false
b) true
205) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0: * Add 3 * If the number is divisible by 10, add 10 * Stop if the number exceeds 100 * Go to top
a) false
b) true
206) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to
a) control a telephone exchange
b) calculate the value of π
c) count votes in an election
d) control a textile mill
207) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.}
a) Turing-complete
b) electromechanical
c) electric digital programmable
d) mechanical
208) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was
a) mechanical
b) electric digital programmable
c) Turing-complete
d) electromechanical
209) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:
a) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
b) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
c) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
d) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
210) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.
a) false
b) true
211) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses
a) false
b) true
212) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.
a) true
b) false
213) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.
a) false
b) true
214) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer
a) false
b) true
215) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer
a) true
b) false
216) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)
a) true
b) false
217) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century
a) true
b) false
218) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) B: 000100
b) A: 000100
c) A: 000010
d) B: 000010
219) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
a) B: 000110
b) A: 001100
c) A: 000110
d) B: 000110
220) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) B: 001100
b) A: 001110
c) B: 000110
d) A: 000110
221) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) A: 001110
b) B: 000111
c) B: 001110
d) A: 001110
222) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) B: 011110
c) H: 011110
d) A: 011110
223) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) H: 011110
c) B: 011110
d) A: 011110
224) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.
a) true
b) false
225) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.
a) true
b) false
226) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.
a) true
b) false
227) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons. }
a) false
b) true
228) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.}
a) true
b) false
229) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.}
a) false
b) true
230) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
231) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
232) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek
a) true
b) false
233) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.
a) true
b) false
234) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______}
a) six months; 18 years
b) 7 days; one month
c) six months; 54 years
d) 34 days; six months
e) one month; 18 years
235) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?
a)15,000 years
b)30 years
c)3000 years
d)300 years
e)1500 years
236) A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
237) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.
a) false
b) true
238) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?
a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
b) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
c) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.
239) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately
a) 300-350 BC
b) 500-550 BC
c) 300-350 AD
d) 100-150 BC
240) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.
242) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?
a) Chemical analysis of the bronze.
b) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
c) The quality of its manufacture.
d) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.
243) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______
a) copper; as impurities that served little or no purpose.
b) iron; as impurities that served little or no purpose.
c) copper; to make it hard.
d) copper; to make it withstand corrosion.
244) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device
a) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
b) suggested that Roman technology was used.
c) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.
d) suggested that Greek technology was used.
245) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?
a) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.
b) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
c) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
d) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
246) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.
a) false
b) true
247) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later
a) 40
b) 15
c) 30
d) 10
248) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.
a) 2
b) 40
c) 10
d) 1
e) 20
249) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.
a) false
b) true
250) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.
a) false
b) true
251) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by
a) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
b) an unknown Babylonian
c) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)
d) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD)
252) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with
a) a wobble in the Moon's orbit
b) precession of the Moon's orbit
c) precession of the equinoxes
d) leap years
253) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)
a) season of the year
b) time of day
c) day of the month
254) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?
a) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
b) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
c) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
d) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day
255) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?
a) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
b) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
c) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
256) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later
a) 8
b) 30
c) 5
d) 15
257) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere
a) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.
b) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.
c) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.
d) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.
e) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.
258) , calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______
a) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
b) degrees per hour across the sky
c) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
d) degrees per day across the sky
259) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)
a) 0
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
e) 3
260) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.
a) true
b) false
261) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one
a) day
b) week
c) month
d) year
262) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac
a) true
b) false
263) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.
a) false
b) true
264) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.
a) true
b) false
265) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations
1) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?
-a) 5.0 meters
+b) 6.0 meters
-c) 3.0 meters
-d) 7.0 meters
-e) 4.0 meters
2) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?
-a) 7.0 meters
-b) 11.0 meters
-c) 8.0 meters
+d) 10.0 meters
-e) 9.0 meters
3) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?
+a) 12.0 meters
-b) 9.0 meters
-c) 8.0 meters
-d) 10.0 meters
-e) 11.0 meters
4) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
-a) 7.0 meters
-b) 8.0 meters
+c) 6.0 meters
-d) 5.0 meters
-e) 9.0 meters
5) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?
+a) 10.0 meters
-b) 9.0 meters
-c) 11.0 meters
-d) 8.0 meters
-e) 7.0 meters
6) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
-a) 19.0 meters
+b) 20.0 meters
-c) 23.0 meters
-d) 22.0 meters
-e) 21.0 meters
7) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?
-a) 4.0 meters
-b) 5.0 meters
-c) 6.0 meters
-d) 7.0 meters
+e) 3.0 meters
8) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?
+a) 9.0 meters
-b) 12.0 meters
-c) 8.0 meters
-d) 10.0 meters
-e) 11.0 meters
9) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
-a) 18.0 meters
+b) 16.0 meters
-c) 20.0 meters
-d) 19.0 meters
-e) 17.0 meters
10) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?
+a) 3.0 meters
-b) 1.0 meters
-c) 5.0 meters
-d) 2.0 meters
-e) 4.0 meters
11) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?
-a) 27.0 meters
+b) 24.0 meters
-c) 25.0 meters
-d) 23.0 meters
-e) 26.0 meters
12) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?
-a) 17.0 meters
-b) 14.0 meters
-c) 13.0 meters
-d) 15.0 meters
+e) 16.0 meters
13) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because
-a) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly
-b) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied
+c) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
14) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is
+a) down
-b) up
-c) zero
15) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is
-a) zero
+b) up
-c) down
16) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is
+a) down
-b) up
-c) zero
17) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is
+a) zero
-b) down
-c) up
18) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
+a) northwest
-b) northeast
-c) southwest
-d) south
-e) north
19) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
+a) northeast
-b) north
-c) south
-d) northwest
-e) southwest
20) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points
-a) southeast
-b) northeast
-c) northwest
-d) northeast
+e) north
21) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points
-a) south
-b) northeast
+c) north
-d) southwest
-e) northwest
22) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
-a) west
-b) south
+c) southwest
-d) northwest
-e) southeast
23) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points
+a) southeast
-b) northwest
-c) northeast
-d) south
-e) north
24) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is
-a) to the west
+b) to the east
-c) zero
25) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is
-a) zero
+b) to the west
-c) to the east
26) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is
+a) to the east
-b) to the west
-c) zero
27) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is
-a) zero
-b) up
+c) down
28) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is
-a) zero
-b) east
-c) north
+d) west
-e) south
29) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is
-a) north
-b) south
+c) east
-d) zero
-e) west
30) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is
-a) zero
-b) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
+c) towards Earth
-d) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
-e) away from Earth
31) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is
-a) zero
+b) down
-c) up
32) These two pulses will collide and produce
-a) negative interference
-b) negative diffraction
+c) positive interference
-d) positive diffraction
33) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes
+a) higher
-b) lower
-c) unchanged
34) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?
+a) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
-b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
-c) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.
35) People don't usually perceive an echo when
-a) it arrives at a higher pitch
+b) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound
-c) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
-d) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
-e) it arrives at a lower pitch
36) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,
+a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
-b) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
-c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
-d) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
37) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?
-a) the wavelength gets shorter
+b) the wavelength gets longer
-c) the wavelength stays the same
38) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave
-a) has higher frequency than the incident wave
-b) both of these are true
+c) has lower amplitude than the incident wave
39) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have
-a) neither reverberation nor echo
-b) both reverberation and echo
+c) reverberation instead of echo
-d) echo instead of reverberation
40) These two pulses will collide and produce
-a) positive diffraction
-b) positive interference
-c) negative diffraction
+d) negative interference
41) These two pulses will collide and produce
-a) positive diffraction
-b) negative diffraction
+c) positive interference
-d) negative interference
42) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
-a) dissonance
-b) fifth
+c) octave
43) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
+a) dissonance
-b) fifth
-c) octave
44) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
-a) octave
+b) fifth
-c) dissonance
45) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?
-a) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
-b) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard
+c) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
-d) Echo usually stifles the beats
46) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?
-a) 30
-b) 40
-c) 60
-d) 50
+e) 20
47) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes
-a) unchanged
+b) higher
-c) lower
48) Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
-a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
-b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
-c) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
+d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
49) Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
-a) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
-b) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
-c) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
+d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
50) In optics, normal means
-a) to the left of the optical axis
-b) parallel to the surface
-c) to the right of the optical axis
+d) perpendicular to the surface
51) The law of reflection applies to
+a) both flat and curved surfaces
-b) curved surfaces
-c) telescopes but not microscopes
-d) only light in a vacuum
-e) flat surfaces
52) When light passes from air to glass
-a) it does not bend
-b) the frequency decreases
-c) the frequency increases
-d) it bends away from the normal
+e) it bends towards the normal
53) When light passes from glass to air
-a) the frequency increases
-b) the frequency decreases
-c) it bends towards the normal
+d) it bends away from the normal
-e) it does not bend
54) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is
-a) the invariance of the speed of light
+b) total internal reflection
-c) the Doppler shift
-d) partial internal absorption
-e) total external refraction
55) The focal point is where
-a) rays meet if they are parallel to each other
-b) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
-c) the center of the lens
+d) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
-e) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
56) Which lens has the shorter focal length?
-a) They have the same focal lengh.
-b)
+c)
57) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?
-a) at infinity
-b) very far away
-c) One focal length in front of the eye
+d) Two (of the other answers) are true
-e) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
58) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.
+a) false
-b) true
59) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?
-a)
+b)
-c)
60) Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?
-a) low speed
+b) high speed
-c) confinement to a small space
-d) low mass
61) How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?
-a) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits
+b) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits
-c) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.
-d) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.
62) What are the units of Plank's constant?
+a) all of the above
-b) momentum x distance
-c) mass x velocity x distance
-d) none of the above
-e) energy x time
63) What are the units of Plank's constant?
+a) all of the above
-b) none of the above
-c) mass x velocity
-d) momentum x distance x mass
-e) energy x time
64) How would you describe Old Quantum Theory
-a) complete and self-consistent
+b) neither complete nor self-consistent
-c) complete but not self-consistent
-d) self-consistent but not complete
65) The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of
+a) light
-b) energy
-c) protons
-d) electrons
66) What are examples of energy?
-a)
-b) heat
-c) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height
+d) all of the above
67) What are examples of energy?
-a) heat
-b)
-c) momentum
+d) all of the above
68) What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?
+a) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick
-b) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct
-c) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation
-d) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize
69) What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?
-a) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur
-b) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.
-c) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.
+d) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.
70) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______
-a) above a threshold wavelength
-b) above a threshold frequency
+c) above a threshold intensity
-d) at a specific frequency
71) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______
-a) above a threshold intensity
-b) above a threshold wavelength
+c) at a specific frequency
-d) above a thresholdfrequency
72) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?
-a) by measuring the wavelength of the light
+b) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.
-c) by measuring the distance between the electrodes
73) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before
-a) World War I (1914)
+b) the American revolution (1776)
-c) the American civil war (1861)
74) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them
-a) burned down
+b) two of these are true
-c) is still in use today
-d) was sabotaged by workers
-e) was transported to Germany
75) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to
+a) remove seeds
-b) clean cotton
-c) spin cotton
-d) pick cotton
-e) weave cotton
76) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______
-a) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
-b) Weavopolis, Weaving factories
+c) Cottonopolis, textile factories
-d) Coalopolis, coal mines
77) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required
+a) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.
-b) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).
-c) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.
78) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______
-a) cheaper, puddling
-b) cheaper, hammering
-c) faster, puddling
+d) faster, hammering
79) Puddling involved
-a) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
-b) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring
+c) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
-d) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
80) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by
-a) steam and wind.
+b) water and wind.
-c) water and steam.
81) The Miner's Friend
+a) pumped water
-b) provided ventilation
-c) was electrical lighting
-d) transported miners
82) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to
-a) shape plates for ship hulls
-b) drill coal mines
+c) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
-d) plane rails for railroads
83) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by
+a) replacing glass containers with lead containers
-b) replacing lead containers with glass containers
-c) replacing iron containers with glass containers
-d) replacing glass containers with iron containers
84) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years
+a) 100
-b) 200
-c) 300
-d) 500
-e) 400
85) Early uses for sulphuric acid included
-a) producing dyes and making cement
-b) removing rust and making cement
-c) making cement and bleaching cloth
-d) producing dyes and bleaching cloth
+e) removing rust and bleaching cloth
86) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in
-a) United States
-b) Sweden
-c) Italy
+d) Germany
-e) Great Britain
87) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was
-a) ship building
-b) railroads
+c) textiles
-d) farm equipment
-e) military spending
88) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?
-a) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.
-b) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
+c) the question is a subject of controversy
-d) sustained growth, for the first time in history
89) The industrial revolution began in
+a) Great Britain
-b) Germany
-c) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
-d) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
-e) United States
90) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?
-a) steam power
+b) assembly lines
-c) textiles
-d) iron making
91) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect
-a) domestic cotton production
+b) the woollen industry
-c) large manufacturers
-d) small manufacturers
92) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.
-a) weaving, spinning, more
-b) spinning, weaving, fewer
-c) weaving, spinning, fewer
+d) spinning, weaving, more
93) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.
-a) spinning, weaving, fewer
-b) weaving, spinning, more
-c) spinning, weaving, more
+d) weaving, spinning, fewer
94) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?
-a) 3%
+b) 13%
-c) 33%
-d) 63%
95) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because
-a) neutrons are stable
-b) neutrons are slow
+c) neutrons permit induced radiation
96) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?
-a) protons move at the speed of light
-b) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
+c) protons are positively charged
-d) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
97) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______
-a) "moonshine"; fast neutrons
-b) transuranic (heavy) elements; a new source of slow neutrons
-c) slow neutrons; "moonshine"
+d) slow neutrons; a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)
98) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________
-a) hesperium; fusion
+b) hesperium; fission
-c) fusion; hesparium
-d) fission; hesparium
99) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?
-a) nuclear power generation
-b) they were developed simultaneously
+c) nuclear weapons
100) The Manhattan project made
+a) plutonium and enriched uranium
-b) plutonium and enriched hesparium
-c) uranium and enriched plutonium
101) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...
-a) widespread radiation poisoning
-b) a world government to prevent nuclear war
+c) that fossil fuels would go unused
-d) nuclear war
102) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was
+a) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
-b) a congressional committee
-c) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
-d) a protest movement centered in US universities
103) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in
+a) Russia
-b) Oak Ridge
-c) Virginia
-d) Great Britain
104) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was
-a) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy
+b) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
-c) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
105) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?
-a) expected
-b) likely
+c) unlikely
-d) impossible
106) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years
-a) false
+b) true
107) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines
+a) false
-b) true
108) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia
-a) true
+b) false
109) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and
-a) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
-b) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)
+c) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
-d) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)
110) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.
-a) less
+b) comparable
-c) more
111) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)
+a) about the same
-b) greater
-c) less
112) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.
+a) 50
-b) 10
-c) 90
113) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is
+a) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.
-b) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.
-c) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.
-d) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.
114) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______
-a) late 19th century
+b) early 20th century
-c) early 19th century
115) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons
-a) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
+b) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price
-c) are not radioactive
116) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was
-a) what he called alpha particles
+b) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
-c) what called neutrons
-d) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
117) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure
-a) only in the reactor core
+b) to prevent it from boiling
-c) to reduce the heat required to boil it
-d) to slow down the neutrons
118) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal
-a) 10 times less than
-b) about the same as
-c) 100 times more than
+d) 100 times less than
-e) 10 times more than
119) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies
-a) true
+b) false
120) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico
-a) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership
+b) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
-c) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
121) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium
-a) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states
-b) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
+c) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns
-d) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
122) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage
+a) false
-b) true
123) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage
+a) true
-b) false
124) Nuclear power plants typically have
-a) low capital costs and low fuel costs
-b) low capital costs and high fuel costs
-c) high capital costs and high fuel costs
+d) high capital costs and low fuel costs
125) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?
-a) from 4000 to 25,000
-b) from 0 to 1000
+c) zero
126) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.
-a) false
+b) true
127) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years
-a) true
+b) false
128) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned
-a) 6 months; 3%
+b) 6 years; 3%
-c) 6 years; 30%
-d) 6 months; 30%
129) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries
-a) false
+b) true
130) The Megatons to Megawatts Program
-a) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure
-b) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure
+c) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
-d) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
131) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.
-a) 50 years
+b) 5 years
-c) 5 months
132) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.
+a) 40 times more common
-b) 40 times less common
-c) 4 times less common
-d) 4 times more common
133) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are
-a) considered impossible
+b) are already in use
-c) are likely to emerge in the next few decades
134) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium
-a) 60%
-b) 30%
-c) 1 %
-d) 3%
+e) 99%
135) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly
-a) true
+b) false
136) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because
+a) the isotopes are long-lived
-b) they cannot be stored underground
-c) the isotopes are short-lived
137) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material
144) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred
+a) near the poles
-b) in the western hemisphere
-c) on the ocean surface
-d) near the equator
145) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by
-a) 60% of the academies of science
-b) all but the US academy of science
+c) all of the academies of science
-d) 90% of the academies of science
146) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are
-a) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
+b) all portions of Antarctica have warmed
-c) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
-d) The United States has warmed more than Australia
149) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in
-a) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
+b) the world economy
-c) the earth's distance from the sun
-d) the sun's energy output
150) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.}
-a) 0.7°C
-b) 7.0°C
+c) 0.07°C
151) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because
+a) both of these are true
-b) water tends to expand as it warms
-c) ice and snow melts
152) What happens when water is heated?
+a) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C
-b) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
-c) it absorbs CO2
153) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming
+a) false
-b) true
154) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.
+a) true
-b) false
155) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun
+a) false
-b) true
156) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to
-a) 0.7 °C per decade
-b) 0.7 °C per year
+c) 0.7 °C per century
157) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was
+a) twice as much
-b) about the same
-c) half as much
158) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was
+a) half as much
-b) about the same
-c) twice as much
159) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.
-a) 0%
-b) 0.3%
+c) 3%
-d) 30%
160) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth
-a)false
+b) true
161) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.
-a) true
+b) false
162) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents
-a) the Medieval Warming Period
-b) the Little Ice Age
+c) thermometer measurements
-d) a 10 year average
-e) tree proxy measurements
163) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)
-a) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements
+b) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
-c) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period
-d) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
164) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.
-a) true
+b) false
165) Emissions scenarios are
-a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
-b) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
-c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature
+d) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases
166) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.
-a) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.
-b) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.
+c) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
168) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants
-a) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming
+b) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
-c) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
169) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.
+a) false
-b) true
170) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.
+a) true
-b) false
171) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.
-a) true
+b) false
172) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.
+a) true
-b) false
173) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?
-a) 50%
-b) 30%
+c) 0%
-d) 10%
174) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere
+a) true
-b) false
175) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.
+a) true
-b) false
176) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere
-a) true
+b) false
177) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made
+a) true
-b) false
178) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.
+a) false
-b) true
179) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.
+a) true
-b) false
180) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?
-a) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)
-b) greenhouse gasses
+c) orbital cycles
-d) volcanic eruptions
181) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.
+a) false
-b) true
182) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.
-a) true
+b) false
183) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.
+a) true
-b) false
184) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.
+a) false
-b) true
185) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations
-a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.
+b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
-c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
186) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.
-a) true
+b) false
187) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in
+a) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight
-b) how much ice is melted during the summer months
189) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.
-a) false
+b) true
190) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.
+a) false
-b) true
191) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?
-a) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.
+b) all of these are true
-c) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
-d) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
192) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet
+a) true
-b) false
193) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet
-a) true
+b) false
194) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.
+a) true
-b) false
195) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.
+a) false
-b) true
196) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.}
+a) false
-b) true
197) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.}
+a) false
-b) true
198) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.
-a) true
+b) false
199) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.
-a) false
+b) true
200) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to
204) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0: * Add 3 * If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10 * Stop if the number exceeds 100 * Go to top
-a) true
+b) false
205) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0: * Add 3 * If the number is divisible by 10, add 10 * Stop if the number exceeds 100 * Go to top
-a) false
+b) true
206) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to
-a) control a textile mill
-b) count votes in an election
+c) control a telephone exchange
-d) calculate the value of π
207) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.}
-a) mechanical
-b) electric digital programmable
-c) Turing-complete
+d) electromechanical
208) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was
-a) mechanical
+b) electric digital programmable
-c) electromechanical
-d) Turing-complete
209) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:
+a) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
-b) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
-c) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
-d) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
210) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.
+a) true
-b) false
211) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses
+a) false
-b) true
212) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.
+a) false
-b) true
213) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.
+a) true
-b) false
214) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer
-a) false
+b) true
215) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer
-a) true
+b) false
216) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)
-a) true
+b) false
217) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century
-a) false
+b) true
218) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
-a) A: 000100
+b) B: 000100
-c) A: 000010
-d) B: 000010
219) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
-a) A: 001100
+b) A: 000110
-c) B: 000110
-d) B: 000110
220) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
-a) B: 001100
+b) B: 000110
-c) A: 000110
-d) A: 001110
221) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
-a) A: 001110
-b) B: 001110
+c) A: 001110
-d) B: 000111
222) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
-a) A: 011110
-b) H: 011110
+c) B: 011110
-d) H: 011110
223) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
-a) B: 011110
-b) H: 011110
+c) H: 011110
-d) A: 011110
224) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.
+a) true
-b) false
225) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.
+a) true
-b) false
226) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.
-a) true
+b) false
227) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons. }
-a) false
+b) true
228) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.}
+a) false
-b) true
229) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.}
-a) true
+b) false
230) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years
-a) 4
-b) 1
-c) 2
+d) 3
231) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years
+a) 2
-b) 1
-c) 4
-d) 3
232) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek
+a) true
-b) false
233) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.
-a) true
+b) false
234) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______}
+a) 34 days; six months
-b) 7 days; one month
-c) one month; 18 years
-d) six months; 54 years
-e) six months; 18 years
235) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?
-a)30 years
-b)15,000 years
+c)1500 years
-d)300 years
-e)3000 years
236) A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
237) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.
+a) true
-b) false
238) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?
-a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
+b) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
-c) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.
239) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately
-a) 300-350 BC
+b) 100-150 BC
-c) 300-350 AD
-d) 500-550 BC
240) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.
242) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?
-a) Chemical analysis of the bronze.
-b) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.
+c) The quality of its manufacture.
-d) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
243) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______
-a) copper; as impurities that served little or no purpose.
-b) copper; to make it withstand corrosion.
+c) copper; to make it hard.
-d) iron; as impurities that served little or no purpose.
244) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device
+a) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.
-b) suggested that Greek technology was used.
-c) suggested that Roman technology was used.
-d) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
245) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?
-a) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
-b) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.
-c) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
+d) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
246) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.
-a) true
+b) false
247) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later
-a) 40
-b) 15
-c) 10
+d) 30
248) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.
-a) 2
-b) 10
+c) 40
-d) 1
-e) 20
249) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.
-a) false
+b) true
250) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.
-a) false
+b) true
251) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by
-a) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD)
+b) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
-c) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)
-d) an unknown Babylonian
252) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with
-a) a wobble in the Moon's orbit
+b) leap years
-c) precession of the equinoxes
-d) precession of the Moon's orbit
253) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)
-a) time of day
+b) season of the year
-c) day of the month
254) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?
-a) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
+b) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day
-c) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
-d) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
255) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?
-a) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
+b) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
-c) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
256) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later
-a) 8
-b) 5
-c) 30
+d) 15
257) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere
-a) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.
+b) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.
-c) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.
-d) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.
-e) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.
258) , calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______
+a) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
-b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
-c) degrees per day across the sky
-d) degrees per hour across the sky
259) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)
-a) 1
+b) 2
-c) 4
-d) 3
-e) 0
260) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.
+a) true
-b) false
261) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one
+a) day
-b) year
-c) month
-d) week
262) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac
+a) false
-b) true
263) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.
-a) false
+b) true
264) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.
-a) true
+b) false
265) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations
↑_{Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?}
↑_{If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______}
↑_{The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.}
These two pulses will collide and produce
These two pulses will collide and produce
These two pulses will collide and produce
Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
Two signals (dashed) add to a solid
If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?
These two pulses will collide and produce}
