# User:Guy vandegrift/Quizbank/Archive1/Entire bank

Note: Most of the questions in this bank that require calculation come in ten or more versions with randomized numerical values.
all20160717T182324

## Contents

### Entire testbank

all20160717T182324

1) ____ motion is in the usual direction, and _______ is motion that has temporarily reversed itself.

a) direct; elliptical
e) indirect; direct

2) Under what conditions would a planet not seem to rise in the east and set in the west?

a) if the observer is near the north or south poles
b) if the planet is in direct motion
c) if the planet is in retrograde motion
d) if the observer is below the equator
e) if the planet is in elliptical motion

3) When the faster moving Earth overtakes a slower planet outside Earth's orbit

a) tidal forces can be observed on Earth
c) two of these are true
d) tidal forces can be observed on the planet
e) all of these are true

4) Which planet spends more days in a given retrograde?

a) Saturn
b) It depends on the season
c) Earth
d) Mars
e) They are all equal

5) Which planet has more days between two consecutive retrogrades?

a) Mars
b) Earth
c) It depends on the season
d) They are all equal
e) Saturn

6) A planet that is very, very far from the Sun would be in retrograde for approximately ___ months.

a) 3
b) 1
c) 6
d) 24
e) 12

7) If a planet that is very, very far from the Sun begins a retrograde, how many months must pass before it begins the next retrograde?

a) 12
b) 3
c) 1
d) 24
e) 6

8) Planet comes from the Greek word for 'wanderer'.

a) true
b) false

9) We know that Galileo saw Neptune, but is not credited with its discovery because

a) it was in a transition between retrograde and direct motion
b) he thought it was a moon of Saturn
c) he never published his drawing
d) it was too faint to be worth drawing
e) none of these are true

10) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about an individual molecule. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which has the greater escape velocity?

a) all molecules move at the escape velocity
b) the heavier molecule has the greater escape velocity
c) no molecules have escape velocity
d) all molecules have the same escape velocity
e) the lighter molecule has the greater escape velocity

11) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about a typical molecule in the gas. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which type of gas is more likely to escape?

a) atoms in a hotter gas is more likely to escape
b) atoms in a denser gas are more likely to escape
c) atoms in a colder gas are more likely to escape
d) all types of gas are equally likely to escape
e) atoms in a gas with more atomic mass are more likely to escape

12) Which type of gas is likely to have the faster particles?

a) a hot gas with low mass atoms
b) a hot gas with high mass atoms
c) all gasses on a given planet have the same speed
d) a cold gas with low mass atoms
e) a cold gas with high mass atoms

13) What is it about the isotopes of Argon-36 and Argon-38 that causes their relative abundance to be so unusual on Mars?

a) different chemical properties
b) identical abundance
c) identical mass
d) different half-life
e) different speed

14) In the formula, ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }v_{\mathrm {escape} }^{2}=G_{\mathrm {Newton} }{\frac {M_{\mathrm {planet} }m_{\mathrm {atom} }}{r_{\mathrm {planet} }}}}$, which of the following is FALSE?

a) the formula is valid only if the particle is launched from the surface of planet of radius rplanet
b) the formula can be used to estimate how fast an atom must move before exiting the planet
c) vescape is independent of matom
d) the formula is valid for all launch angles
e) the particle is assumed to have been launched vertically

15) What statement is FALSE about ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T}$?

a) This equation does not involve the size or mass of the planet.
b) Temperature is measured in Centigrades
c) Temperature is measured in Kelvins
d) The average speed of a low mass particle is higher than the average speed of a high mass particle
e) The kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature.

16) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T}$, where T is temperature on the Kelvin scale. This formula describes:

a) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the atom.
b) The speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.
c) The speed an atom needs to orbit the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.
d) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the planet.
e) The the speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass planet.

17) The trip by New Horizons from Earth to Pluto took almost a

a) week
b) century
c) year
e) month

18) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed in order to learn something about Pluto's

a) size
b) atmosphere
c) mass

19) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed

a) from the Hubble Space Telescope in 1998
b) from the Keck Observatory in 1994
c) from the 200 inch Hale Telescope in 1968
d) from a cargo plane in 1988

20) A stellar occultation occurs when a planet passes in front of a star

a) false
b) true

21) A stellar occultation occurs when the north or south pole of a planet is aligned with a star

a) true
b) false

22) Stellar occultation tells something about a planet because

a) the orientation of the planet's rotation about its axis can be precisely determined
b) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are emission lines
c) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are absorption lines
d) blocking the nearby stars allows a better view of the planet

23) Silicon carbide was used to construct the telescope LORRI because this material is

a) strong
b) all of these
c) not prone to warp at low temperature
d) light

24) The darker portions of Pluto are believe to be from "snowflakes" of

a) silicates
b) water
c) hydrocarbons
d) nitrogen

25) "Pepssi", "Rex", "Swap", "Lorri", "Alice" and "Ralf" are

a) the people responsible for calculating the orbit of New Horizon
b) Kuiper objects discovered by New Horizon
c) named after friends of the cartoon charactor 'Pluto'
d) asteroids discovered by New Horizon
e) instruments on the New Horizon

26) What was the concern about taking a telescope/camera to the cold environment near Pluto?

a) the the mirror might crack
b) the plates might crack
c) the telescope might bend
d) the electronics might fail

27) As New Horizon's approaches Jupiter, it was essential that

a) avoid going into the rings of Jupiter
b) avoid hitting the moons of Jupiter
c) it approach Jupiter closely enough for Jupiter's gravity to pull New Horizons to a 20% higher speed

28) The time to reach __________ was shortened from 9 days to 3 hours due to the speed of the rocket that delivered New Horizons

a) the asteroid belt
b) Jupiter
c) Mars
d) the Moon

29) While close to Jupiter, New Horizons the most spectacular image was of

a) a newly discovered moon
b) a live volcano
c) the great red spot
d) Jupiter's rings

30) The Kuiper belt has been described as a ___________ made of ___________

a) deep freeze ... rock and metal
b) deep freeze ... rock and ice
c) mystery band ... rock and metal
d) mystery band ... rock and ice

31) For most of its nine-year journey, it was asleep, but once a week, the New Horizon's spacecraft

b) photographed EARTH
c) called MOM
d) photographed PLUTO

32) Clyde Tombaugh, who discovered Pluto back in the 1930s

a) had resigned from a position at Yale to focus his efforts on discovering "Planet X"
b) was self educated
c) privately funded the Lowell observatory

33) Clyde Tombaugh's reward for discovering Pluto was

a) a Nobel prize
b) an invitation to teach at Yale
c) a college education

a) the atmosphere around an object with the object itself
b) the size of two different objects
c) the location of an object on two different days

35) A typical average radio station uses 50,000 watts to transmit a signal. The transmitter on New Horizons used

a) 5 thousand times more power
b) 5 times more power
c) 5 thousand times less power
d) 5 times less power
e) almost the same amount of power

36) Mike Brown's search for another Pluto-like object eventually led to the discovery of Eris in 2005. What was the first clue that Eris was larger than Pluto?

a) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that quickly
b) It was brighter in the sky than Pluto
c) it had a surprisingly large influence on Pluto's orbit
d) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that slowly

37) Pluto ceased to be called a planet in 2006, after the IAU defined a planet of our Sun as an object that is (1) in orbit around the Sun, (2) roughly spherical due to it's mass, and (3):

a) is more massive than Mercury
b) has cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.
c) has a nearly circular orbit
d) is larger than Earth's moon
e) lies in the same plane as the other nine planets

38) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually pushes Pluto away

a) false
b) true

39) When the discovery of the "ninth planet" was made in 1930, the name Pluto was chosen after a cartoon that was a common childhood experience shared by most astronomers of the day

a) false
b) true

40) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually brings Pluto closer

a) true
b) false

41) Which was NOT listed as one of the three things commonly considered necessary for the formation of life?

a) water
b) organic matter
c) sunlight
d) energy

42) As New Horizon approached Jupiter, it looked for new Moons, and the ground crew was glad that

a) there were no new moons because moons are debris generators
b) there were no new moons because moons are capable of capturing spacecraft
c) the New Horizon discovered three new moons
43)
The image to the right corresponds to
a)
b)
44)
The image to the right corresponds to
a)
b)
45)
These two images of Pluto represent:
a) New Horizon and the Hubble Space Telescope
b) raw and processed images
c) New Horizon near Earth and mid-way to Pluto
d) a land-based telescope and the Hubble Space Telescope
e) New Horizon mid-way to Pluto and near Pluto

46) The atmosphere of Pluto

a) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from the Moons
b) emerges when the surface thaws as it approaches the Sun
c) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Neptune
d) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Jupiter
e) is mostly oxygen

47) Energy for the New Horizon is provided by

a) solar power
b) nuclear power
c) lithium batteries
d) fuel cells

48) As it approached Pluto, New Horizon was slightly larger than

a) a grand piano
b) the Hubble Space Telescope
c) a 10 story building

49) How does the density of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from Jupiter?

a) the less dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
b) the more dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
c) all the moons have nearly the same density
d) the density of the moons is unknown
e) the most dense moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

50) How does the mass of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from the central body?

a) the less massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
b) all the moons have nearly the same mass
c) the mass of the moons is unknown
d) the more massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
e) the most massive moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

51) Does Jupiter's moon Io have craters?

a) no, the surface is too new
b) yes, from impacts
c) no, the surface is too old
d) yes, from volcanoes
e) yes, about half from impacts and the others from volcanoes

52) The mechanism that heats the cores of the Galilean moons is

a) radiation from the Sun and from Jupiter
b) radioactive decay of heavy elements
c) tides from Jupiter
d) tides from the other moons and Jupiter

53) Immediately after publication of Newton's laws of physics (Principia), it was possible to "calculate" the mass of Jupiter. What important caveat applied to this calculation?

a) The different moons yielded slightly different values for the mass of Jupiter.
b) They needed to wait over a decade for Jupiter to make approximately one revolution around the Sun.
c) Only the mass of Jupiter relative to that of the Sun could be determined.
d) The different moons yielded vastly different values for the mass of Jupiter.
e) tides from the other moons and Jupiter.

54) Ganymede, Europa, and Io have ratios in __________ that are 1:2:4.

a) rotational period
b) orbital period
c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
d) Argon isotope abundance
e) density

55) Which of Jupiter's moons has an anhydrous core?

a) Io
b) Ganymede
c) Europa
d) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
e) Ganymede
56)

The black spot in this image of Jupiter is
a) the shadow of a moon
b) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
c) a solar eclipse
d) a magnetic storm
e) an electric storm

57) Although there is some doubt as to who discovered Jupiter's great red spot, it is generally credited to

a) Tycho in
b) Cassini in 1665
c) Newton in 1668
d) Galileo in 1605
e) Messier in 1771

58) The bands in the atmosphere of Jupiter are associated with a patter of alternating wind velocities that are

a) updrafts and downdrafts
b) both of these
c) easterly and westerly

59) As one descends down to Jupiter's core, the temperature

a) decreases
b) increases

60) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Jupiter is the largest known planet
b) Jupiter emits more energy than it receives from the Sun
c) Jupiter has a system of rings
d) The Great Red Spot is a storm that has raged for over 300 years
e) Jupiter has four large moons and many smaller ones

61) What is the mechanism that heats the interior of Jupiter?

a) magnetism
b) tides
c) rain
e) electricity

62) Why is Jupiter an oblate spheroid?

a) tides from the Sun
b) tides from other gas planets
d) tides from the Jupiter's moons
e) revolution around Sun

63) What statement best describes the Wikipedia's explanation of the helium (He) content of Jupiter's upper atmosphere (relative to the hydrogen (H) content)?

a) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He escaped into space.
b) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen escaped into space.
c) Jupiter and the Sun have nearly the same ratio of He to H.
d) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen fell to the core.
e) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He fell to the core.

64) Where is the Sun-Jupiter barycenter?

a) Just above Jupiter's surface
b) Just above the Sun's surface
c) At the center of Jupiter
d) The question remains unresolved
e) At the center of the Sun

65) The barycenter of two otherwise isolated celestial bodies is?

a) the focal point of two elliptical orbital paths
b) a place where two bodies exert equal and opposite gravitational forces
c) both of these are true

66) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the total mass

a) FALSE
b) TRUE

67) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the ratio of the two masses

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

68) Kepler began his career as a teacher of

a) philosophy
b) history
c) mathematics
d) astronomy
e) theology

69) As a child, Kepler's interest in astronomy grew as a result of

a) a lunar eclipse
b) two of these
c) watching his uncle make a telescope
d) a comet
e) a solar eclipse

70) When Kepler's studies at the university were over, what he really wanted to do was

a) visit Rome
b) become a minister
c) work with Tycho
d) visit Athens
e) work with Newton

71) Which of the following is NOT associated with Kepler's Laws

a) circular motions with epicycles
b) planets farther from the Sun have longer orbital periods.
c) Earth orbits the sun
d) elliptical paths for the planets
e) planets speed up as they approach the sun

72) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated at one focal point of the ellipse

a) false
b) true

73) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated midway between the two focal points of the ellipse

a) false
b) true

74) Newton was able to use the motion of the Moon to calculate the universal constant of gravity, G

a) true
b) false

75) The force of (gravitational) attraction between you and a friend is small because neither of you possess significant mass

a) true
b) false

76) Cavendish finally measured G by carefully weighing the force between

a) Earth and Sun
b) Jupiter and moons
c) Sun and Moon
d) Earth and Moon

77) Kepler is also known for his improvements to

a) the telescope
b) Ptolemy's star charts
c) translations of the Bible
d) the abacus
e) a perpetual motion machine

78) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

a) true
b) false

79) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of mathematics

a) false
b) true

80) In Kepler's era, astronomy closely linked to astrology

a) false
b) true

81) In Kepler's era, physics (how and why things moved) was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

a) true
b) false

82) Kepler incorporated religious arguments and reasoning into his work

a) false
b) true

83) Kepler avoided religious arguments and reasoning in his work

a) true
b) false

84) How would one describe the status of Kepler's family when he was a child?

a) wealth and of noble birth
b) of noble birth, but in poverty
c) his father and grandfather were scientists
d) neither wealthy nor of noble birth
e) wealthy but not of noble birth

85) At 6am a waning crescent moon would be}

a) below the western horizon
b) eastern horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
d) high in western sky
e) high in eastern sky

86) At 3pm a third quarter moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
d) below the western horizon
e) high in eastern sky

87) At noon a waning crescent moon would be}

b) high in eastern sky
d) high in western sky
e) eastern horizon

88) At 9pm a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
b) western horizon
c) below the western horizon
d) high in eastern sky

89) At 9am a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) below the western horizon

90) At 3am a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) below the western horizon
b) high in western sky
d) below the eastern horizon

91) At 3am a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) high in western sky
b) western horizon
e) eastern horizon

92) At 9am a third quarter moon would be}

a) high in western sky
b) western horizon
d) below the eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

93) At 9pm a 1st quarter moon would be}

a) high in eastern sky
b) below the western horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) high in western sky

94) At 3pm a new moon would be}

a) high in eastern sky
c) below the eastern horizon
e) high in western sky

95) At 3pm a waning crescent moon would be}

a) western horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) high in western sky

96) At 9pm a waxing gibbous moon would be}

b) below the western horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
e) high in western sky

97) At 3pm a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
b) high in eastern sky
c) high in western sky
d) below the western horizon
e) below the eastern horizon

98) At midnight a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) high in western sky
b) eastern horizon
c) western horizon
d) below the western horizon
e) high in eastern sky

99) At 6am a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon
c) eastern horizon
e) below the western horizon

100) At 9pm a new moon would be}

a) western horizon
b) high in western sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) below the western horizon

101) At 9pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) high in eastern sky
b) eastern horizon
c) below the western horizon
d) high in western sky

102) At 3am a 1st quarter moon would be}

a) high in western sky
c) below the western horizon
d) eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

103) At 3pm a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) high in eastern sky
b) eastern horizon
c) below the eastern horizon

104) At 9am a new moon would be}

a) high in western sky
b) below the western horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) eastern horizon

105) At 9am a waning crescent moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
c) below the eastern horizon
d) western horizon

106) At 9am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

b) high in western sky
c) high in eastern sky
d) eastern horizon
e) western horizon

107) At 3am a waning crescent moon would be}

a) western horizon
b) high in eastern sky
e) eastern horizon

108) At midnight a waning crescent moon would be}

a) western horizon
c) below the western horizon
e) below the eastern horizon

109) At 9pm a full moon would be}

b) high in eastern sky
c) eastern horizon
e) below the western horizon

110) At 6am a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon
b) below the western horizon
c) high in western sky
d) eastern horizon

111) At 3pm a full moon would be}

a) western horizon
b) high in eastern sky
c) below the eastern horizon
d) below the western horizon

112) At midnight a waxing gibbous moon would be}

b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) high in western sky
e) below the western horizon

113) At 9am a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) high in western sky
c) high in eastern sky
e) western horizon

114) At 3am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) high in western sky
c) below the eastern horizon
d) western horizon

115) At 6pm a waning crescent moon would be}

a) below the western horizon
b) below the eastern horizon
c) western horizon
e) eastern horizon

116) At 3am a new moon would be}

c) eastern horizon
d) below the eastern horizon
e) high in eastern sky

117) At noon a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) high in eastern sky
b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in western sky

118) At 9am a 1st quarter moon would be}

a) below the eastern horizon
b) high in western sky
c) western horizon
d) below the western horizon

119) At 3pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

b) eastern horizon
d) western horizon
e) high in western sky

120) At 9am a full moon would be}

a) below the western horizon
b) eastern horizon
c) western horizon
d) below the eastern horizon

121) At 6pm a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) western horizon
b) below the western horizon
c) high in eastern sky
e) eastern horizon

122) At 9pm a third quarter moon would be}

a) high in western sky
b) below the eastern horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) below the western horizon

123) At 9pm a waning crescent moon would be}

b) high in eastern sky
c) high in western sky
d) eastern horizon
e) below the eastern horizon

124) At noon a waxing crescent moon would be}

b) high in eastern sky
d) eastern horizon
e) high in western sky

125) At 3am a third quarter moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
b) high in eastern sky
d) below the eastern horizon
e) below the western horizon

126) At 3am a full moon would be}

b) below the western horizon
c) high in western sky
d) western horizon
e) high in eastern sky

127) At 6pm a waxing crescent moon would be}

b) high in western sky
d) western horizon
e) eastern horizon

128) At 3pm a 1st quarter moon would be}

a) high in western sky
b) below the western horizon
c) western horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) below the eastern horizon

129) At noon a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) western horizon
d) high in western sky
e) below the western horizon

130) At midnight a waxing crescent moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
c) high in eastern sky
d) below the western horizon
e) high in western sky

131) At 6am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

a) eastern horizon
b) high in eastern sky
c) below the eastern horizon
d) below the western horizon

132) At 6pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

a) below the western horizon
b) high in western sky
c) below the eastern horizon
d) high in eastern sky
e) western horizon

133) At midnight a new moon would be

a) eastern horizon
c) western horizon
d) below the horizon

134) At midnight a full moon would be

b) below the horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) western horizon

135) At 6pm a third quarter moon would be

b) western horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) below the horizon

136) At 6am a 1st quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon
c) below the horizon
d) western horizon

137) At noon a full moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) below the horizon
d) western horizon

138) At 6pm a full moon would be

a) western horizon
b) eastern horizon
c) below the horizon

139) At 6pm a 1st quarter moon would be

a) western horizon
b) below the horizon
c) eastern horizon

140) At 6am a full moon would be

a) below the horizon
b) eastern horizon
c) western horizon

141) At noon a third quarter moon would be

b) below the horizon
c) western horizon
d) eastern horizon

142) At noon a 1st quarter moon would be

b) below the horizon
c) western horizon
d) eastern horizon

143) At noon a new moon would be

a) western horizon
c) eastern horizon
d) below the horizon

144) At 6pm a new moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) below the horizon
d) western horizon

145) At 6am a third quarter moon would be

a) below the horizon
b) western horizon
c) eastern horizon

146) At midnight a third quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) western horizon
d) below the horizon

147) At midnight a 1st quarter moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) below the horizon
c) western horizon

148) At 6am a new moon would be

a) eastern horizon
b) western horizon
c) below the horizon
149)
Giovanni Schiaparelli 1877
Lowell circa 1914.
These drawings by Schiaparelli and Lowell were ultimately shown to be:

a) slip faults
b) rift valleys
c) rilles
d) optical illusions
e) subduction zones

150) Antipodal to the Tharsis bulge is

a) What Wikipedia contends IS an active volcano
b) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an active volcano
c) What Wikipedia contends IS an impact basin
d) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an impact basin
e) the northern lowlands
151)
Martian lobate feature
The lobate feature shown in the figure is evidence of

}
a) dust storms
b) lava flow
c) plate tectonics
d) water flow
e) wind erosion

152) The Martian dichotomy separates

a) the rift valley from the volcanoes
b) the highlands from the lowlands
c) the crust from the mantle
d) Valles Marineris from Olympus Mons
e) the Tharsus buldge from Hellas basin

153) According to Wikipedia, ______ was formed due to swelling of the Tharsis bulge which caused the crust to collapse

a) Hellas basin
b) the northern lowlands
c) Valles Marineris
d) the southern lowlands
e) Elysium
154)
gray hematite
What is this hematite?

a) controversial evidence that Mars once had life
b) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life
c) evidence that Mars once had oceans
d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes
e) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes

155) The polar ice caps on Mars are ___

a) mostly carbon dioxide
b) a nearly equal mix of water and carbon dioxide
c) mostly water
d) actually clouds above the surface of Mars
e) caused by geysers

156) Liquid water cannot exist on Mars due to ___

a) low pressure
b) high pressure
c) the solar wind
d) high temperature
e) low temperature
157)
magnified Martian meteorite
What is at the center of this magnified image of a Martian meteorite? fragment?

a) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes
b) evidence that Mars once had oceans
c) controversial evidence that Mars once had life
d) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life
e) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes
158)
horizontal crack
The horizontal crack along the center of figure is a
a) scarp
b) propodal
c) rille
d) antipodal
e) meander

159) Antipodal to Caloris Basin is

a) a silicon deposits
b) a scarp
c) weird terrain
d) an iron/nickel deposit
e) a water deposits

160) A volatile is a substance that

a) melts or evaporates at low temperature
b) reacts violently with water
c) reacts violently with oxygen
d) reacts violently with acids
e) melts or evaporates at high temperature

161) The four smaller inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of ___ and ___.

a) ice and gas
b) ice and rock
c) metal and rock
d) ice and water
e) carbon and oxygen

162) If the universe is mostly hydrogen, why aren't terrestrial planets made of mostly hydrogen?

a) thermonuclear fusion in the protosun turned the hydrogen into helium
b) tidal forces from the Sun prevented accretion
c) tidal forces from Jupiter prevented accretion
d) tidal forces between the terrestrial planets prevented accretion
e) These planets lie inside the frost line for hydrogen

163) Mercury's atmosphere consists mostly of

a) hydrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) nitrogen
d) oxygen
e) helium

164) In what sequence did Mercury's weird terrain and Caloris basin form?

a) The weird terrain was formed almost immediately after the Caloris basin
b) The weird terrain was formed a few millions years after the Caloris basin
c) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years after the Caloris basin
d) The were formed at exactly the same time
e) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years before the Caloris basin

165) The 1982 Voyager flyby of Miranda (a moon of Uranus) established that _____

a) Miranda has the largest active volcano in the solar system
b) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
c) inspired a theory a previous incarnation was destroyed by a collision
d) Miranda probably has an iron core
e) Miranda has geysers.

166) It has been suggested that Miranda's "racetrack"

a) is associated with tidal heating
b) is a series of rifts created by an upwelling of warm ice
c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
d) is an impact crater
e) is antipodal to an impact crater

167) According to Wikipedia, the largest lakes on Titan are probably fed by

a) rivers from the highlands
b) liquid water rain
c) underground aquifers
d) methane rain
e) geysers
168)

The bright spot on Saturn's moon Titan is
a) a lake
b) solar wind particles striking the atmosphere
c) aurora borealis (northern lights)
d) lightening
e) a volcano

169) One "year" on Saturn's largest moon Titan lasts

a) 3 hours
b) 3 years
c) 30 hours
d) 300 days
e) 30 years
170)

The photographs compare
a) summer windstorms and winter doldrums
b) winter windstorms and summer doldrums
c) wet and dry seasons
d) northern and southern hemispheres
e) Titan and Earth

171) The liquid water ocean of Saturn's largest moon Titan,

a) is less than one meter in depth
b) is known to contain life
c) Two other answers are correct
d) explains how the elevation of a smooth planet seems to rise and fall
e) is postulated to cover 15-30% of its surface
172)
incomplete rim
The incomplete rims seen in the figure are caused by:
a) vulcanism
b) micrometeorite erosion
c) rilles
d) meteorite erosion
e) low surface gravity

173) Rilles are caused by

a) meteors
b) water
c) lava
d) meteorites
e) impacts

174) In the Wikipedia excerpt on "Planetary Astronomy" the mechanism by which a meander grows over time was discussed. Which of the the following is best describes why meanders grow? (Pick only one best answer)

a) wind erosion
b) a combination of deposition and erosion
c) combination of erosion and underlying bedrock strength
d) combination of deposition and underlying bedrock strength
e) occasional periods of intense flooding

175) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

a) the motion of an artificial satellite
b) the motion of a moon
c) the motion of a neighboring planet
d) all of these have been used
e) the rotation of the planet about its axis

176) What is unusual about calculations of the mass of Pluto made in the early part of the 20th century?

a) The estimates were correct to within less than 10%
b) The estimates were high. Pluto was less massive than they calculated
c) The estimates were too low. Pluto was actually more massive than they thought.
d) It was the first time a moon was used to calculate the mass of a planet
e) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass

177) Why was the discovery of Pluto peculiar?

a) It was discovered by a calculation based on flawed assumptions
b) It was discovered during a survey looking for stars
c) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass
d) It was seen by Galileo, who thought it was a star
e) It was seen by Halley, who was looking for comets

178) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

a) the motion of a neighboring planet
b) the motion of a moon
c) all of these have been used
d) the motion of an artificial satellite

179) Which statement describes the relation between Pluto and Neptune

a) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they avoid each other because Pluto's mass is too small
b) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit an the two bodies will eventually collide
c) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they don't collide because of an orbital resonance between the two
d) Pluto's orbit lies outside Neptune's orbit

180) The Ptolemaic system was geocentric.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

181) An argument used to support the geocentric model held that heavenly bodies, while perhaps large, were able to move quickly.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

182) Tycho tended to favor religious arguments over scientific arguments when justifying his opinions about the geocentric/heliocentric controversy.

a) FALSE
b) TRUE

183) Tycho was the first to propose an earth-orbiting sun had planets in orbit around the Sun.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

184) The Ptolemaic system was heliocentric.

a) FALSE
b) TRUE

185) Most ancient Roman and most medieval scholars thought the Earth was flat.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

186) Evidence for the Copernican system is that the Earth does not seem to move.

a) FALSE
b) TRUE

187) The ancient Greeks believed in circular orbits, causing them to devise the epicycle and the deferent.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

188) Copernicus was a university-trained Catholic priest dedicated to astronomy.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

189) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the geocentric theory.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

190) Copernicus shared his heliocentric theory with colleagues decades before he died.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

191) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the heliocentric theory.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

192) At the center of the Crab nebula is

a)c) none of these is correct
b)d) a neutron star
c)e) the remnants of a supernova
d)b) a pulsar
e)a) all of these is correct

193) One way to determine the distance to a nebula or small cluster of clouds is to compare the angular expansion to the spectroscopic Doppler shift. Two clusters (A and B) have the same spectroscopically measured velocity. Cluster A is moving towards the observer and exhibits the greater angular expansion. Which cluster is closer?

a) cluster A, because it exhibits greater angular expansion
b) either cluster might be more distant
c) cluster A, because it exhibits a blue Doppler shift
d) cluster B, because it exhibits a red Doppler shift
e) cluster B, because it exhibits less angular expansion

194) What causes the "finger-like" filamentary structure in the Crab nebula?

a) cyclotron motion, causing the electrons to strike oxygen molecules
b) electrons striking hydrogen molecules, like a lava lamp
c) a heavy (high density) fluid underneath a light (low density) fluid, like a lava lamp
d) electrons striking oxygen molecules, like a lava lamp
e) a light(low density) fluid underneath a heavy(high density) fluid, like a lava lamp

195) ${\displaystyle KE={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$ is the kinetic energy of a solid rotating ball, where M is mass, R is radius, and P is period. And, ${\displaystyle power={\frac {energy}{time}}}$.
You are banging espressos in a little coffeehouse with your astronomy friends, talking about a new SN remnant that closely resembles the Crab. You have observed the pulsar, and wonder what the total power output of the nebula might be. You know both the period of the pulsar, as well as ${\displaystyle \tau }$, which represents the amount of time you think the pulsar will continue pulsing if it continues slowing down at its present rate. What formula do you write on your napkin?

a) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {5}{4\tau \pi ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\tau \pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau }}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}\tau ^{4}}$
e) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$

196) In one respect, the universie is arguably "young", considering how much complexity it contains. This is often illustrated by a calculation of

a) cosmic redshift
b) cosmic expansion
c) recalibration of supernovae luminosity
d) recalibration of supernovae relative magnitude
e) chimps typing Shakespeare

197) Comparing Hubble's original (1929) plot of redshift versus distance with the later one in 2007, the latter extends farther into space by a factor of

a) 10
b) 1000
c) 10,000
d) 100
e) 100,000

198) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. Hubble's original (1929) plot used

a) red giants
b) Cepheid variables
c) supernovae
d) entire galaxies
e) novae

199) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. The more recent (2007) plot used

a) red giants
b) novae
c) Cepheid variables
d) entire galaxies
e) supernovae

200) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expands out to 12 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expand?

a) 8
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
e) 4

201) You at the center raisin of an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion, and from your location a raisin originally situated at a distance of 1 cm expands out to a distance of 4 cm. The nearest raisin with intelligent life is situated exactly halfway between your (central) location and the edge. How would this second "intelligent" raisin view an expansion of a raisin 1 cm away?

a) expansion from 1 cm to 2 cm (half of yours)
b) expansion from 1 cm to 8 cm (twice yours).
c) expansion from 1 cm to 3 cm (since 3-1=2)
d) expansion from 1 cm to 9 cm (since 5-1=4)
e) expansion from 1 cm to 4 cm (just like yours).

202) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expands out to 4 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expand?

a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 8
e) 4

203) Aside from its location on the HR diagram, evidence that the white dwarf has a small radius can be found from

a) the gravitational redshift
b) the expansion of the universe
c) the temperature
d) the mass as measured by Kepler's third law (modified by Newton)
e) the doppler shift
204)
This light clock is associated with
a) doppler shift
b) gravitational shift
c) general relativity
d) all of these are true
e) special relativity
205)
Suppose the light clock involved a ball being tossed back and forth on a train going just under the speed of sound. In contrast to the situation for light reflecting back and forth on a train going just under the speed of light, there is virtually no time dilation. Why?
a) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling faster.
b) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be smaller.
c) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be greater.
d) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling more slowly.
e) Special relativity is valid only for objects travelling in a vacuum.
206)

This spectrum of the star Vega suggests that
a) all of these are true
b) it's surface can be associated with a range of temperatures
c) if is not really a black body
d) it can be associated with an "effective" temperature
e) it is an approximate black body

207) Which of the following is NOT an essential piece of a a strong argument that a white dwarf is not only the size of the earth, but typically has the same mass as the Sun.

a) the "color" (spectral class) of Sirius B
b) the wobble of Sirius A
c) the distance to Sirius A
d) the relative magnitude of Sirius B
e) all of these are true

208) The course materials presented three arguments suggesting that a white dwarf is roughly the size of the earth. Which best summarizes them?

a) temperature-luminosity...redshift...quantum-theory-of-solids
b) doppler-shift...period-of-pulsation...temperature-luminosity
c) x-ray-emmission...doppler-shift...rotation-rate
d) all of these are true
e) HR-diagram-location...X-ray-emmision...spectral-lines

209) As of 2008, the percent uncertainty in the distance to the Crab nebula is approximately,

a) 10%
b) 1%
c) 100%
d) 25%
e) 0.1%

210) What was Messier doing when he independently rediscovered the Crab in 1758?

a) Looking for a comet that he knew would be appearing in that part of the sky.
b) Looking for lobsters
c) Attempting to count asteroids
d) Attempting one of the first star charts
e) Trying to measure the orbital radius of a planet
211)

What best explains this figure?
a) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, c=fλ, and therefore by E=hf it turns red.
b) The photon loses energy, not speed. By E=hf, it loses frequency, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength and turns red.
c) The photon loses energy, not speed. By c=fλ , it loses frequency, and by E=hf it increases wavelength and turns red.
d) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, E=hf, and therefore by c=f&;lambda it turns red.
e) The photon slows down as it goes uphill, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength therefore by E=hf, it turns red.

212) What causes the blue glow of the Crab nebula?

a) the Gravitational blue shift
b) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion traps ultra-violet and blue light
c) the Doppler blue shift
d) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion resembles a radio antenna
e) the same emission found in a Lava lamp (ultra-violet)

213) A grouping with 100 thousand stars would probably be a

a) globular cluster
b) dwarf galaxy
c) A-B association
d) elliptical galaxy
e) open cluster

214) Many stars in a typical open cluster are nearly as old as the universe

a) True
b) False

215) Many stars in a typical globular cluster are nearly as old as the universe

a) True
b) False

216) The number of globular clusters in the Milky way galaxy is about

a) 15 thousand
b) 150
c) 1,500
d) 15 million

217) The location of open clusters can be described as

a) uniformly distributed within the galactic disk
b) between the spiral arms
c) uniformly distributed in a sphere centered at the Milky Way's center
d) in the spiral arms

218) Stars can "evaporate" from a cluster. What does this mean?

a) The gravitational attraction between stars evaporates the gas from stars
b) The solar wind from neighboring stars blows the atmosphere away
c) Close encounters between 3 or more cluster members gives one star enough speed to leave the cluster

219) A grouping with a hundred stars is probably a

a) open cluster
b) dwarf galaxy
c) elliptical galaxy
d) globular cluster
e) A-B association

220) I gravity is what holds stars in a cluster together, what is the most important process that causes them to spread apart?

a) solar wind
b) magnetism
c) random motion
d) supernovae
e) anti-gravity

221) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces only due to gravitational interaction with each other

a) False
b) True

222) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces from nearby giant molecular clouds

a) True
b) False

223) Members of a globular cluster tend to be

a) of all ages
b) old
c) young

224) Members of a globular cluster tend to have

a) high mass
b) low mass
c) a wide range of masses

225) In 1917, the astronomer Harlow Shapley was able to estimate the Sun's distance from the galactic centre using

a) open clusters
b) a combination of open and globular clusters
c) goblular clusters

226) Most globular clusters that we see in the sky orbit _____ and have ______ orbits

a) within the disk of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits
b) within the disk of the Milky way ... nearly circular
c) the center of the Milky way ... nearly circular
d) the center of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits

227) Stellar parallax is

a) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
b) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
d) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

228) A star that is increasing it's temperature while maintaining constant luminosity is

a) in the process of dying
b)e) getting larger in size
c) getting smaller in size
d) turning red
e) on the verge of becoming a supernovae

229) The range of wavelength for visible light is between

a) 1 and 10 nanometers
b) 400 and 700 nanometers
c) 5000 and 6000 nanometers
d) 600 and 1200 nanometers
e) 0.1 and 10 nanometers

230) Based on the HR diagrams and images in stars shown in the materials, a very large red supergiant has a diameter that is about ____ greater than a small white dwarf.

a) 3x105
b) 3x1011
c) 3x103
d) 3x107
e) 3x109

231) Luminosity is

a) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
d) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
e) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.

232) A standard candle is

a) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
b) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
c) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
d) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
e) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

233) Absolute magnitude is

a) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
d) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

234) Relative magnitude is

a) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
c) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
d) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

235) In 1989 the satellite Hipparcos was launched primarily for obtaining parallaxes and proper motions allowing measurements of stellar parallax for stars up to about 500 parsecs away, which is about ____ times the diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy.

a) 15
b) 150
c) 1.5
d) .015
e) 0.15

236) An object emits thermal (blackbody) radiation with a peak wavelength of 250nm. How does its temperature compare with the Sun?

a) 5 times hotter than the Sun
b) 2 times colder than the Sun
c) 2 times hotter than the Sun
d) 5 times colder than the Sun
e) The temperature is the same

237) The "normalized intensity" of a Sun-like star situated one parsec from Earth would be 4πI = 1. What is 4πI for a star with 100 times the Sun's energy output that is situated 10pc from Earth?

a) 10-1
b) 1
c) 10-3
d) 10-2
e) 10-4

238) An orbiting satellite makes a circular orbit 5 AU from the Sun. It measures a parallax angle of 0.2 of an arcsecond (each way from the average position). What is the star's distance?

a) 5 parsecs
b) 25 parsecs
c) 10 parsecs
d) 1 parsec
e) 50 parsecs

239) When imaged in visible light Venus appears like ______ rather than ______.

a) an asteroid ... a terrestrial planet
b) a gas dwarf ... a rocky planet
c) Mars ... Venus
d) Venus ... Mars

240) The clouds on Venus are made of

a) steam
b) carbon dioxide
c) sulfuric acid
d) nitrogen
e) water

241) The geology of Venus is predominantly

a) Andesite
b) Basalt
c) Picrite

242) Basalt is what type of rock?

a) Igneous
b) Metamorphic
c) Sedimentary

243) The rocks on Venus are mostly

a) from volcanoes
b) from the seabed of a now non-existent ocean
c) associated with plate tectonics

244) The rocky surface of the planet Venus can be detected when Venus is observed using infrared astronomy.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

245) When Venus is viewed in the ultraviolet, its color appears brownish.

a) FALSE
b) TRUE

246) Moldavite is a mineral that may be associated with what radiation astronomy phenomenon?

a) meteorite impacts and fireballs
b) predicting when currently dormant volcanoes will erupt
c) lightening strikes
d) evidence that Venus was once a comet

247) According to Wikipedia, a "mineral" is a naturally occurring solid that

a) contains carbon
b) is by a chemical formula
c) does not contain carbon
d) has useful value
e) is heterogeneous

248) Which types of radiation astronomy directly observe the rocky-object surface of Venus?

a) ultraviolet astronomy
c) infrared astronomy
d) X-ray astronomy
e) visual astronomy

249) One reason that Venus's atmosphere has more carbon dioxide than Earth's is that

a) Venus is exposed to a stronger solar wind strips away the other gasses
b) Venus has a lower magnetic field that disassociates carbon dioxide
c) the mass of Venus is slightly higher
d) Venus was too hot for oceans that could absorb the carbon dioxide

250) The surface temperature of Venus is about

a) 850 Fahrenheit (730 Kelvin or 230 Celsius)
b) 450 Fahrenheit (500 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)
c) 150 Fahrenheit (340 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

251) The Venetian atmosphere consists of mostly carbon dioxide and

a) oxygen
b) helium
c) nitrogen
d) hydrogen
e) sulfuric acid

252) The Wikipedia article Sidereus Nuncius suggests that the inventor of the telescope was likely to be

a) a Chinese scientist
b) a lensmaker
c) Galileo
d) A Greek scholar
e) none of these

253) When the German astronomy Marius provided evidence that he (Marius) had first seen the moons of Jupiter, Galileo

a) appealed to the Pope
b) used his political contacts to ensure that he (Galileo) would get credit
c) won the argument using his knowledge of calendars
d) pointed out that the telescope Marius was using could not have seen the Moons
e) didn't care; he was a true scientist

254) Prior to the publication of Sidereus Nuncius, the Church

a) was unaware of any controversy concerning the Copernican heliocentric system
b) had outlawed all discussion of the Copernican heliocentric system
c) had given Galileo a commission to look into the Copernican heliocentric system
d) none of these are true (according to the Wikipedia permalink to Sidereus Nuncius.)
e) accepted the Copernican heliocentric system as strictly mathematical and hypothetical

255) Galileo called his telescope

a) the liberator
b) the magic eye
c) a mistake
d) an optical cannon
e) a double magnifying glass

256) The "terminator" for Galileo was

a) his trial for heresy
b) sunrise or sunset
c) the most distant star he could see
d) the equator
e) the division between east and west

257) Galileo used the terminator to

a) correlate color with whether the region had mountains
b) observe the wobble of the Moon's orbit
c) deduce the color beneath the dust layer
d) none of these
e) compensate for stellar parallax

258) Galileo used the terminator to

a) correlate dark and light regions with terrain
b) compensate for stellar parallax
c) measure the height of mountains
d) publicize his ideas
e) two of these

259) What statement is FALSE about Galileo and the Median Stars

a) Galileo named them after a famous and wealthy family
b) they are actually moons
c) they were lined up
d) motion could be observed after observing a moon for just one hour
e) they were described by Aristotle

260) The title of Galileo's book, Sidereus Nuncius, is often translated as ____, but it is probably more proper to translate it as _______

a) Starry messenger - - Starry message
b) the motion of the earth - - the location of the earth
c) the moons of Jupiter
d) the motion of the stars - - the location of the stars
e) the Moon close up - - the Moon through a telescope

261) The Wikipedia article, Sidereus Nuncius, points out that what the ancient Greek scientist thought was a cloudy star was really

a) a planetary nebula
b) a comet
c) many faint stars
d) a supernovae remnant
e) the rings of Saturn

262) Galileo's naming of the "Medicean Stars"

a) might have earned him a promotion
b) broke an agreement he made with the Pope to stop writing about astronomy
c) two of these are true
d) was controversial because stars were supposed to be named after Roman gods
e) caused his house arrest

263) Very far from the sun, the heliosphere

a) reverses direction
b) never ends
c) becomes the magnetosphere
d) becomes weaker than the interstellar wind
e) spins in the opposite direction

264) According to Wikipedia, if all the mass of the asteroid belt were combined to one object, it's mass would _______ times less than Earth's mass.

a) 10,000
b) 100
c) 1,000
d) 1
e) 10
265)
planetary disk
In this hypothetical image of a sun-like star we see a bright band of dust that we on Earth call zodiacal light. It is due to sunlight reflecting off dust in the
a) Oort Cloude
b) ecliptic plane
c) Van Allen belt
d) Kuiper belt
e) magnetic sun's magnetic field

266) In planetary science, the frost line refers to a distance away from

a) ecliptic plane
b) the north pole of a planet
c) either pole of a planet
d) the south pole of a planet
e) the star in the middle

267) Oort's cloud was hypothesized to explain the source of

a) asteroids
b) planets
c) water inside the frost line
d) comets
e) water outside the frost line

268) According to Wikipedia _______ and ______ are referred to as volatiles.

a) ices and gasses
b) electrons and protons
c) acids and bases
d) asteroids and terrestrial planets
e) planets and moons

269) Which of the following list is properly ranked, starting with objects closest to the Sun?

a) Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt
b) Kuiper belt, Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud
c) Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt
d) Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud
e) Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud, Kuiper belt

270) When the sun turns into a red giant,

a) surface temperature decreases; energy output increases
b) surface temperature increases; energy output increases
c) surface temperature increases; energy output decreases
d) The sun will not turn into a red giant
e) surface temperature decreases; energy output decreases

271) A volatile is a substance that

a) melts or evaporates at low temperature
b) reacts violently with oxygen
c) reacts violently with water
d) melts or evaporates at high temperature
e) reacts violently with acids

272) All planets lie within a nearly flat disc called the __________ plane

a) interstellar
b) ecliptic
c) fissile
e) angular

273) The AU is

a) the distance from the Sun to Earth
b) the distance from Earth to the Moon
c) a measure of the brightness of a planet
d) the size of Oort's cloud
e) the most distant Kuiper object from the Sun

274) The Sun and Earth are about

a) 50 billion years old
b) 5 million years old
c) 5 billion years old
d) 50 million years old
e) 500 million years old

a) 150 billion years old
b) 1.5 billion years old
c) 15 million years old
d) 15 billion years old
e) 150 million years old

276) Roughly how much bigger is a gas planet than a terrestrial planet?

a) 100
b) 30
c) 3
d) 10
e) 300

277) Roughly how much bigger is a the Sun than a gas planet?

a) 3
b) 300
c) 10
d) 30
e) 100

278) In astrophysics, what is accretion?

a) the growth of a massive object by gravitationally attracting more matter
b) the growth in size of a massive star as its outer atmosphere expands
c) the condensation of volatiles as a gas cools
d) the growth of a comet's tail as it comes close to the Sun
e) the increase in temperature and pressure of a star as it collapses from its own gravity

279) Dwarf planets are defined as objects orbiting the Sun and smaller than planets, that?

a) lack an atmosphere
b) possess an atmosphere
c) are too far from the Sun to be planets
d) lie in the asteroid belt
e) have been rounded by their own gravity

280) Dwarf planets have no natural satellites,

a) false
b) true

281) Pluto is classified as

a) a natural satellite of Neptune
b) a dwarf planet with no natural satellites
c) an asteroid belt object
d) a dwarf planet and a trans-Neptunian object.
e) a natural satellite of Uranus

282) How many of the outer planets have rings?

a) 3
b) 1
c) 4
d) 2

283) Currently there are 7 billion people on Earth, if that ever increases to 10 billion people, for every person on Earth there will be ____ stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

a) 2000
b) 2
c) 200
d) 20

284) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is nearly circular.

a) false
b) true

285) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is opposite that of the 8 planets.

a) false
b) true

286) The frost line is situated approximately

a) 10 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun
b) 5 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center
c) 5 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun
d) 10 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

287) Why is a star made of plasma?

a) plasma is generic word for "important"
b) the interstellar gas was mostly plasma
c) it is so hot that electrons are stripped away from the protons
d) plasma is always present when there are strong magnetic fields
e) the intense gravity liquifies the substance, just as red blood cells liquify plasma in the body

288) Pre–main sequence stars are often surrounded by a protoplanetary disk and powered mainly by

a) collisions between protoplanets
b) chemical reactions
c) the fusion of Helium to Carbon
d) the fission of Carbon from Helium
e) the release of gravitational energy

289) Stars that begin with more than 50 solar masses will typically lose _______ while on the main sequence.

a) 10% of their magnetic field
b) 10% their mass
c) 1% their mass
d) 50% their mass
e) all of their magnetic field

290) The Hayashi and Henyey tracks refer to how T Tauri of different masses will move

a) through a cluster as they die
b) through an HR diagram as they are born
c) through a cluster as they are born
d) Two of these are true
e) through an HR diagram as they die
291) How do low-mass stars change as they are born?
Birth of stars HR path tracks
a) Increasing temperature with no change in luminosity
b) Increasing luminosity with no change in temperature
c) Decreasing temperature and increasing luminosity
d) Decreasing luminosity with no change in temperature
e) Decreasing temperature with no change in luminosity

292) When a star with more than 10 solar masses ceases fuse hydrogen to helium, it

a) it fuses helium to carbon and other elements up to iron and then ceases to produce more energy
b) it fuses elements up to uranium, and continues to produce energy by the fission of uranium.
c) ceases to convert nuclear energy.
d) it fuses helium to carbon and then ceases to produce more energy
e) it fuses helium to carbon to iron (and other elements), then continues to release more energy by fusing the iron to heavier elements such as uranium.

293) Many supernovae begin as a shock wave in the core that was caused by

a) the conversion of carbon into diamonds,
b) all of these processes contribute to the shock wave
c) iron fusing into heavier elements such as uranium
d) carbon and other elements fusing into iron
e) electrons being driven into protons to form neutrons

294) A dying star with more than 1.4 solar masses becomes a ______, and those with more than 5 solar masses becomes a _____

a) white dwarf....neutron star
b) blue giant....red giant
c) neutron star....black hole
d) white dwarf...red dwarf
e) white dwarf....black hole

295) According to Wikipedia, a star with over 20 solar masses converts its Hyrogen to Helium in about 8 billion years, but the conversion of Oxygen to heavier elements take about _____

a) 10 billion years
b) 1 year
c) 1 thousand years
d) 1 billion years
e) 1 million years

296) What is the difference between a constellation and an asterism?

a) constellations represent regions of the sky, like state boundaries on a map of the USA
b) asterisms are smaller than constellations
c) asterisms are larger than constellations
d) none of these is correct
e) constellations consist of never more than ten stars.

297) Stellar parallax is

a) None of these is correct.
b) Using spectral lines to deduce the distance to nearby stars
c) Using changes in the angular position of a star to deduce the star’s distance
d) Two of these is correct
e) Triangulation to deduce the distance to nearby stars

298) Giant molecular clouds with sufficient conditions to form a star cluster would have formed them long ago. Any stellar births in the past couple of billions years probably resulted from _____ between clouds.

a) collisions
b) None of these is correct.
c) Two of these are correct
d) photon exchange
e) ion exchange

299) A starburst galaxy.

a) Two of these are correct
b) has only dead or dying stars
c) is a region of active stellar birth
d) usually is a result of collisions between galaxies
e) All of these are correct

300) Which of the following expresses Jean's criterion for the collapse of a giant molecular cloud of mass, M, radius, R, and temperature T, and pressure P? (Here ? is some constant)

a) T>?RM
b) M>?RT
c) P>?MR
d) R>?MT
e) P>?MT

301) Which of the following changes in the properties of a giant molecular cloud might cause it to collapse?

a) Decrease mass at fixed temperature and size
b) Two of these are correct
c) Increase size at fixed pressure and mass
d) Increase mass at fixed temperature and size
e) Increase temperature at fixed mass and size

302) What happens if you increase the size of a giant molecular cloud while keeping temperature and mass fixed?

a) It is equally likely to collapse because size is not part of the Jean's criterion.
b) It is less likely to collapse spreading it out weakens the force of gravity
c) It is more likely to collapse because this will increase the temperature
d) It is more likely to collapse because larger things have more gravity
e) It is less likely to collapse because temperature can never be kept fixed

303) What is a Bok globule in the formation of stellar systems?

a) A small portion of a giant cloud that collapses
b) A supernovae precurser that attracts more gas atoms
c) A small planet that formed before any stars have formed
d) A black hole that enters a cloud and triggers the collapse
e) A cluster of giant molecular clouds that coalesce to form a solar system

304) When did astronomy split between theoretical and observational branches?

b) In the 19th century
c) In the 18th century
d) After Galileo
e) In the 20th century

305) According to the Wikipedia Astronomy article, the first known efforts in the mathematical and scientific study of Astronomy began

a) among the Chinese
b) among the Babylonians
c) in ancient Greece
d) in central America
e) in south America

306) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as Antikythera?

a) 1500 years
b) 3000 years
c) 15,000 years
d) 30 years
e) 300 years

307) The saro cycle was about repeating cycles of

a) eclipses
b) seasons
c) planets
308)
Who drew these sketches?

a) Copernicus
b) Ptolemy
c) Kepler
d) Galileo
e) Aristotle

309) In what century was parallax first used to measure the distance to a Star (other than our Sun)?

a) 20th century
b) 17th century
c) 19th century
d) 16th century
e) 18th century

310) The largest galaxy in the local group is

a) M52
b) Milky way
c) Andromeda
d) M-31
e) ant-galexy

311) What two names are associated with the first new planet found (after those known by the ancients using the naked eye)

a) Pluto and Goofy
b) Mercury and Friendship
c) Mars and the Candy Bar
d) Uranus and George's Star
e) Neptune and the Alabama Streaker

312) The historical record shows that in 1066 AD a supernovae was discovered by astronomers in _____ and _____

a) Greece and Central America
b) Egypt and China
c) China and South America
d) Greece and China
e) Greece and North America

313) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' call astrology?

a) the belief system which claims that human affairs are correlated with the positions of celestial objects.
b) the study of comets and asteroids
c) the belief that all people should learn astronomy
d) the study of planetary atmospheres
e) the study of planetary cores

314) Cosmology is the study of

a) the formation of the solar system
b) planetary atmospheres
c) the oceans
d) the universe as a whole
e) the birth and death of stars

315) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' article say about astronomy and astrophysics

a) They are often considered to be synonymous
b) They are often considered to be opposites
c) They must be in agreement or the result cannot be trusted
d) They are often in conflict
e) They often yield different results

316) The goecentric theory put the Sun

a) none of the above or below are true
b) orbiting around the Moon
c) at the center of the solar system
d) at the center of the universe
e) in orbit around Earth

317) In the 3rd century BC, Aristarchus of Samos estimated the size of

a) the Sun
b) Earth and the Moon
c) Earth and the Sun
d) the Moon
e) the Moon and Sun

318) In the 19th century Fraunhoffer and Kirchoff studied light from the Sun and found

b) sunspots and the sunspot cycle
c) spectral lines and concluded that they were caused by the elements
d) a golden ring
e) a wobble that led to the discovery of new planets

319) The ancient Greeks discovered (named) most of the constellations

a) in the western hemisphere
b) in both all hemispheres
c) in the eastern hemisphere
d) in the southern hemisphere
e) in the northern hemisphere

320) When did astronmers establish that the Milky way is only one of many billions of galaxies in the universe?

a) 14th century
b) 20th century
c) 18th century
d) 16th century
321)
What is this?
a) colliding galaxies
b) a dying star
c) a supernovae remnant
d) the magnetic field of Venus
e) the magnetic field of Saturn

322) An active galaxy is emitting a significant amount of its energy from _____

a) gravity
b) nuclear fission
c) exploding stars
d) nuclear fusion
e) magnetism

323) Wihlem Conrad Rontgen, a pioneer in X-rays is famous for his photo of

a) The Sun
b) his wife
c) a supernovae
d) Barnard's star
e) a double star

324) Earth based infrared observatories tend to be located in

a) near the equator
b) where the air is dry
c) underground
d) where the air is cold
e) near the north and south poles

325) The shortest wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is associated with

a) blue light
b) gamma rays
c) X-rays
d) infrared
e) ultra violet
326)
What are the blue things in this figure?

a) a cluster of galaxy
b) none of these is correct
c) an open cluster of stars
d) one galaxy
e) a globular cluster

327) Most of the ______ that astronomers observe from Earth is seen in the form of synchrotron radiation, which is produced when electrons oscillate around magnetic fields.

b) photons
c) meteors
d) meteorites
e) energy

328) Most gamma rays are

a) the Andromeda galaxy
b) from hot stars
c) from the Sun
d) from cold stars
e) in bursts

329) Studies in the infrared are useful for objects that are

a) inside the solar system
b) in our own galaxy
c) in other galaxies
d) associated with supernovae
e) cold

330) The best place to observe neutrinos is

a) near the north and south poles
b) where the air is cold
c) underground
d) near the equator
e) where the air is dry

331) A car traveling at 34.5 miles/hour stops in 1.7 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

a) 9.07 x 10-1 m/s2
b) 1.61 x 100 m/s2
c) 2.87 x 100 m/s2
d) 5.1 x 100 m/s2
e) 9.07 x 100 m/s2

332) A car completes a complete circle of radius 2.2 miles at a speed of 63.6 miles per hour. How many minutes does it take?

a) 9.78 x 100 minutes
b) 1.3 x 101 minutes
c) 1.74 x 101 minutes
d) 2.32 x 101 minutes
e) 3.09 x 101 minutes

333) A car traveling at 27 mph increases its speed to 29.5 mph in 5.4 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

a) 2.07 x 10-1 m/s2
b) 3.68 x 10-1 m/s2
c) 6.54 x 10-1 m/s2
d) 1.16 x 100 m/s2
e) 2.07 x 100 m/s2

334) Mr. Smith is backing his car at a speed of 4.27 mph when he hits a cornfield (seed corn). In the course of 1.74 seconds he stops, puts his car in forward drive, and exits the field at a speed of 6.17 mph. What was the magnitude ( absolute value) of his acceleration?

a) 6 x 100 miles per hour per second
b) 7.55 x 100 miles per hour per second
c) 9.51 x 100 miles per hour per second
d) 1.2 x 101 miles per hour per second
e) 1.51 x 101 miles per hour per second

335) A car is accelerating uniformly at an acceleration of 3.6m/s/s. At x = 6m, the speed is 3.7m/s. How fast is it moving at x = 11.5 m?

a) 6.08 m/s.
b) 7.3 m/s.
c) 8.76 m/s.
d) 10.51 m/s.
e) 12.61 m/s.

336) What is the acceleration if a car travelling at 8.45 m/s makes a skid mark that is 8.5 m long before coming to rest? (Assume uniform acceleration.)

a) 2.43m/s2.
b) 2.92m/s2.
c) 3.5m/s2.
d) 4.2m/s2.
e) 5.04m/s2.

337) A train accelerates uniformly from 12.75 m/s to 33.125 m/s, while travelling a distance of 272 m. What is the 'average' acceleration?

a) 0.99m/s/s.
b) 1.19m/s/s.
c) 1.43m/s/s.
d) 1.72m/s/s.
e) 2.06m/s/s.

338) A particle accelerates uniformly at 16.75 m/s/s. How long does it take for the velocity to increase from 1210 m/s to 2087 m/s?

a) 52.36 s
b) 62.83 s
c) 75.4 s
d) 90.47 s
e) 108.57 s

339) A ball is kicked horizontally from a height of 2.5 m, at a speed of 8.7m/s. How far does it travel before landing?

a) 3.6 m.
b) 4.32 m.
c) 5.18 m.
d) 6.21 m.
e) 7.46 m.

340) A particle is initially at the origin and moving in the x direction at a speed of 3.7 m/s. It has an constant acceleration of 1.5 m/s2 in the y direction, as well as an acceleration of 0.6 in the x direction. What angle does the velocity make with the x axis at time t = 2.1 s?

a) 21.32 degrees.
b) 24.51 degrees.
c) 28.19 degrees.
d) 32.42 degrees.
e) 37.28 degrees.

341) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 5.86 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.46 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.23 m/s in the +y direction. At what time do they meet?

a) 0.45 s.
b) 0.54 s.
c) 0.65 s.
d) 0.78 s.
e) 0.94 s.

342) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 6.27 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.38 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.94 m/s in the +y direction. What is the value of θ (in radians)?

343) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.6 m/s. Mr. Smith is at the back of the train and fires a pellet gun with a muzzle speed of 23.3 m/s at Mrs. Smith who is at the front of the train. What is the speed of the bullet with respect to Earth?

a) 70.9 m/s.
b) 106.4 m/s.
c) 159.5 m/s.
d) 239.3 m/s.
e) 358.9 m/s.

344) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.6 m/s. Mrs. Smith, who is at the front of the train, fires straight towards the back with a bullet that is going forward with respect to Earth at a speed of 27.9 m/s. What was the muzzle speed of her bullet?

a) 8.8 m/s.
b) 13.1 m/s.
c) 19.7 m/s.
d) 29.6 m/s.
e) 44.3 m/s.

345) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 48.1 m/s. The daugher fires at Mr. Smith with a pellet gun whose muzzle speed is 27.7 m/s. She was situated across the isle, perpendicular to the length of the train. What is the speed of her bullet with respect to Earth?

a) 16.4 m/s.
b) 24.7 m/s.
c) 37 m/s.
d) 55.5 m/s.
e) 83.3 m/s.

346) The Smith family got in trouble for having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.5 m/s. Mr. Smith is charged with having fired a pellet gun at his daughter (directly across the isle) with a bullet that had a speed of 94.6 m/s with respect to Earth. How fast was the bullet going relative to the daughter (i.e. train)?

a) 81.8 m/s.
b) 98.2 m/s.
c) 117.8 m/s.
d) 141.4 m/s.
e) 169.6 m/s.

347) A mass with weight (mg) of 48 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. The angle between the two strings (i.e. where they are attached to the mass) is 46 degrees. What is the tension in the string?

a) 22.7 N.
b) 26.1 N.
c) 30 N.
d) 34.5 N.
e) 39.7 N.

348) A mass with weight (mg) equal to 42 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. Each string makes the (same) angle of 59 degrees with respect to the horizontal. What is the tension in each string?

a) 21.3 N.
b) 24.5 N.
c) 28.2 N.
d) 32.4 N.
e) 37.3 N.

349) A 3.8 kg mass is sliding along a surface that has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.6 . In addition to the surface friction, there is also an air drag equal to 20 N. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the acceleration?

a) 6.4 m/s2.
b) 7.3 m/s2.
c) 8.4 m/s2.
d) 9.7 m/s2.
e) 11.1 m/s2.

350) A mass with weight (mg) 6 newtons is on a horzontal surface. It is being pulled on by a string at an angle of 30 degrees above the horizontal, with a force equal to 3.2 newtons. If this is the maximum force before the block starts to move, what is the static coefficient of friction?

a) 0.52
b) 0.63
c) 0.76
d) 0.91
e) 1.09

351) A sled of mass 5.1 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 41.2N at an angle of 42 degress above the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the friction?

a) 23.15 N.
b) 26.62 N.
c) 30.62 N.
d) 35.21 N.
e) 40.49 N.

352) A sled of mass 5.8 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 42.5N at an angle of 51 degress above the horizontal. What is the normal force?

a) 13.61 N.
b) 15.66 N.
c) 18 N.
d) 20.71 N.
e) 23.81 N.

353) A sled of mass 5.7 kg is at rest on a perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 41.3N at an angle of 40 degress above the horizontal. How long will it take to reach a speed of 10.3 m/s?

a) 1.4 s
b) 1.61 s
c) 1.86 s
d) 2.13 s
e) 2.45 s

354) A sled of mass 2.2 kg is on perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 17.2N. At what angle above the horizontal must the string pull in order to achieve an accelerations of 3.5 m/s2?

a) 36.3 degrees
b) 41.7 degrees
c) 47.9 degrees
d) 55.1 degrees
e) 63.4 degrees
355)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 15 degrees, and θ3 is 37 degrees. The tension T3 is 22 N. What is the tension, T1?
a) 11.96 N.
b) 13.75 N.
c) 15.82 N.
d) 18.19 N.
e) 20.92 N.

356) In the figure "3 tensions" shown above θ1 is 16 degrees, and θ3 is 30 degrees. The tension T3 is 45 N. What is the weight?

a) 25.5 N.
b) 29.3 N.
c) 33.7 N.
d) 38.7 N.
e) 44.5 N.
357)
In the figure shown, θ is 36 degrees, and the mass is 3.1 kg. What is T2?
a) 39.08 N.
b) 44.94 N.
c) 51.69 N.
d) 59.44 N.
e) 68.35 N.
358)
In the figure shown, θ is 33 degrees, and the mass is 3.7 kg. What is T1?
a) 46.5 N.
b) 55.8 N.
c) 67 N.
d) 80.4 N.
e) 96.5 N.
359)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 16 degrees , and θ3 is 35 degrees . The mass has a 'weight' of 28 N. What is the tension, T1?
a) 19.41 N.
b) 22.32 N.
c) 25.66 N.
d) 29.51 N.
e) 33.94 N.
360)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 6.5 kg, and the mass of m2 is 2.5 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 141 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume no friction is present.
a) 58.2 N
b) 67 N
c) 77 N
d) 88.6 N
e) 101.8 N
361)
In the figure shown (with m1 = 6.5 kg, m2 = 2.5 kg, and Fext = 141 N), what is the acceleration? Assume no friction is present.
a) 9 m/s2
b) 10.3 m/s2
c) 11.8 m/s2
d) 13.6 m/s2
e) 15.7 m/s2

362) Nine barefoot baseball players, with a total mass of 692 kg plays tug of war against five basketball players wearing shoes that provide a static coefficient of friction of 0.61 . The net mass of the (shoed) basketball team is 406 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of the barefoot boys if they lose?

a) 0.358
b) 0.394
c) 0.433
d) 0.476
e) 0.524

363) Without their shoes, members of a 9 person baseball team have a coefficient of static friction of only 0.23 . But the team wins a game of tug of war due to their superior mass of 607 kg. They are playing against a 5 person basketball team with a net mass of 429 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of static friction of the basketball team?

a) 0.269
b) 0.296
c) 0.325
d) 0.358
e) 0.394
364)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 6.8 kg, and the mass of m2 is 3.3 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 112 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume that m1 has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.39, and that for m2 the coefficient is 0.46 .
a) 48.6 N
b) 55.9 N
c) 64.2 N
d) 73.9 N
e) 85 N

365) A merry-go-round has an angular frequency, ${\displaystyle \omega }$, equal to 0.192 rad/sec. How many minutes does it take to complete 8.5 revolutions?

a) 3.05 minutes.
b) 3.51 minutes.
c) 4.03 minutes.
d) 4.64 minutes.
e) 5.33 minutes.

366) A merry-go round has a period of 0.38 minutes. What is the centripetal force on a 77.6 kg person who is standing 1.59 meters from the center?

a) 9.4 newtons.
b) 10.8 newtons.
c) 12.4 newtons.
d) 14.3 newtons.
e) 16.4 newtons.

367) A merry-go round has a period of 0.38 minutes. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction that would allow a 64.8 kg person to stand1.76 meters from the center, without grabbing something?

a) 0.008
b) 0.009
c) 0.01
d) 0.012
e) 0.014

368) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 2.59 times more massive than Earth, and a radius that is 1.75 times greater than Earths?

a) 8.3 m/s2
b) 9.5 m/s2
c) 11 m/s2
d) 12.6 m/s2
e) 14.5 m/s2

369) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 1.73 times more dense than Earth, and a radius that is 2.44 times greater than Earth's?

a) 41.4 m/s2
b) 47.6 m/s2
c) 54.7 m/s2
d) 62.9 m/s2
e) 72.4 m/s2
370)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
371)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/r=d\ell /v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
372)
Is ${\displaystyle rd\ell =vdv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
373)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}|-|{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
374)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell /dv=v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
375)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =r/v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
376)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}-{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
377)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =vdt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
378)
Is ${\displaystyle adt/v=vdt/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
379)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
380)
Is ${\displaystyle |d{\vec {v}}|=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
381)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}-{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
382)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}|-|{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) No
b) Yes
383)
Is ${\displaystyle v/d\ell =r/dv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

a) Yes
b) No
384) If the initial velocity after leaving the spring is 7.90 m/s, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
a) 2.62 m
b) 2.75 m
c) 2.89 m
d) 3.03 m
e) 3.18 m
385) The mass of the cart is 3.0kg, and the spring constant is 8205N/m. If the initial compression of the spring is 3.00m, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
a) 1.26E+03 m
b) 1.32E+03 m
c) 1.38E+03 m
d) 1.45E+03 m
e) 1.53E+03 m
386) What is the highest point the cart reaches if the speed was 1.8m/s, when the cart was situated at a height of 3.8m?,
a) 3.28 m
b) 3.45 m
c) 3.62 m
d) 3.80 m
e) 3.99 m
387) The spring constant is 752N/m, and the initial compression is 0.18m. What is the mass if the cart reaches a height of 2.95m, before coming to rest?
a) 0.421 kg
b) 0.442 kg
c) 0.465 kg
d) 0.488 kg
e) 0.512 kg
388) The cart has a mass of 35.20kg. It is moving at a speed of 3.50m/s, when it is at a height of 2.34m. If the spring constant was 554N/m, what was the initial compression?
a) 1.92 m
b) 2.06 m
c) 2.20 m
d) 2.35 m
e) 2.52 m

389) You are riding a bicycle on a flat road. Assume no friction or air drag, and that you are coasting. Your speed is 4.9m/s, when you encounter a hill of height 1.14m. What is your speed at the top of the hill?

a) 1.218 m/s
b) 1.291 m/s
c) 1.368 m/s
d) 1.450 m/s
e) 1.537 m/s

390) On object of mass 2.7 kg that is moving at a velocity of 25m/s collides with a stationary object of mass 20.75 kg. What is the final velocity if they stick? (Assume no external friction.)

a) 2m/s.
b) 2.4m/s.
c) 2.88m/s.
d) 3.45m/s.
e) 4.14m/s.

391) A car of mass 806 kg is driving on an icy road at a speed of 24 m/s, when it collides with a stationary truck. After the collision they stick and move at a speed of 5.5 m/s. What was the mass of the truck?

a) 1883 kg
b) 2259 kg
c) 2711 kg
d) 3253 kg
e) 3904 kg
392)
A 164 gm bullet strikes a ballistic pendulum of mass 2.48 kg (before the bullet struck). After impact, the pendulum rises by 65 cm. What was the speed of the bullet?
a) 54 m/s.
b) 58 m/s.
c) 62 m/s.
d) 66 m/s.
e) 70 m/s.
393)
A massless bar of length, S = 9.8m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 25.2 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 4.7kg is suspended at a length, L = 4.4m from the wall. What is the tension, T, in the string?
a) 1.93E+01 N
b) 2.43E+01 N
c) 3.06E+01 N
d) 3.86E+01 N
e) 4.86E+01 N
394)
In the figure shown, L1 = 6.6m, L2 = 3.1m and L3 = 8.8m. What is F1 if F2 =9.2N and F3 =5.9N?
a) 5.66E+00 N
b) 6.85E+00 N
c) 8.30E+00 N
d) 1.01E+01 N
e) 1.22E+01 N
395)
A massless bar of length, S = 9.2m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 35.1 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 3.5kg is suspended at a length, L = 6.2m from the wall. What is the x (horizontal) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
a) 2.71E+01 N
b) 3.29E+01 N
c) 3.98E+01 N
d) 4.83E+01 N
e) 5.85E+01 N
396)
In the figure shown, L1 = 6.8m, L2 = 4.3m and L3 = 8.2m. What is F2 if F1 =0.9N and F3 =0.1N?
a) 5.72E-01 N
b) 6.93E-01 N
c) 8.40E-01 N
d) 1.02E+00 N
e) 1.23E+00 N
397)
A massless bar of length, S = 8.5m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 36 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 7.4kg is suspended at a length, L =5.6m from the wall. What is the y (vertical) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
a) 2.04E+01 N
b) 2.47E+01 N
c) 3.00E+01 N
d) 3.63E+01 N
e) 4.40E+01 N

398) A car with a tire radius of 0.23 m accelerates from 0 to 23 m/s in 10.5 seconds. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?

a) 9.52 x 100 m
b) 1.15 x 101 m
c) 1.4 x 101 m
d) 1.69 x 101 m
e) 2.05 x 101 m

399) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.37 m and mass 2.1 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.4 revolutions per second. What is the moment of inertia?

a) 2.87 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
b) 3.48 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
c) 4.22 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
d) 5.11 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
e) 6.19 x 10-1 kg m2/s2

400) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.38 m and mass 2.8 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.7 revolutions per second. What is the total kinetic energy if the wheel is rotating about a stationary axis?

a) 1.07 x 101 J
b) 1.3 x 101 J
c) 1.57 x 101 J
d) 1.9 x 101 J
e) 2.31 x 101 J
401)
The moment of inertia of a solid disk of mass, M, and radius, R, is ½ MR2. Two identical disks, each with mass 8.1 kg are attached. The larger disk has a diameter of 0.99 m, and the smaller disk has a diameter of 0.63 m. If a force of 87 N is applied at the rim of the smaller disk, what is the angular acceleration?
a) 9.12 x 100 s-2
b) 1.11 x 101 s-2
c) 1.34 x 101 s-2
d) 1.62 x 101 s-2
e) 1.97 x 101 s-2

402) A cylinder with a radius of 0.28 m and a length of 2.6 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.1 m below the water. The mass of the block is 831.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the pressure at the top face of the cylinder?

2.74E4 Pa
3.32E4 Pa
4.02E4 Pa
4.87E4 Pa
5.90E4 Pa

403) A cylinder with a radius of 0.28 m and a length of 2.9 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.6 m below the water. The mass of the block is 880.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the buoyant force?

7.00E3 N
8.48E3 N
1.03E4 N
1.24E4 N
1.51E4 N

404) A cylinder with a radius of 0.31 m and a length of 3.5 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.8 m below the water. The mass of the block is 933.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the water at the top surface?

7.12E3 N
8.96E3 N
1.13E4 N
1.42E4 N
1.79E4 N

405) A cylinder with a radius of 0.38 m and a length of 3.6 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.2 m below the water. The mass of the block is 829.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the fluid on the bottom of the cylinder?

1.74E4 Pa
2.19E4 Pa
2.75E4 Pa
3.47E4 Pa
4.37E4 Pa

406) A 9.7 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.2 m^3 volume in 4.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 4.3 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the speed in the first (wider) pipe?

a) 4.61E-1 m/s
b) 5.58E-1 m/s
c) 6.77E-1 m/s
d) 8.20E-1 m/s
e) 9.93E-1 m/s

407) A 7.9 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.5 m^3 volume in 7.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 2.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the pressure difference (in Pascals) between the two regions of the pipe?

a) 1.08E4
b) 1.31E4
c) 1.58E4
d) 1.92E4
e) 2.32E4

408) A 9.2 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.6 m^3 volume in 8.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 4.0 cm (with no loss of flow rate). If two fluid elements at the center of the pipe are separated by 34.0 mm when they are both in the wide pipe, and we neglect turbulence, what is the separation when both are in the narrow pipe?

a) 1.23E2 mm
b) 1.48E2 mm
c) 1.80E2 mm
d) 2.18E2 mm
e) 2.64E2 mm

409) A large cylinder is filled with water so that the bottom is 5.4 m below the waterline. At the bottom is a small hole with a diameter of 9.6E-4 m. How fast is the water flowing at the hole? (Neglect viscous effects, turbulence, and also assume that the hole is so small that no significant motion occurs at the top of the cylinder.)

a) 7.01E0 m/s
b) 8.49E0 m/s
c) 1.03E1 m/s
d) 1.25E1 m/s
e) 1.51E1 m/s

410) What is the root-mean-square of -19, -16, and -19?

a) 1.278 x 101
b) 1.434 x 101
c) 1.609 x 101
d) 1.806 x 101
e) 2.026 x 101

411) What is the rms speed of a molecule with an atomic mass of 17 if the temperature is 31 degrees Fahrenheit?

a) 6.32 x 102 m/s
b) 7.66 x 102 m/s
c) 9.28 x 102 m/s
d) 1.12 x 103 m/s
e) 1.36 x 103 m/s

412) If a molecule with atomic mass equal to 6 amu has a speed of 217 m/s, what is the speed at an atom in the same atmosphere of a molecule with an atomic mass of 30 ?

a) 5.46 x 101 m/s
b) 6.61 x 101 m/s
c) 8.01 x 101 m/s
d) 9.7 x 101 m/s
e) 1.18 x 102 m/s

413) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.99 kg is filled with 0.26 kg of water. How much heat does it take to raise both from 54.4 C to 78.1 C?

a) 2.43 x 104 J
b) 2.86 x 104 J
c) 3.38 x 104 J
d) 3.98 x 104 J
e) 4.69 x 104 J

414) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.99 kg is filled with 0.26 kg of water. What fraction of the heat went into the aluminum?

a) 2.7 x 10-1
b) 3.2 x 10-1
c) 3.8 x 10-1
d) 4.5 x 10-1
e) 5.3 x 10-1

415) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.66 kg is filled with 0.11 kg of water. You are consulting for the flat earth society, a group of people who believe that the acceleration of gravity equals 9.8 m/s/s at all altitudes. Based on this assumption, from what height must the water and container be dropped to achieve the same change in temperature? (For comparison, Earth's radius is 6,371 kilometers)

a) 1.64 x 100 km
b) 1.99 x 100 km
c) 2.41 x 100 km
d) 2.92 x 100 km
e) 3.54 x 100 km

416) A window is square, with a length of each side equal to 0.81 meters. The glass has a thickness of 13 mm. To decrease the heat loss, you reduce the size of the window by decreasing the length of each side by a factor of 1.24. You also increase the thickness of the glass by a factor of 2.15. If the inside and outside temperatures are unchanged, by what factor have you decreased the heat flow?. By what factor have you decreased the heat flow (assuming the same inside and outside temperatures).

a) 1.53 x 100 unit
b) 1.86 x 100 unit
c) 2.25 x 100 unit
d) 2.73 x 100 unit
e) 3.31 x 100 unit
417)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2.1 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 2.8 kPa, P2= 5.6 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.1m3 and V4= 4.8m3. How much work is done in in one cycle?
a) 3.78 x 102 J
b) 1.2 x 103 J
c) 3.78 x 103 J
d) 1.2 x 104 J
e) 3.78 x 104 J
418)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 1.3 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.6 kPa, P2= 4.3 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.6m3 and V4= 3.2m3. How much work is involved between 1 and 4?
a) 2.56 x 103 J
b) 8.1 x 103 J
c) 2.56 x 104 J
d) 8.1 x 104 J
e) 2.56 x 105 J
419)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.3 kPa, P2= 3.4 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.5m3 and V4= 4.3m3. How much work is involved between 2 and 4?
a) 1.34 x 102 J
b) 4.23 x 102 J
c) 1.34 x 103 J
d) 4.23 x 103 J
e) 1.34 x 104 J
420)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 1.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 2.9 kPa, P2= 4.7 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.7m3 and V4= 5.6m3. What is the temperature at step 4?
a) 1.03 x 101 K
b) 3.25 x 101 K
c) 1.03 x 102 K
d) 3.25 x 102 K
e) 1.03 x 103 K

421) A 0.177 kg mass is on a spring that causes the frequency of oscillation to be 71 cycles per second. The maximum velocity is 60.9 m/s. What is the maximum force on the mass?

a) 2.2 x 103 N
b) 4.8 x 103 N
c) 1 x 104 N
d) 2.2 x 104 N
e) 4.8 x 104 N

422) A spring with spring constant 7.8 kN/m is attached to a 5.7 gram mass. The maximum acelleration is 5.9 m/s2. What is the maximum displacement?

a) 1.36 x 10-7 m
b) 4.31 x 10-7 m
c) 1.36 x 10-6 m
d) 4.31 x 10-6 m
e) 1.36 x 10-5 m

423) A spring of spring constant 8.4 kN/m causes a mass to move with a period of 2.2 ms. The maximum displacement is 2.1 mm. What is the maximum kinetic energy?

a) 1.85 x 10-3 J
b) 5.86 x 10-3 J
c) 1.85 x 10-2 J
d) 5.86 x 10-2 J
e) 1.85 x 10-1 J

424) A spring with spring constant 7.7 kN/m undergoes simple harmonic motion with a frequency of 4.4 kHz. The maximum force is 9.4 N. What is the total energy?

a) 5.74 x 10-5 J
b) 1.81 x 10-4 J
c) 5.74 x 10-4 J
d) 1.81 x 10-3 J
e) 5.74 x 10-3 J

425) The temperature is -2.1 degrees Celsius, and you are standing 0.83 km from a cliff. What is the echo time?

a) 5.033 x 100 seconds
b) 5.435 x 100 seconds
c) 5.868 x 100 seconds
d) 6.336 x 100 seconds
e) 6.842 x 100 seconds

426) While standing 0.76 km from a cliff, you measure the echo time to be 4.339 seconds. What is the temperature?

a) 2.83 x 101Celsius
b) 3.26 x 101Celsius
c) 3.77 x 101Celsius
d) 4.35 x 101Celsius
e) 5.03 x 101Celsius

427) What is the speed of a transverse wave on a string if the string is 0.94 m long, clamped at both ends, and harmonic number 5 has a frequency of 715 Hz?

a) 1.83 x 102 unit
b) 2.22 x 102 unit
c) 2.69 x 102 unit
d) 3.26 x 102 unit
e) 3.95 x 102 unit

428) What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin if a 1.7 nC charge is placed at x = 6.4 m, and a 3 nC charge is placed at y = 8 m?

a) 4.22 x 10-1N/C
b) 4.87 x 10-1N/C
c) 5.63 x 10-1N/C
d) 6.5 x 10-1N/C
e) 7.51 x 10-1N/C

429) What angle does the electric field at the origin make with the x-axis if a 2.9 nC charge is placed at x = -6.3 m, and a 2.1 nC charge is placed at y = -8.8 m?

a) 1.32 x 101degrees
b) 1.53 x 101degrees
c) 1.76 x 101degrees
d) 2.04 x 101degrees
e) 2.35 x 101degrees

430) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the x component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 6a, 5a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

a) 1.33 x 10-3 unit
b) 1.61 x 10-3 unit
c) 1.95 x 10-3 unit
d) 2.36 x 10-3 unit
e) 2.86 x 10-3 unit

431) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the y component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 1.1a, 1.2a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

a) 1.95 x 10-1 unit
b) 2.36 x 10-1 unit
c) 2.86 x 10-1 unit
d) 3.47 x 10-1 unit
e) 4.2 x 10-1 unit

432) A parallel plate capacitor has both plates with an area of 1.15 m2. The separation between the plates is 0.63mm. Applied to the plates is a potential difference of 2.25 kV. What is the capacitance?

a) 16.16 nF.
b) 18.59 nF.
c) 21.37 nF.
d) 24.58 nF.
e) 28.27 nF.

433) The same parallel plate capacitor, with area 1.05 m2, plate separation 0.63mm, and an applied voltage of 4.35 kV. How much charge is stored?

a) 42.21 μC.
b) 48.54 μC.
c) 55.82 μC.
d) 64.19 μC.
e) 73.82 μC.

434) A 0.9 Farad capacitor is charged with 1.1 Coulombs. What is the value of the electric field if the plates are 0.3 mm apart?

a) 2.68 kV/m.
b) 3.08 kV/m.
c) 3.54 kV/m.
d) 4.07 kV/m.
e) 4.69 kV/m.

435) A 0.8 Farad capacitor charged with 1.7 Coulombs. What is the energy stored in the capacitor if the plates are 0.5 mm apart?

a) 1.81 J.
b) 2.08 J.
c) 2.39 J.
d) 2.75 J.
e) 3.16 J.

436) A 1.4 Farad capacitor charged with 1.1 Coulombs. What is the force between the plates if they are 0.6 mm apart?

a) 412 N.
b) 474 N.
c) 545 N.
d) 626 N.
e) 720 N.

437) How fast is a 2355 eV electron moving?

a) 1.9 x 107 m/s.
b) 2.9 x 107 m/s.
c) 4.3 x 107 m/s.
d) 6.5 x 107 m/s.
e) 9.7 x 107 m/s.

438) A proton is accellerated (at rest) from a plate held at 39.7 volts to a plate at zero volts. What is the final speed?

a) 3.9 x 104 m/s.
b) 5.8 x 104 m/s.
c) 8.7 x 104 m/s.
d) 1.3 x 105 m/s.
e) 2 x 105 m/s.

439) What voltage is required accelerate an electron at rest to a speed of 1.5 x 103 m/s?

a) 1.9 x 10-6 volts
b) 2.8 x 10-6 volts
c) 4.3 x 10-6 volts
d) 6.4 x 10-6 volts
e) 9.6 x 10-6 volts

440) What voltage is required to stop a proton moving at a speed of 3.9 x 103 m/s?

a) 3.5 x 10-2 volts
b) 5.3 x 10-2 volts
c) 7.9 x 10-2 volts
d) 1.2 x 10-1 volts
e) 1.8 x 10-1 volts

441) A 5.1 volt battery moves 43 Coulombs of charge in 1.5 hours. What is the power?

a) 4.06 x 10-2 W
b) 4.92 x 10-2 W
c) 5.96 x 10-2 W
d) 7.22 x 10-2 W
e) 8.75 x 10-2 W

442) The diameter of a copper wire is 8.3 mm, and it carries a current of 87 amps. What is the drift velocity if copper has a density of 8.8E3 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 63.54 g/mol? (1 mol = 6.02E23 atoms, and copper has one free electron per atom.)

a) 6.77 x 10-5m/s
b) 8.2 x 10-5m/s
c) 9.93 x 10-5m/s
d) 1.2 x 10-4m/s
e) 1.46 x 10-4m/s

443) A 195 Watt DC motor draws 0.49 amps of current. What is effective resistance?

a) 8.12 x 102 Ω
b) 9.84 x 102 Ω
c) 1.19 x 103 Ω
d) 1.44 x 103 Ω
e) 1.75 x 103 Ω

444) A power supply delivers 110 watts of power to a 299 ohm resistor. What was the applied voltage?

a) 8.42 x 101 volts
b) 1.02 x 102 volts
c) 1.24 x 102 volts
d) 1.5 x 102 volts
e) 1.81 x 102 volts

445) A 819 mF capacitor is connected in series to a 798 kΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

a) 8.27 x 105 s.
b) 2.61 x 106 s.
c) 8.27 x 106 s.
d) 2.61 x 107 s.
e) 8.27 x 107 s.

446) A 65 μF capacitor is connected in series to a 414 kΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

a) 1.08 x 101 s.
b) 3.4 x 101 s.
c) 1.08 x 102 s.
d) 3.4 x 102 s.
e) 1.08 x 103 s.

447) A 727 mF capacitor is connected in series to a 860 MΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e3? (where e =2.7...)

a) 1.88 x 109 s.
b) 5.93 x 109 s.
c) 1.88 x 1010 s.
d) 5.93 x 1010 s.
e) 1.88 x 1011 s.

448) A 10 F capacitor is connected in series to a 10Ω resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

a) 4 x 100 s.
b) 1.26 x 101 s.
c) 4 x 101 s.
d) 1.26 x 102 s.
e) 4 x 102 s.

449) 3 amps flow through a 1 Ohm resistor. What is the voltage?}

a) None these are correct.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}V}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1V}$
d) ${\displaystyle 3V}$

450) A 1 ohm resistor has 5 volts DC across its terminals. What is the current (I) and the power consumed?}

a) I = 5A & P = 3W.
b) I = 5A & P = 5W.
c) I = 5A & P = 9W
d) I = 5A & P = 25W.

451) The voltage across two resistors in series is 10 volts. One resistor is twice as large as the other. What is the voltage across the larger resistor? What is the voltage across the smaller one? }

a) None of these are true.
b) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=6.67V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=3.33V}$.
c) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=3.33V}$ and${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=6.67V}$.
d) ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=5V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=5V}$.

452) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in series. What is the total resistance?}

a) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=3\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=0.5454\Omega }$.
c) None of these are true.
d) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=6\Omega }$.

453) Two identical resistors are connected in series. The voltage across both of them is 250 volts. What is the voltage across each one?}

a) None of these are true.
b) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=150V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=100V}$.
c) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=125V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=125V}$.
d) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=250V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=0V}$.

454) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{11}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{3}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{6}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{6}}\Omega }$.

455) A 5 ohm and a 2 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{10}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{7}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{6}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{10}}\Omega }$.

456) A 7 ohm and a 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {21}{10}}\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{21}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{7}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{11}}\Omega }$.

457) Three 1 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

a) ${\displaystyle 3\Omega }$.
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {2}{3}}\Omega }$.
c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{2}}\Omega }$.
d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}\Omega }$.

458) If you put an infinite number of resistors in parallel, what would the total resistance be?}

a) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach 1 as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity
b) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach Zero as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity.
c) None of these are true.
d) It is not possible to connect that Number of Resistors in parallel.
459) What is the current through R1 and R2 in the figure shown?
a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=25A}$.
b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=16.67A}$.
c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.1667A}$.
d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=1.667A}$.

460) Why do we say the "voltage across" or "the voltage with respect to?" Why can't we just say voltage?}

a) The other point could be Negative or positive.
b) It's an Electrical Cliche.
c) Voltage is a measure of Electric Potential difference between two electrical points.
d) None these are correct
461) What is the current through R1, R2, R3, and R4 in the figure shown?
a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=3.3A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=2.5A}$.
b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.25A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.1A}$.
c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.25A}$.
d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=50A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=25A}$..

462) Two resistors are in parallel with a voltage source. How do their voltages compare?}

a) None of these are true.
b) One has full voltage, the other has none.
c) The voltage across both resistors is the same as the source.
d) The voltage across both resistors is half the voltage of the source.

463) A resistor consumes 5 watts, and its current is 10 amps. What is its voltage?

a) 15V.
b) 10V.
c) 2V.
d) 0.5V.

464) A resistor has 10 volts across it and 4 amps going through it. What is its resistance?}

a) ${\displaystyle 3.5\Omega .}$
b) ${\displaystyle 2.5\Omega .}$
c) ${\displaystyle 4.5\Omega .}$
d) None of these are true.

465) If you plot voltage vs. current in a circuit, and you get a linear line, what is the significance of the slope? }

a) Discriminant.
b) None of these are true.
c) Power.
d) Resistance.

466) A resistor has 3 volts across it. Its resistance is 1.5 ohms. What is the current?}

a) 1.5A
b) 3A
c) 2A
d) 12A

467) A resistor has 8 volts across it and 3 Amps going through it. What is the power consumed?}

a) 8W
b) 3W
c) 2.2W
d) 24W

468) A resistor has a voltage of 5 volts and a resistance of 15 ohms. What is the power consumed? }

a) None of these are ture.
b) 11.67 Joules
c) 1.67 Watts
d) 2.5 Watts

469) A resistor is on for 5 seconds. It consumes power at a rate of 5 watts. How many joules are used?}

a) 3 Joules
b) 25 Joules
c) None of these are true
d) 5 Joules

470) An ideal 9.9 V voltage source is connected to two resistors in parallel. One is 0.9${\displaystyle k\Omega }$, and the other is 1.8 ${\displaystyle k\Omega }$. What is the current through the larger resistor?

a) 3.67 mA.
b) 4.22 mA.
c) 4.85 mA.
d) 5.58 mA.
e) 6.41 mA.

471) A 5.8 ohm resistor is connected in series to a pair of 2.8 ohm resistors that are in parallel. What is the net resistance?

a) 7.2 ohms.
b) 8.3 ohms.
c) 9.5 ohms.
d) 11 ohms.
e) 12.6 ohms.

472) Two 7 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series to a 2.8 ohm resistor. What is the net resistance?

a) 5.5 ohms.
b) 6.3 ohms.
c) 7.2 ohms.
d) 8.3 ohms.
e) 9.6 ohms.

473) An ideal 7.8 volt battery is connected to a 0.064 ohm resistor. To measure the current an ammeter with a resistance of 17${\displaystyle m\Omega }$ is used. What current does the ammeter actually read?

a) 63.3 A.
b) 72.8 A.
c) 83.7 A.
d) 96.3 A.
e) 110.7 A.

474) A battery has an emf of 6.5 volts, and an internal resistance of 244 ${\displaystyle k\Omega }$. It is connected to a 4 ${\displaystyle M\Omega }$ resistor. What power is developed in the 4 ${\displaystyle M\Omega }$ resistor?

a) 7.09 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
b) 8.16 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
c) 9.38 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
d) 10.79 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
e) 12.41 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.

475) A cosmic ray alpha particle encounters Earth's magnetic field at right angles to a field of 7.4 μT. The kinetic energy is 437 keV. What is the radius of particle's orbit?

a) 1.3 x 102 m.
b) 4.1 x 102 m.
c) 1.3 x 103 m.
d) 4.1 x 103 m.
e) 1.3 x 104 m.

476) Two parallel wires are 7.5 meters long, and are separated by 4.4 mm. What is the force if both wires carry a current of 14.8 amps?

a) 2.36 x 10-3 newtons
b) 7.47 x 10-3 newtons
c) 2.36 x 10-2 newtons
d) 7.47 x 10-2 newtons
e) 2.36 x 10-1 newtons

477) Blood is flowing at an average rate of 24.5 cm/s in an artery that has an inner diameter of 3.9 mm. What is the voltage across a hall probe placed across the inner diameter of the artery if the perpendicular magnetic field is 0.17 Tesla?

a) 5.14 x 10-5 Volts
b) 1.62 x 10-4 Volts
c) 5.14 x 10-4 Volts
d) 1.62 x 10-3 Volts
e) 5.14 x 10-3 Volts

478) An electron tube on Earth's surface is oriented horizontally towards magnetic north. The electron is traveling at 0.06c, and Earth's magnetic field makes an angle of 48.5 degrees with respect to the horizontal. To counter the magnetic force, a voltage is applied between two large parallel plates that are 59 mm apart. What must be the applied voltage if the magnetic field is 45μT?

a) 1.1 x 100 volts
b) 3.6 x 100 volts
c) 1.1 x 101 volts
d) 3.6 x 101 volts
e) 1.1 x 102 volts

479) Two orbiting satellites are orbiting at a speed of 52 km/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of 41 μT. They are connected by a cable that is 33 km long. A voltmeter is attached between a satellite and one end of the cable. The voltmeter's internal impedance far exceeds the net resistance through the ionosphere that completes the circuit. What is the measured voltage?

a) 4.79 x 104 volts.
b) 5.81 x 104 volts.
c) 7.04 x 104 volts.
d) 8.52 x 104 volts.
e) 1.03 x 105 volts.

480) An loop of wire with 80 turns has a radius of 0.52 meters, and is oriented with its axis parallel to a magetic field of 0.15 Tesla. What is the induced voltage if this field is reduced to 19% of its original value in 3.6 seconds?

a) 1.06 x 100 volts
b) 1.29 x 100 volts
c) 1.56 x 100 volts
d) 1.89 x 100 volts
e) 2.29 x 100 volts
481)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
482)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
c) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

483) In optics, normal means

a) to the left of the optical axis
b) parallel to the surface
c) perpendicular to the surface
d) to the right of the optical axis

484) The law of reflection applies to

a) curved surfaces
b) flat surfaces
c) only light in a vacuum
d) telescopes but not microscopes
e) both flat and curved surfaces

485) When light passes from air to glass

a) the frequency decreases
b) it does not bend
c) it bends away from the normal
d) it bends towards the normal
e) the frequency increases

486) When light passes from glass to air

a) the frequency decreases
b) it bends away from the normal
c) the frequency increases
d) it does not bend
e) it bends towards the normal

487) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) total external refraction
b) partial internal absorption
c) the Doppler shift
d) total internal reflection
e) the invariance of the speed of light

488) The focal point is where

a) rays meet if they are parallel to each other
b) the center of the lens
c) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
d) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
e) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens

489) An object is placed 8.6 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 9.1 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

a) 2.49 x 100 cm
b) 4.42 x 100 cm
c) 7.86 x 100 cm
d) 1.4 x 101 cm
e) 2.49 x 101 cm

490) An object is placed 4.85 cm to the left of a converging lens with a focal length of 4 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

a) 4.06 x 100 cm
b) 7.22 x 100 cm
c) 1.28 x 101 cm
d) 2.28 x 101 cm
e) 4.06 x 101 cm

491) An object of height 0.67 cm is placed 106 cm behind a diverging lens with a focal length of 61 cm. What is the height of the image?

a) 1.18 x 10-1 cm
b) 1.42 x 10-1 cm
c) 1.7 x 10-1 cm
d) 2.04 x 10-1 cm
e) 2.45 x 10-1 cm

492) An object is placed 13.7 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 17.7 cm. On the side, at a distance of 5.5 cm from the diverging lens is a converging lens with focal length equal to 4 cm. How far is the final image from the converging lens?

a) 5.73 x 10-2 cm
b) 1.81 x 10-1 cm
c) 5.73 x 10-1 cm
d) 1.81 x 100 cm
e) 5.73 x 100 cm

493) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

a)
b)
c) They have the same focal lengh.

494) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
b) at infinity
c) One focal length in front of the eye
d) very far away
e) Two (of the other answers) are true

495) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) false
b) true

496) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)

497) A 5.8 volt battery moves 95 Coulombs of charge in 0.3 hours. What is the power?

a) 4.21 x 10-1 W
b) 5.1 x 10-1 W
c) 6.18 x 10-1 W
d) 7.49 x 10-1 W
e) 9.07 x 10-1 W

498) The diameter of a copper wire is 8.3 mm, and it carries a current of 87 amps. What is the drift velocity if copper has a density of 8.8E3 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 63.54 g/mol? (1 mol = 6.02E23 atoms, and copper has one free electron per atom.)

a) 6.77 x 10-5m/s
b) 8.2 x 10-5m/s
c) 9.93 x 10-5m/s
d) 1.2 x 10-4m/s
e) 1.46 x 10-4m/s

499) A 129 Watt DC motor draws 0.22 amps of current. What is effective resistance?

a) 2.2 x 103 Ω
b) 2.67 x 103 Ω
c) 3.23 x 103 Ω
d) 3.91 x 103 Ω
e) 4.74 x 103 Ω

500) A power supply delivers 110 watts of power to a 299 ohm resistor. What was the applied voltage?

a) 8.42 x 101 volts
b) 1.02 x 102 volts
c) 1.24 x 102 volts
d) 1.5 x 102 volts
e) 1.81 x 102 volts

501) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to

a) an abacus
b) Roman numerals
c) counting rods
d) a person

502) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem

a) false
b) true

503) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved.

a) false
b) true

504) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

a) electromechanical
b) conceptual
c) prototype
d) analog
e) digital

505) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) false
b) true

506) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* If the number is divisible by 10, add 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) false
b) true

507) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to

a) calculate the value of π
b) control a textile mill
c) control a telephone exchange
d) count votes in an election

508) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.}

a) Turing-complete
b) electric digital programmable
c) electromechanical
d) mechanical

509) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was

a) mechanical
b) electromechanical
c) electric digital programmable
d) Turing-complete

510) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

a) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
b) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
c) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
d) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes

511) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

a) false
b) true

512) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

a) false
b) true

513) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

a) false
b) true

514) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.

a) false
b) true

515) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

516) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

517) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)

a) false
b) true

518) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

a) true
b) false

519) Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?

a) low speed
b) high speed
c) low mass
d) confinement to a small space

520) How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?

a) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits
b) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.
c) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.
d) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits

521) What are the units of Plank's constant?

a) mass x velocity x distance
b) all of the above
c) energy x time
d) momentum x distance
e) none of the above

522) What are the units of Plank's constant?

a) all of the above
b) energy x time
c) none of the above
d) mass x velocity
e) momentum x distance x mass

523) How would you describe Old Quantum Theory

a) neither complete nor self-consistent
b) self-consistent but not complete
c) complete and self-consistent
d) complete but not self-consistent

524) The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of

a) light
b) electrons
c) energy
d) protons

525) What are examples of energy?

a) all of the above
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}mv^{2}}$
c) heat
d) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height

526) What are examples of energy?

a) momentum
b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}mv}$
c) heat
d) all of the above

527) What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?

a) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize
b) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation
c) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick
d) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct

528) What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?

a) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur
b) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.
c) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.
d) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.

529) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once every 5 years
b) once every 50 years
c) once a 5 months

530) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines
b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines
c) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

531) An example of a standard candle is

a) all of these are standard candles
b) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark
c) a supernova in a distant galaxy
d) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

532) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 1400km/s
b) 700km/s
c) 350km/s

533) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion
b) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away
c) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

534) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

a) they are not receding away from us
b) they have a wide variety of speeds
c) the cluster is close to us
d) they all have nearly the same speed

535) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light
b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies
c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
d) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

536) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
b) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis
c) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
d) No, the clouds would get hot

537) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

a) false
b) true

538) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) false
b) true

539) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

540) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons. }

a) true
b) false

541) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.}

a) false
b) true

542) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.}

a) false
b) true

543) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years

a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

544) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

a) 4
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2

545) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

a) false
b) true

546) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.

a) true
b) false

547) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______}

a) 34 days;   six months
b) six months;   18 years
c) one month;   18 years
d) 7 days;   one month
e) six months;   54 years

548) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?

a)15,000 years
b)30 years
c)300 years
d)1500 years
e)3000 years
549)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
a) crown gear
b) epicycle gear
c) spiral bevel gear

550) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

a) true
b) false

551) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?

a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
b) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.
c) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.

552) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

a) 500-550 BC
b) 100-150 BC
d) 300-350 BC

553) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.

a) false
b) true

554) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________.

a) Jacques-Yves Cousteau;   1976
b) sponge divers;   1900

555) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?

a) The quality of its manufacture.
b) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
c) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.
d) Chemical analysis of the bronze.

556) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

a) copper;   to make it hard.
b) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
c) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.
d) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.

557) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device

a) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
b) suggested that Roman technology was used.
c) suggested that Greek technology was used.
d) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.

558) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?

a) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
b) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
c) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
d) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.
559) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) A: 000010
b) A: 000100
c) B: 000010
d) B: 000100
560) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
a) A: 000110
b) B: 000110
c) A: 001100
d) B: 000110
561) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) A: 001110
b) B: 000110
c) A: 000110
d) B: 001100
562) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) B: 000111
b) B: 001110
c) A: 001110
d) A: 001110
563) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) A: 011110
c) H: 011110
d) B: 011110
564) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
a) A: 011110
b) H: 011110
c) H: 011110
d) B: 011110

565) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere

a) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.
b) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.
c) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.
d) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.
e) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.

566) ${\displaystyle {\frac {360\,{\text{degrees}}}{30\,{\text{days}}}}={\frac {36}{3}}\,}$, calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______

a) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
c) degrees per hour across the sky
d) degrees per day across the sky

567) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)

a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 4
e) 3

568) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.

a) true
b) false

569) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one

a) month
b) year
c) day
d) week

570) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac

a) false
b) true

571) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

a) true
b) false

572) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

a) false
b) true

573) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations

a) false
b) true

574) ${\displaystyle {\frac {360}{24}}={\frac {36\cdot 10}{12\cdot 2}}={\frac {12\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 2}{12\cdot 2\,}}}$, calculates that the Sun moves 15

a) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
c) degrees per day across the sky
d) degrees per hour across the sky

575) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years

a) 30
b) 100
c) 10
d) 3
e) 300

576) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent

a) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels
b) estimates of the impact on land temperatures
c) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone
d) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future

577) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

a) adaptation to the effects of global warming
b) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming
c) reduction of green house emissions
d) climate engineering

578) Anthropogenic means something that

a) humans cannot repair
b) will hurt humans
c) human caused
d) humans can repair

579) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________

a) land; near the equators
b) air; in the water vapor
c) sea; in the bottom kilometer
d) land; near the poles
e) sea; in the top kilometer

580) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling

a) false
b) true

581) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

a) on the ocean surface
b) near the poles
c) near the equator
d) in the western hemisphere

582) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by

a) all of the academies of science
b) 90% of the academies of science
c) 60% of the academies of science
d) all but the US academy of science

583) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are

a) cement production and land use changes
b) cement production and waste disposal
c) population growth and waste disposal
d) population growth

584) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

a) 0.6° Celsius
b) 0.06° Celsius
c) 1.6° Celsius
d) 0.16° Celsius
e) 16° Celsius

585) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

a) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
b) The United States has warmed more than Australia
c) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
d) all portions of Antarctica have warmed

586) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in

a) the earth's distance from the sun
b) the sun's energy output
c) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
d) the world economy

587) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.}

a) 7.0°C
b) 0.7°C
c) 0.07°C

588) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

a) both of these are true
b) water tends to expand as it warms
c) ice and snow melts

589) What happens when water is heated?

a) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C
b) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
c) it absorbs CO2

590) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

a) false
b) true

591) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

a) false
b) true

592) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun

a) false
b) true

593) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

a) 0.7 °C per year
c) 0.7 °C per century

594) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was

a) twice as much
b) half as much

595) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

b) twice as much
c) half as much

596) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.

a) 0%
b) 3%
c) 30%
d) 0.3%

597) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth

a)false
b) true

598) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.

a) true
b) false

599) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

a) thermometer measurements
b) tree proxy measurements
c) the Little Ice Age
d) a 10 year average
e) the Medieval Warming Period

600) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)

a) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
b) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
c) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements
d) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period

601) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.

a) true
b) false

602) Emissions scenarios are

a) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases
b) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature
c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
d) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans

603) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

a) false
b) true

604) The carbon cycle

a) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
b) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.
c) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.

605) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

a) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming
b) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
c) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface

606) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

607) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) false
b) true

608) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.

a) true
b) false

609) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.

a) false
b) true

610) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?

a) 0%
b) 50%
c) 10%
d) 30%

611) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere

a) false
b) true

612) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

a) true
b) false

613) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

614) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

a) true
b) false

615) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.

a) false
b) true

616) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.

a) true
b) false

617) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

a) greenhouse gasses
b) orbital cycles
c) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)
d) volcanic eruptions

618) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) false
b) true

619) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) false
b) true

620) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.

a) false
b) true

621) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.

a) false
b) true

622) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations

a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.

623) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

a) true
b) false

624) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in

a) how much ice is melted during the summer months
b) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight
c) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun

625) The cryosphere refers to

a) the north and south poles
b) the upper atmosphere
c) the highest mountains
d) two of these are true

626) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

a) false
b) true

627) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.

a) true
b) false

628) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?

a) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.
b) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
c) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
d) all of these are true

629) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

a) false
b) true

630) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet

a) false
b) true

631) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.

a) true
b) false

632) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.

a) true
b) false

633) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.}

a) false
b) true

634) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.}

a) true
b) false

635) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.

a) false
b) true

636) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.

a) false
b) true

637) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

a) the American civil war (1861)
b) the American revolution (1776)
c) World War I (1914)

638) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them

a) is still in use today
b) two of these are true
c) was transported to Germany
d) was sabotaged by workers
e) burned down

639) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

a) weave cotton
b) spin cotton
c) remove seeds
d) pick cotton
e) clean cotton

640) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______

a) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
b) Cottonopolis, textile factories
c) Weavopolis, Weaving factories
d) Coalopolis, coal mines

641) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required

a) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.
b) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).
c) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.

642) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______

a) faster, puddling
b) faster, hammering
c) cheaper, hammering
d) cheaper, puddling

643) Puddling involved

a) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
b) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring
c) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
d) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron

644) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by

a) steam and wind.
b) water and wind.
c) water and steam.

645) The Miner's Friend

a) transported miners
b) pumped water
c) provided ventilation
d) was electrical lighting

646) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to

a) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
c) shape plates for ship hulls
d) drill coal mines

647) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by

a) replacing glass containers with iron containers
b) replacing lead containers with glass containers
c) replacing iron containers with glass containers
d) replacing glass containers with lead containers

648) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years

a) 300
b) 500
c) 100
d) 200
e) 400

649) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

a) removing rust and bleaching cloth
b) producing dyes and making cement
c) removing rust and making cement
d) producing dyes and bleaching cloth
e) making cement and bleaching cloth

650) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in

a) Italy
b) Great Britain
c) United States
d) Germany
e) Sweden

651) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was

a) military spending
b) ship building
c) farm equipment
d) textiles

652) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?

a) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.
b) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
c) the question is a subject of controversy
d) sustained growth, for the first time in history

653) The industrial revolution began in

a) Great Britain
b) Germany
c) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
d) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
e) United States

654) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?

a) steam power
b) textiles
c) assembly lines
d) iron making

655) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect

a) domestic cotton production
b) small manufacturers
c) large manufacturers
d) the woollen industry

656) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

a) weaving, spinning, more
b) weaving, spinning, fewer
c) spinning, weaving, more
d) spinning, weaving, fewer

657) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.

a) spinning, weaving, more
b) weaving, spinning, fewer
c) spinning, weaving, fewer
d) weaving, spinning, more

658) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 6.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 3.0 meters

659) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 11.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 9.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters

660) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 8.0 meters
b) 11.0 meters
c) 9.0 meters
d) 12.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters

661) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 6.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 8.0 meters

662) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 10.0 meters
b) 11.0 meters
c) 9.0 meters
d) 8.0 meters
e) 7.0 meters

663) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 21.0 meters
b) 20.0 meters
c) 23.0 meters
d) 19.0 meters
e) 22.0 meters

664) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 4.0 meters
b) 3.0 meters
c) 6.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 5.0 meters

665) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 12.0 meters
b) 10.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 11.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

666) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 16.0 meters
b) 17.0 meters
c) 19.0 meters
d) 20.0 meters
e) 18.0 meters

667) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 3.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 1.0 meters
e) 2.0 meters

668) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 25.0 meters
b) 26.0 meters
c) 27.0 meters
d) 24.0 meters
e) 23.0 meters

669) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 15.0 meters
b) 17.0 meters
c) 14.0 meters
d) 13.0 meters
e) 16.0 meters

670) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?

a) 3%
b) 33%
c) 13%
d) 63%

671) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

a) neutrons are slow
b) neutrons are stable

672) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

a) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
b) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
c) protons are positively charged
d) protons move at the speed of light

673) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

a) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons
b) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"
c) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)
d) "moonshine";   fast neutrons

674) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________

a) hesperium;   fission
b) fusion;   hesparium
c) fission;   hesparium
d) hesperium;   fusion

675) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

a) nuclear weapons
b) they were developed simultaneously
c) nuclear power generation

a) plutonium and enriched hesparium
b) uranium and enriched plutonium
c) plutonium and enriched uranium

677) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...

b) a world government to prevent nuclear war
c) that fossil fuels would go unused
d) nuclear war

678) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was

a) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
b) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
c) a congressional committee
d) a protest movement centered in US universities

679) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

a) Russia
b) Oak Ridge
c) Virginia
d) Great Britain

680) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was

a) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy
b) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
c) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source

681) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?

a) expected
b) unlikely
c) likely
d) impossible

682) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years

a) false
b) true

683) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines

a) true
b) false

684) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia

a) false
b) true

685) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and

a) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)
b) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
c) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)
d) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).

686) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

a) less
b) comparable
c) more

687) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)

a) less
b) greater

688) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

a) 10
b) 90
c) 50

689) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is

a) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.
b) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.
c) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.
d) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.

690) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______

a) early 20th century
b) late 19th century
c) early 19th century

691) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons

b) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
c) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price

692) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

a) what called neutrons
b) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
c) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
d) what he called alpha particles

693) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure

a) only in the reactor core
b) to slow down the neutrons
c) to prevent it from boiling
d) to reduce the heat required to boil it

694) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

a) 100 times more than
b) 10 times more than
c) 100 times less than
d) 10 times less than

695) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

a) false
b) true

696) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

a) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
b) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
c) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership

697) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium

a) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
b) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
c) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states
d) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns

698) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage

a) false
b) true

699) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage

a) false
b) true

700) Nuclear power plants typically have

a) high capital costs and low fuel costs
b) low capital costs and low fuel costs
c) low capital costs and high fuel costs
d) high capital costs and high fuel costs

701) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?

a) from 0 to 1000
b) zero
c) from 4000 to 25,000

702) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.

a) true
b) false

703) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

a) true
b) false

704) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned

a) 6 years;   30%
b) 6 months;   30%
c) 6 months;   3%
d) 6 years;   3%

705) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries

a) false
b) true

706) The Megatons to Megawatts Program

a) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
b) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure
c) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure
d) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success

707) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

a) 5 months
b) 50 years
c) 5 years

708) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.

a) 40 times more common
b) 4 times less common
c) 40 times less common
d) 4 times more common

709) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are

b) are likely to emerge in the next few decades
c) considered impossible

710) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

a) 3%
b) 99%
c) 1 %
d) 60%
e) 30%

711) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

a) true
b) false

712) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

a) they cannot be stored underground
b) the isotopes are long-lived
c) the isotopes are short-lived

713) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

a) 10 times more than
c) 10 times less than
d) 100 times more than
e) 100 times less than

714) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

a) above a threshold frequency
b) at a specific frequency
c) above a threshold wavelength
d) above a threshold intensity

715) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

a) above a thresholdfrequency
b) at a specific frequency
c) above a threshold wavelength
d) above a threshold intensity

716) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?

a) by measuring the distance between the electrodes
b) by measuring the wavelength of the light
c) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.

717) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

718) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

a) 15
b) 40
c) 10
d) 30

719) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

a) 40
b) 20
c) 1
d) 10
e) 2

720) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

a) true
b) false

721) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) false
b) true

722) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

a) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
c) an unknown Babylonian
d) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)

723) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

a) a wobble in the Moon's orbit
b) precession of the equinoxes
c) precession of the Moon's orbit
d) leap years

724) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

a) season of the year
b) time of day
c) day of the month

725) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

a) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
b) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
c) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
d) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day

726) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
b) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
c) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

727) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

a) 30
b) 5
c) 15
d) 8

728) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

a) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
b) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly
c) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied

729) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) zero
b) up
c) down

730) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

a) up
b) down
c) zero

731) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

732) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) up
c) zero

733) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) southwest
b) south
c) northeast
d) northwest
e) north

734) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northeast
b) northwest
c) north
d) southwest
e) south

735) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) southeast
b) northeast
c) north
d) northwest
e) northeast

736) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) south
b) southwest
c) northeast
d) north
e) northwest

737) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) southwest
b) southeast
c) south
d) northwest
e) west

738) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) south
b) north
c) northeast
d) northwest
e) southeast

739) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the west
b) zero
c) to the east

740) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the east
c) to the west

741) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) to the east
b) zero
c) to the west

742) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

a) zero
b) up
c) down

743) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) north
b) south
c) east
d) zero
e) west

744) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is

a) south
b) west
c) east
d) north
e) zero

745) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) zero
b) away from Earth
c) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
d) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
e) towards Earth

746) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is

a) zero
b) up
c) down

747) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative interference
b) negative diffraction
c) positive diffraction
d) positive interference

748) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes

a) higher
b) unchanged
c) lower

749) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

a) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.
b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
c) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.

750) People don't usually perceive an echo when

a) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound
b) it arrives at a higher pitch
c) it arrives at a lower pitch
d) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
e) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive

751) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,

a) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency

752) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength gets longer
b) the wavelength gets shorter
c) the wavelength stays the same

753) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) has lower amplitude than the incident wave
b) both of these are true
c) has higher frequency than the incident wave

754) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

c) both reverberation and echo
d) neither reverberation nor echo

755) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative diffraction
b) positive diffraction
c) negative interference
d) positive interference

756) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative diffraction
b) positive interference
c) negative interference
d) positive diffraction

757) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

a) dissonance
b) fifth
c) octave

758) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

a) dissonance
b) octave
c) fifth

759) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

a) octave
b) dissonance
c) fifth

760) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

a) Echo usually stifles the beats
b) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
c) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
d) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard

761) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 40
b) 60
c) 30
d) 20
e) 50

762) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes

a) lower
b) higher
c) unchanged

763) Integrate the line integral of, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=9.9xy{\hat {x}}+6.1y^{3}{\hat {y}}}$, along the y axis from y = 7 to y = 16

a) 7.86E+04
b) 8.41E+04
c) 9.00E+04
d) 9.63E+04
e) 1.03E+05

764) Integrate the function, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=r^{6}\theta ^{6}{\hat {r}}+r^{8}\theta ^{7}{\hat {\theta }}}$ , along the first quadrant of a circle of radius 3

a) 6.96E+04
b) 7.44E+04
c) 7.97E+04
d) 8.52E+04
e) 9.12E+04

765) Integrate the line integral of ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=2xy{\hat {x}}+9.7x{\hat {y}}}$ from the origin to the point at x = 2.8 and y = 3.2

a) 5.26E+01
b) 5.62E+01
c) 6.02E+01
d) 6.44E+01
e) 6.89E+01

766) Integrate the function, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=-x^{3}y^{2}{\hat {x}}+x^{5}y^{3}{\hat {y}}}$, as a line integral around a unit square with corners at (0,0),(1,0),(1,1),(0,1). Orient the path so its direction is out of the paper by the right hand rule

a) 5.00E-01
b) 5.35E-01
c) 5.72E-01
d) 6.13E-01
e) 6.55E-01

767) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 21sin(3t-π/6)
b) v(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)
c) v(t) = 21cos(3t-π/6)
d) v(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
e) v(t) = 7cos(3t-π/6)

768) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6), what is the acceleration?

a) a(t) = +63sin(3t-π/6)
b) a(t) = -63sin(3t-π/6)
c) a(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
d) a(t) = +21sin(3t-π/6)
e) a(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)

769) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5cos(4t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 20cos(4t-π/6)
b) v(t) = -20cos(4t-π/6)
c) v(t) = -20sin(4t-π/6)
d) v(t) = 20sin(4t-π/6)
e) v(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6)

770) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 20cos(4t-π/6)
b) v(t) = 20sin(4t-π/6)
c) v(t) = -20sin(4t-π/6)
d) v(t) = -20cos(4t-π/6)
e) v(t) = 5cos(4t-π/6)

771) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7cos(3t-π/6), what is the velocity?

a) v(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6)
b) v(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
c) v(t) = 21cos(3t-π/6)
d) v(t) = 21sin(3t-π/6)
e) v(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)

772) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6), what is the acceleration?

a) a(t) = +20sin(4t-π/6)
b) a(t) = -80sin(4t-π/6)
c) a(t) = -100sin(4t-π/6)
d) a(t) = -100cos(4t-π/6)
e) a(t) = +80sin(4t-π/6)

773) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}=}$

a) −3
b) −7
c) 2
d) 3
e) −3

774) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) s−1
b) s−4
c) 5−s
d) 1−s
e) 5

775) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {F}}=}$:

a) 2
b) 3/2
c) 3
d) 2/3
e) 1/2

776) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 3 to x = 7. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (7, 8)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 8
b) s−7
c) 3−s
d) s−3
e) 7−s

777) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 3 to x = 7. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (7, 8)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}=}$:

a) 72 + (3−s)2
b) (7-s)2 + 82
c) 72 + (8−s)2
d) 32 + 82
e) 72 + 82

778) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$

a) 7−s
b) 3−s
c) s−3
d) 3
e) s−7

779) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where${\displaystyle {\mathcal {F}}=}$

a) 3/2
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1/2

780) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 2 to y = 7. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (2, 9)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) s − 9
b) 2
c) s − 2
d) 2 − s
e) 9 − s

781) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 2 to y = 7. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (2, 9)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}=}$:

a) 22 + (7-s)2
b) 92 + (2-s)2
c) 72 + (2-s)2
d) 22 + (9-s)2
e) 92 + (7-s)2

782) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 4 to x = 8. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (8, 4)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {A}}=}$:

a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
d) 1/2

783) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 4 to x = 8. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (8, 4)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 4
b) 4−s
c) s−4
d) s−8
e) 8−s

784) A line of charge density λ situated on the x axis extends from x = 4 to x = 8. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (8, 4)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 4−s
b) 8−s
c) s−8
d) s−4
e) 4

785) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the x component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {C}}=}$:

a) 1−s
b) 5
c) 5−s
d) s−4
e) s−1

786) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much less than the radius: H << R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, z, on axis from the center if z > H/2?

a)c) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho z}$
b) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=\rho z}$
c)b) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho }$
d)e) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho /2}$
e)d) none of these are correct

787) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much less than the radius: H << R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, z, on axis from the center if z < H/2?

a)e) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho z}$
b)c) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=\rho z}$
c)d) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho }$
d)b) none of these are correct
e) ${\displaystyle \varepsilon _{0}E=H\rho /2}$

788) A sphere has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$, and a radius or R. What formula describes the electric field at a distance r > R?

a)e) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /3}$
b)b) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /2}$
c)c) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /3}$
d)d) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /2}$
e) none of these are correct

789) A sphere has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$, and a radius equal to R. What formula describes the electric field at a distance r < R?

a)b) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /3}$
b)d) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /3}$
c) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{3}\rho /2}$
d)e) ${\displaystyle r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho /2}$
e)c) none of these are correct

790) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much greater than the radius: H >> R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, r, radially from the center if r < R?

a)d) none of these are correct
b)e) ${\displaystyle 2r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho }$
c)c) ${\displaystyle 2\varepsilon _{0}E=r\rho }$
d) ${\displaystyle 2R\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{2}\rho }$
e)b) ${\displaystyle 2r\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{2}\rho }$

791) A cylinder of radius, R, and height H has a uniform charge density of ${\displaystyle \rho }$. The height is much greater than the radius: H >> R. The electric field at the center vanishes. What formula describes the electric field at a distance, r, radially from the center if r > R?

a)e) ${\displaystyle 2r^{2}\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{3}\rho }$
b)b) ${\displaystyle 2\varepsilon _{0}E=r\rho }$
c) ${\displaystyle 2R\varepsilon _{0}E=r^{2}\rho }$
d)d) none of these are correct
e)c) ${\displaystyle 2r\varepsilon _{0}E=R^{2}\rho }$

792) A cylinder of radius, r=2, and height, h=4, is centered at the origin and oriented along the z axis. A vector field can be expressed in cylindrical coordinates as,
${\displaystyle {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}=(2.14+2.8z)\rho ^{2}{\hat {\rho }}+9.94z^{2}{\hat {z}}}$
Let ${\displaystyle {\hat {n}}}$ be the outward unit normal to this cylinder and evaluate ,
${\displaystyle \left|\int _{top}{\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}\cdot {\hat {n}}dA\right|\,}$
over the top surface of the cylinder.

a) 2.810E+02
b) 3.404E+02
c) 4.124E+02
d) 4.996E+02
e) 6.053E+02

793) A cylinder of radius, r=2, and height, h=4, is centered at the origin and oriented along the z axis. A vector field can be expressed in cylindrical coordinates as,
${\displaystyle {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}=(2.05+2.05z)\rho ^{2}{\hat {\rho }}+9.62z^{3}{\hat {z}}}$
Let ${\displaystyle {\hat {n}}}$ be the outward unit normal to this cylinder and evaluate ,
${\displaystyle \left|\int _{side}{\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}\cdot {\hat {n}}dA\right|\,}$
over the curved side surface of the cylinder.

a) 2.318E+02
b) 2.808E+02
c) 3.402E+02
d) 4.122E+02
e) 4.994E+02

794) A cylinder of radius, r=2, and height, h=6, is centered at the origin and oriented along the z axis. A vector field can be expressed in cylindrical coordinates as,
${\displaystyle {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}=(1.93+2.31z)\rho ^{3}{\hat {\rho }}+7.21z^{2}{\hat {z}}}$
Let ${\displaystyle {\hat {n}}}$ be the outward unit normal to this cylinder and evaluate ,
${\displaystyle \left|\oint {\vec {\mathfrak {F}}}\cdot {\hat {n}}dA\right|\,}$
over the entire surface of the cylinder.

a) 5.40E+02
b) 6.55E+02
c) 7.93E+02
d) 9.61E+02
e) 1.16E+03

795) Amphere's law for magnetostatic currents is that ${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}=\int {\vec {J}}\cdot {\vec {dA}}}$ equals the current enclosed by the closed loop, and ${\displaystyle B=\mu _{0}H}$ is the magnetic field. A current of 4.9A flows upward along the z axis. Noting that for this geometry, ${\displaystyle \oint {\vec {B}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}=B\oint d\ell }$, calculate the line integral ${\displaystyle \oint d\ell }$ for a circle of radius 4.2m.

a) 2.00E+01 m
b) 2.19E+01 m
c) 2.41E+01 m
d) 2.64E+01 m
e) 2.89E+01 m

796) If ${\displaystyle H=B/\mu _{0}}$, where ${\displaystyle B}$ is magnetic field, what is ${\displaystyle H}$ at a distance of 9.8m from a wire carrying a current of 6.9A?

a) 1.02E-01 A/m
b) 1.12E-01 A/m
c) 1.23E-01 A/m
d) 1.35E-01 A/m
e) 1.48E-01 A/m

797) If ${\displaystyle H=B/\mu _{0}}$, where ${\displaystyle B}$ is magnetic field, what is ${\displaystyle H_{y}}$ at the point (7.8338,2.4233) if a current of 7.2A flows through a wire that runs along the z axis?

a) 1.01E-01 A/m
b) 1.11E-01 A/m
c) 1.22E-01 A/m
d) 1.34E-01 A/m
e) 1.46E-01 A/m

798) A very long and thin solenoid has 2175 turns and is 134 meters long. The wire carrys a current of 7.6A. What is the magnetic field in the center?

a) 1.29E-04 Tesla
b) 1.41E-04 Tesla
c) 1.55E-04 Tesla
d) 1.70E-04 Tesla
e) 1.86E-04 Tesla

799) A very long and thin solenoid has 2376 turns and is 156 meters long. The wire carrys a current of 7.6A. If this solenoid is sufficiently thin, what is the line integral of${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$ along an on-axis path that starts 49 meters from the center and stops 102 meters from the center?

a) 2.32E+03 A
b) 2.55E+03 A
c) 2.79E+03 A
d) 3.06E+03 A
e) 3.36E+03 A

800) What is the sum of 0.8 apples plus 18 apples?

a) 1.56E+01 apples
b) 1.71E+01 apples
c) 1.88E+01 apples
d) 2.06E+01 apples
e) 2.26E+01 apples

801) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 94A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from the point (0,8.4) to the point (8.4,0).

a) 1.63E+01 amps
b) 1.78E+01 amps
c) 1.95E+01 amps
d) 2.14E+01 amps
e) 2.35E+01 amps

802) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 87A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from the point (-6.1, 6.1) to the point (6.1, 6.1).

a) 1.50E+01 amps
b) 1.65E+01 amps
c) 1.81E+01 amps
d) 1.98E+01 amps
e) 2.18E+01 amps

803) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 39A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from the point (0,8.5) to the point (8.5,8.5).

a) 4.88E+00 amps
b) 5.35E+00 amps
c) 5.86E+00 amps
d) 6.43E+00 amps
e) 7.05E+00 amps

804) H is defined by, B=μ0H, where B is magnetic field. A current of 74A passes along the z-axis. Use symmetry to find the integral, ${\displaystyle \int {\vec {H}}\cdot {\vec {d\ell }}}$, from (-∞,8.2) to (+,8.2).

a) 3.37E+01 amps
b) 3.70E+01 amps
c) 4.06E+01 amps
d) 4.45E+01 amps
e) 4.88E+01 amps

805) A circlular capactitor of radius 4.1 m has a gap of 14 mm, and a charge of 24 μC. What is the electric field between the plates?

a) 4.24E+04 N/C (or V/m)
b) 5.13E+04 N/C (or V/m)
c) 6.22E+04 N/C (or V/m)
d) 7.53E+04 N/C (or V/m)
e) 9.13E+04 N/C (or V/m)

806) A circlular capactitor of radius 4.5 m has a gap of 19 mm, and a charge of 13 μC. Compute the surface integral ${\displaystyle c^{-2}\oint {\vec {E}}\cdot d{\vec {A}}}$ over an inner face of the capacitor.

a) 1.35E-11 Vs2m-1
b) 1.63E-11 Vs2m-1
c) 1.98E-11 Vs2m-1
d) 2.40E-11 Vs2m-1
e) 2.91E-11 Vs2m-1

807) A circlular capactitor of radius 4 m has a gap of 16 mm, and a charge of 48 μC. The capacitor is discharged through a 9 kΩ resistor. What is the decay time?

a) 1.16E-04 s
b) 1.41E-04 s
c) 1.71E-04 s
d) 2.07E-04 s
e) 2.50E-04 s

808) A circlular capactitor of radius 4.3 m has a gap of 15 mm, and a charge of 21 μC. The capacitor is discharged through a 7 kΩ resistor. What is what is the maximum magnetic field at the edge of the capacitor? (There are two ways to do this; you should know both.)

a) 1.62E-09 Tesla
b) 2.04E-09 Tesla
c) 2.57E-09 Tesla
d) 3.23E-09 Tesla
e) 4.07E-09 Tesla

### Key

1) ____ motion is in the usual direction, and _______ is motion that has temporarily reversed itself.

-c) indirect; direct
-d) direct; elliptical

2) Under what conditions would a planet not seem to rise in the east and set in the west?

-a) if the observer is below the equator
+b) if the observer is near the north or south poles
-c) if the planet is in direct motion
-d) if the planet is in retrograde motion
-e) if the planet is in elliptical motion

3) When the faster moving Earth overtakes a slower planet outside Earth's orbit

-a) tidal forces can be observed on the planet
-b) tidal forces can be observed on Earth
-c) two of these are true
-d) all of these are true

4) Which planet spends more days in a given retrograde?

-a) It depends on the season
-b) They are all equal
+c) Saturn
-d) Mars
-e) Earth

5) Which planet has more days between two consecutive retrogrades?

-a) They are all equal
-b) Earth
+c) Mars
-d) Saturn
-e) It depends on the season

6) A planet that is very, very far from the Sun would be in retrograde for approximately ___ months.

+a) 6
-b) 24
-c) 12
-d) 1
-e) 3

7) If a planet that is very, very far from the Sun begins a retrograde, how many months must pass before it begins the next retrograde?

-a) 6
-b) 1
-c) 24
-d) 3
+e) 12

8) Planet comes from the Greek word for 'wanderer'.

-a) false
+b) true

9) We know that Galileo saw Neptune, but is not credited with its discovery because

-a) he thought it was a moon of Saturn
-b) it was too faint to be worth drawing
+c) it was in a transition between retrograde and direct motion
-d) none of these are true
-e) he never published his drawing

10) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about an individual molecule. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which has the greater escape velocity?

-a) all molecules move at the escape velocity
-b) no molecules have escape velocity
+c) all molecules have the same escape velocity
-d) the lighter molecule has the greater escape velocity
-e) the heavier molecule has the greater escape velocity

11) It is important to distinguish between molecules (collectively) in a gas and one individual molecule. This question is about a typical molecule in the gas. For a planet with a given mass, size, and density, which type of gas is more likely to escape?

-a) atoms in a gas with more atomic mass are more likely to escape
-b) atoms in a colder gas are more likely to escape
-c) all types of gas are equally likely to escape
+d) atoms in a hotter gas is more likely to escape
-e) atoms in a denser gas are more likely to escape

12) Which type of gas is likely to have the faster particles?

-a) a hot gas with high mass atoms
+b) a hot gas with low mass atoms
-c) a cold gas with low mass atoms
-d) all gasses on a given planet have the same speed
-e) a cold gas with high mass atoms

13) What is it about the isotopes of Argon-36 and Argon-38 that causes their relative abundance to be so unusual on Mars?

+a) different speed
-b) different half-life
-c) identical abundance
-d) identical mass
-e) different chemical properties

14) In the formula, ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }v_{\mathrm {escape} }^{2}=G_{\mathrm {Newton} }{\frac {M_{\mathrm {planet} }m_{\mathrm {atom} }}{r_{\mathrm {planet} }}}}$, which of the following is FALSE?

-a) the formula can be used to estimate how fast an atom must move before exiting the planet
-b) the particle is assumed to have been launched vertically
-c) the formula is valid only if the particle is launched from the surface of planet of radius rplanet
-d) vescape is independent of matom
+e) the formula is valid for all launch angles

15) What statement is FALSE about ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T}$?

-a) Temperature is measured in Kelvins
+b) Temperature is measured in Centigrades
-c) This equation does not involve the size or mass of the planet.
-d) The average speed of a low mass particle is higher than the average speed of a high mass particle
-e) The kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature.

16) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}m_{\mathrm {atom} }\langle v_{\mathrm {atom} }^{2}\rangle _{ave}={\frac {1}{2}}k_{\mathrm {B} }T}$, where T is temperature on the Kelvin scale. This formula describes:

-a) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the planet.
+b) The speed of a typical atom, where m is the mass of the atom.
-c) The the speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass planet.
-d) The speed an atom needs to escape the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.
-e) The speed an atom needs to orbit the planet, where m is the mass of the atom.

17) The trip by New Horizons from Earth to Pluto took almost a

-b) year
-c) month
-d) week
-e) century

18) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed in order to learn something about Pluto's

-a) mass
-b) size
+c) atmosphere

19) The "Chasing Pluto" video showed a stellar occultation that was observed

-a) from the Hubble Space Telescope in 1998
-b) from the 200 inch Hale Telescope in 1968
+c) from a cargo plane in 1988
-d) from the Keck Observatory in 1994

20) A stellar occultation occurs when a planet passes in front of a star

+a) true
-b) false

21) A stellar occultation occurs when the north or south pole of a planet is aligned with a star

-a) true
+b) false

22) Stellar occultation tells something about a planet because

-a) blocking the nearby stars allows a better view of the planet
-b) the orientation of the planet's rotation about its axis can be precisely determined
-c) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are emission lines
+d) the star acts as a light source for the detection of planetary spectral lines that are absorption lines

23) Silicon carbide was used to construct the telescope LORRI because this material is

-a) light
-b) not prone to warp at low temperature
-c) strong
+d) all of these

24) The darker portions of Pluto are believe to be from "snowflakes" of

-a) silicates
-b) nitrogen
-c) water
+d) hydrocarbons

25) "Pepssi", "Rex", "Swap", "Lorri", "Alice" and "Ralf" are

+a) instruments on the New Horizon
-b) Kuiper objects discovered by New Horizon
-c) asteroids discovered by New Horizon
-d) named after friends of the cartoon charactor 'Pluto'
-e) the people responsible for calculating the orbit of New Horizon

26) What was the concern about taking a telescope/camera to the cold environment near Pluto?

-a) the electronics might fail
-b) the plates might crack
+c) the telescope might bend
-d) the the mirror might crack

27) As New Horizon's approaches Jupiter, it was essential that

-a) avoid hitting the moons of Jupiter
-b) avoid going into the rings of Jupiter
+c) it approach Jupiter closely enough for Jupiter's gravity to pull New Horizons to a 20% higher speed

28) The time to reach __________ was shortened from 9 days to 3 hours due to the speed of the rocket that delivered New Horizons

-a) Jupiter
-b) Mars
+c) the Moon
-d) the asteroid belt

29) While close to Jupiter, New Horizons the most spectacular image was of

-a) a newly discovered moon
-b) the great red spot
+c) a live volcano
-d) Jupiter's rings

30) The Kuiper belt has been described as a ___________ made of ___________

-a) deep freeze ... rock and metal
-b) mystery band ... rock and ice
+c) deep freeze ... rock and ice
-d) mystery band ... rock and metal

31) For most of its nine-year journey, it was asleep, but once a week, the New Horizon's spacecraft

+a) called MOM
-c) photographed EARTH
-d) photographed PLUTO

32) Clyde Tombaugh, who discovered Pluto back in the 1930s

-a) had resigned from a position at Yale to focus his efforts on discovering "Planet X"
-b) privately funded the Lowell observatory
+c) was self educated

33) Clyde Tombaugh's reward for discovering Pluto was

+a) a college education
-b) a Nobel prize
-c) an invitation to teach at Yale

+a) the location of an object on two different days
-b) the atmosphere around an object with the object itself
-c) the size of two different objects

35) A typical average radio station uses 50,000 watts to transmit a signal. The transmitter on New Horizons used

-a) 5 times less power
-b) 5 times more power
-c) 5 thousand times more power
-d) almost the same amount of power
+e) 5 thousand times less power

36) Mike Brown's search for another Pluto-like object eventually led to the discovery of Eris in 2005. What was the first clue that Eris was larger than Pluto?

+a) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that slowly
-b) It was brighter in the sky than Pluto
-c) it had a surprisingly large influence on Pluto's orbit
-d) it was surprisingly bright for an object moving that quickly

37) Pluto ceased to be called a planet in 2006, after the IAU defined a planet of our Sun as an object that is (1) in orbit around the Sun, (2) roughly spherical due to it's mass, and (3):

-a) is more massive than Mercury
-b) is larger than Earth's moon
-c) lies in the same plane as the other nine planets
+d) has cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.
-e) has a nearly circular orbit

38) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually pushes Pluto away

-a) false
+b) true

39) When the discovery of the "ninth planet" was made in 1930, the name Pluto was chosen after a cartoon that was a common childhood experience shared by most astronomers of the day

+a) false
-b) true

40) The influence of Jupiter's gravity on Pluto is that Jupiter gradually brings Pluto closer

-a) true
+b) false

41) Which was NOT listed as one of the three things commonly considered necessary for the formation of life?

-a) water
-b) energy
-c) organic matter
+d) sunlight

42) As New Horizon approached Jupiter, it looked for new Moons, and the ground crew was glad that

-a) the New Horizon discovered three new moons
-b) there were no new moons because moons are capable of capturing spacecraft
+c) there were no new moons because moons are debris generators
43)
The image to the right corresponds to
+a)
-b)
44)
The image to the right corresponds to
+a)
-b)
45)
These two images of Pluto represent:
-a) New Horizon and the Hubble Space Telescope
-b) New Horizon mid-way to Pluto and near Pluto
-c) New Horizon near Earth and mid-way to Pluto
+d) raw and processed images
-e) a land-based telescope and the Hubble Space Telescope

46) The atmosphere of Pluto

-a) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from the Moons
-b) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Jupiter
-c) emerges when the surface thaws due to tidal heating from Neptune
+d) emerges when the surface thaws as it approaches the Sun
-e) is mostly oxygen

47) Energy for the New Horizon is provided by

-a) fuel cells
-b) lithium batteries
-c) solar power
+d) nuclear power

48) As it approached Pluto, New Horizon was slightly larger than

-a) the Hubble Space Telescope
+b) a grand piano
-c) a 10 story building

49) How does the density of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from Jupiter?

-a) all the moons have nearly the same density
-b) the less dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
-c) the density of the moons is unknown
-d) the most dense moon is neither the closest nor the most distant
+e) the more dense moon is closer to Jupiter (always)

50) How does the mass of a Galilean moon depend on its distance from the central body?

-a) all the moons have nearly the same mass
-b) the more massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
-c) the less massive moon is closer to Jupiter (always)
-d) the mass of the moons is unknown
+e) the most massive moon is neither the closest nor the most distant

51) Does Jupiter's moon Io have craters?

-a) yes, about half from impacts and the others from volcanoes
-b) no, the surface is too new
+c) yes, from volcanoes
-d) yes, from impacts
-e) no, the surface is too old

52) The mechanism that heats the cores of the Galilean moons is

+b) tides from the other moons and Jupiter
-c) radioactive decay of heavy elements
-d) tides from Jupiter
-e) radiation from the Sun and from Jupiter

53) Immediately after publication of Newton's laws of physics (Principia), it was possible to "calculate" the mass of Jupiter. What important caveat applied to this calculation?

-a) The different moons yielded vastly different values for the mass of Jupiter.
-b) tides from the other moons and Jupiter.
-c) They needed to wait over a decade for Jupiter to make approximately one revolution around the Sun.
-d) The different moons yielded slightly different values for the mass of Jupiter.
+e) Only the mass of Jupiter relative to that of the Sun could be determined.

54) Ganymede, Europa, and Io have ratios in __________ that are 1:2:4.

-a) density
-b) Argon isotope abundance
-c) rotational period
+d) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
-e) orbital period

55) Which of Jupiter's moons has an anhydrous core?

-a) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
-b) Ganymede
+c) Io
-d) Ganymede
-e) Europa
56)

The black spot in this image of Jupiter is
+a) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
-b) the shadow of a moon
-c) a magnetic storm
-d) an electric storm
-e) a solar eclipse

57) Although there is some doubt as to who discovered Jupiter's great red spot, it is generally credited to

-a) Galileo in 1605
-b) Newton in 1668
+c) Cassini in 1665
-d) Tycho in
-e) Messier in 1771

58) The bands in the atmosphere of Jupiter are associated with a patter of alternating wind velocities that are

+a) both of these
-b) easterly and westerly
-c) updrafts and downdrafts

59) As one descends down to Jupiter's core, the temperature

-a) decreases
+b) increases

60) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

-a) Jupiter emits more energy than it receives from the Sun
-b) Jupiter has a system of rings
-c) Jupiter has four large moons and many smaller ones
+d) Jupiter is the largest known planet
-e) The Great Red Spot is a storm that has raged for over 300 years

61) What is the mechanism that heats the interior of Jupiter?

+a) rain
-b) magnetism
-c) electricity
-e) tides

62) Why is Jupiter an oblate spheroid?

-a) tides from the Jupiter's moons
-c) tides from the Sun
-d) tides from other gas planets
-e) revolution around Sun

63) What statement best describes the Wikipedia's explanation of the helium (He) content of Jupiter's upper atmosphere (relative to the hydrogen (H) content)?

-a) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen fell to the core.
-b) Jupiter's atmosphere has 80% more He because Jupiter's hydrogen escaped into space.
-c) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He escaped into space.
-d) Jupiter and the Sun have nearly the same ratio of He to H.
+e) Jupiter's atmosphere has only 80% as much helium because the He fell to the core.

64) Where is the Sun-Jupiter barycenter?

-a) At the center of the Sun
-b) Just above Jupiter's surface
-c) The question remains unresolved
-d) At the center of Jupiter
+e) Just above the Sun's surface

65) The barycenter of two otherwise isolated celestial bodies is?

-a) a place where two bodies exert equal and opposite gravitational forces
-b) both of these are true
+c) the focal point of two elliptical orbital paths

66) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the total mass

+a) FALSE
-b) TRUE

67) Knowing the barycenter of two stars is useful because it tells us the ratio of the two masses

+a) TRUE
-b) FALSE

68) Kepler began his career as a teacher of

-a) philosophy
-b) history
+c) mathematics
-d) theology
-e) astronomy

69) As a child, Kepler's interest in astronomy grew as a result of

-a) a comet
-b) a solar eclipse
-c) a lunar eclipse
-d) watching his uncle make a telescope
+e) two of these

70) When Kepler's studies at the university were over, what he really wanted to do was

-a) work with Newton
+b) become a minister
-c) visit Athens
-d) visit Rome
-e) work with Tycho

71) Which of the following is NOT associated with Kepler's Laws

-a) planets speed up as they approach the sun
-b) elliptical paths for the planets
-c) Earth orbits the sun
+d) circular motions with epicycles
-e) planets farther from the Sun have longer orbital periods.

72) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated at one focal point of the ellipse

+a) true
-b) false

73) As a planet orbits the Sun, the Sun is situated midway between the two focal points of the ellipse

+a) false
-b) true

74) Newton was able to use the motion of the Moon to calculate the universal constant of gravity, G

+a) false
-b) true

75) The force of (gravitational) attraction between you and a friend is small because neither of you possess significant mass

+a) true
-b) false

76) Cavendish finally measured G by carefully weighing the force between

-a) Earth and Moon
-b) Sun and Moon
-c) Earth and Sun
-e) Jupiter and moons

77) Kepler is also known for his improvements to

-a) translations of the Bible
-b) Ptolemy's star charts
-c) a perpetual motion machine
-d) the abacus
+e) the telescope

78) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

-a) true
+b) false

79) In Kepler's era, astronomy was usually considered a part of mathematics

-a) false
+b) true

80) In Kepler's era, astronomy closely linked to astrology

+a) true
-b) false

81) In Kepler's era, physics (how and why things moved) was usually considered a part of natural philosophy

-a) false
+b) true

82) Kepler incorporated religious arguments and reasoning into his work

-a) false
+b) true

83) Kepler avoided religious arguments and reasoning in his work

+a) false
-b) true

84) How would one describe the status of Kepler's family when he was a child?

-a) wealth and of noble birth
-b) neither wealthy nor of noble birth
-c) his father and grandfather were scientists
-d) wealthy but not of noble birth
+e) of noble birth, but in poverty

85) At 6am a waning crescent moon would be}

-a) below the western horizon
-b) high in western sky
-c) eastern horizon
-d) below the eastern horizon
+e) high in eastern sky

86) At 3pm a third quarter moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
+b) below the western horizon
-d) eastern horizon

87) At noon a waning crescent moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
+e) high in western sky

88) At 9pm a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon
-b) below the western horizon
+c) western horizon
-e) high in eastern sky

89) At 9am a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
-c) below the western horizon
+d) eastern horizon

90) At 3am a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) below the western horizon
-c) high in western sky
-d) below the eastern horizon

91) At 3am a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) western horizon
-b) high in western sky
-e) eastern horizon

92) At 9am a third quarter moon would be}

-a) western horizon
-c) below the eastern horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
+e) high in western sky

93) At 9pm a 1st quarter moon would be}

-a) below the western horizon
-b) high in eastern sky
+c) high in western sky
-e) eastern horizon

94) At 3pm a new moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
+b) high in western sky
-e) below the eastern horizon

95) At 3pm a waning crescent moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
-b) high in western sky
+c) western horizon
-d) below the eastern horizon

96) At 9pm a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) high in western sky
-c) below the eastern horizon
-e) below the western horizon

97) At 3pm a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) below the eastern horizon
-b) high in western sky
-c) high in eastern sky
-d) below the western horizon
+e) eastern horizon

98) At midnight a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon
-b) below the western horizon
-c) western horizon
-d) high in western sky
+e) high in eastern sky

99) At 6am a waxing crescent moon would be}

+a) below the eastern horizon
-c) eastern horizon
-e) below the western horizon

100) At 9pm a new moon would be}

-a) high in western sky
+c) below the western horizon
-d) below the eastern horizon
-e) western horizon

101) At 9pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

+b) eastern horizon
-c) high in eastern sky
-d) below the western horizon
-e) high in western sky

102) At 3am a 1st quarter moon would be}

+a) below the western horizon
-b) eastern horizon
-c) high in eastern sky
-e) high in western sky

103) At 3pm a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) below the eastern horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
-e) eastern horizon

104) At 9am a new moon would be}

+a) high in eastern sky
-b) below the western horizon
-c) high in western sky
-d) eastern horizon

105) At 9am a waning crescent moon would be}

-c) below the eastern horizon
-d) eastern horizon
-e) western horizon

106) At 9am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon
-b) high in western sky
-d) high in eastern sky
-e) western horizon

107) At 3am a waning crescent moon would be}

-b) western horizon
+c) eastern horizon
-e) high in eastern sky

108) At midnight a waning crescent moon would be}

-a) below the western horizon
+d) below the eastern horizon
-e) western horizon

109) At 9pm a full moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon
+b) high in eastern sky
-e) below the western horizon

110) At 6am a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) eastern horizon
+b) high in western sky
-c) below the western horizon
-d) below the eastern horizon

111) At 3pm a full moon would be}

-a) western horizon
-b) high in eastern sky
+c) below the eastern horizon
-d) below the western horizon

112) At midnight a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) below the eastern horizon
+b) high in western sky
-c) high in eastern sky
-e) below the western horizon

113) At 9am a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
+b) western horizon
-c) high in western sky

114) At 3am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) below the eastern horizon
+c) western horizon
-d) high in western sky

115) At 6pm a waning crescent moon would be}

-a) western horizon
-b) eastern horizon
+d) below the western horizon
-e) below the eastern horizon

116) At 3am a new moon would be}

+b) below the eastern horizon
-d) eastern horizon
-e) high in eastern sky

117) At noon a waxing gibbous moon would be}

+a) below the eastern horizon
-b) high in western sky
-e) high in eastern sky

118) At 9am a 1st quarter moon would be}

+a) below the eastern horizon
-c) below the western horizon
-d) western horizon
-e) high in western sky

119) At 3pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

-c) high in western sky
-d) western horizon
-e) eastern horizon

120) At 9am a full moon would be}

-b) western horizon
-c) below the eastern horizon
+d) below the western horizon
-e) eastern horizon

121) At 6pm a waxing gibbous moon would be}

-a) below the western horizon
-c) western horizon
-d) eastern horizon
+e) high in eastern sky

122) At 9pm a third quarter moon would be}

-a) high in western sky
+c) below the eastern horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
-e) below the western horizon

123) At 9pm a waning crescent moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
-b) high in western sky
-d) eastern horizon
-e) below the eastern horizon

124) At noon a waxing crescent moon would be}

-b) high in western sky
+d) high in eastern sky
-e) eastern horizon

125) At 3am a third quarter moon would be}

-b) below the western horizon
-c) eastern horizon
-d) below the eastern horizon
+e) high in eastern sky

126) At 3am a full moon would be}

+a) high in western sky
-b) below the western horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
-e) western horizon

127) At 6pm a waxing crescent moon would be}

+a) high in western sky
-b) western horizon
-e) eastern horizon

128) At 3pm a 1st quarter moon would be}

+a) high in eastern sky
-b) western horizon
-c) high in western sky
-d) below the eastern horizon
-e) below the western horizon

129) At noon a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) western horizon
+b) below the western horizon
-c) high in western sky

130) At midnight a waxing crescent moon would be}

-a) high in eastern sky
+b) below the western horizon
-d) high in western sky
-e) eastern horizon

131) At 6am a waxing gibbous moon would be}

+a) below the western horizon
-b) eastern horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
-e) below the eastern horizon

132) At 6pm a waning gibbous moon would be}

-a) below the western horizon
-b) high in western sky
+c) below the eastern horizon
-d) high in eastern sky
-e) western horizon

133) At midnight a new moon would be

-a) eastern horizon
+b) below the horizon
-c) western horizon

134) At midnight a full moon would be

-a) eastern horizon
-b) western horizon
-c) below the horizon

135) At 6pm a third quarter moon would be

-b) western horizon
-c) eastern horizon
+d) below the horizon

136) At 6am a 1st quarter moon would be

-b) western horizon
+c) below the horizon
-d) eastern horizon

137) At noon a full moon would be

-a) eastern horizon
-b) western horizon
+c) below the horizon

138) At 6pm a full moon would be

-a) western horizon
+c) eastern horizon
-d) below the horizon

139) At 6pm a 1st quarter moon would be

-a) below the horizon
-c) eastern horizon
-d) western horizon

140) At 6am a full moon would be

-a) below the horizon
-b) eastern horizon
+c) western horizon

141) At noon a third quarter moon would be

+a) western horizon
-b) below the horizon
-d) eastern horizon

142) At noon a 1st quarter moon would be

+a) eastern horizon
-b) western horizon
-c) below the horizon

143) At noon a new moon would be

-a) western horizon
-b) eastern horizon
-d) below the horizon

144) At 6pm a new moon would be

-a) below the horizon
+b) western horizon
-d) eastern horizon

145) At 6am a third quarter moon would be

-b) below the horizon
-c) western horizon
-d) eastern horizon

146) At midnight a third quarter moon would be

+a) eastern horizon
-b) western horizon
-c) below the horizon

147) At midnight a 1st quarter moon would be

+a) western horizon
-b) eastern horizon
-d) below the horizon

148) At 6am a new moon would be

-a) below the horizon
+b) eastern horizon
-c) western horizon
149)
Giovanni Schiaparelli 1877
Lowell circa 1914.
These drawings by Schiaparelli and Lowell were ultimately shown to be:

-a) rift valleys
-b) rilles
-c) slip faults
+d) optical illusions
-e) subduction zones

150) Antipodal to the Tharsis bulge is

-a) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an active volcano
-b) What Wikipedia contends IS an active volcano
-c) What Wikipedia contends MIGHT BE an impact basin
+d) What Wikipedia contends IS an impact basin
-e) the northern lowlands
151)
Martian lobate feature
The lobate feature shown in the figure is evidence of

}
-a) plate tectonics
-b) dust storms
-c) wind erosion
-d) water flow
+e) lava flow

152) The Martian dichotomy separates

+a) the highlands from the lowlands
-b) the crust from the mantle
-c) Valles Marineris from Olympus Mons
-d) the Tharsus buldge from Hellas basin
-e) the rift valley from the volcanoes

153) According to Wikipedia, ______ was formed due to swelling of the Tharsis bulge which caused the crust to collapse

-a) the northern lowlands
+b) Valles Marineris
-c) Hellas basin
-d) Elysium
-e) the southern lowlands
154)
gray hematite
What is this hematite?

-a) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes
+b) evidence that Mars once had oceans
-c) controversial evidence that Mars once had life
-d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes
-e) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life

155) The polar ice caps on Mars are ___

-a) caused by geysers
-b) a nearly equal mix of water and carbon dioxide
-c) actually clouds above the surface of Mars
-d) mostly carbon dioxide
+e) mostly water

156) Liquid water cannot exist on Mars due to ___

-a) low temperature
-b) high temperature
-c) high pressure
+d) low pressure
-e) the solar wind
157)
magnified Martian meteorite
What is at the center of this magnified image of a Martian meteorite? fragment?

-a) evidence that Mars now has active volcanoes
-b) irrefutable evidence that Mars once had life
-c) evidence that Mars once had oceans
-d) evidence that Mars once had active volcanoes
+e) controversial evidence that Mars once had life
158)
horizontal crack
The horizontal crack along the center of figure is a
-a) meander
+b) scarp
-c) antipodal
-d) propodal
-e) rille

159) Antipodal to Caloris Basin is

+a) weird terrain
-b) a silicon deposits
-c) a scarp
-d) a water deposits
-e) an iron/nickel deposit

160) A volatile is a substance that

-a) melts or evaporates at high temperature
-b) reacts violently with acids
-c) reacts violently with oxygen
+d) melts or evaporates at low temperature
-e) reacts violently with water

161) The four smaller inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of ___ and ___.

-a) ice and gas
-b) carbon and oxygen
-c) ice and water
+d) metal and rock
-e) ice and rock

162) If the universe is mostly hydrogen, why aren't terrestrial planets made of mostly hydrogen?

-a) tidal forces from Jupiter prevented accretion
-b) tidal forces between the terrestrial planets prevented accretion
+c) thermonuclear fusion in the protosun turned the hydrogen into helium
-d) These planets lie inside the frost line for hydrogen
-e) tidal forces from the Sun prevented accretion

163) Mercury's atmosphere consists mostly of

-a) carbon dioxide
-b) nitrogen
-c) helium
-d) oxygen
+e) hydrogen

164) In what sequence did Mercury's weird terrain and Caloris basin form?

-a) The were formed at exactly the same time
-b) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years after the Caloris basin
-c) The weird terrain was formed a few millions years after the Caloris basin
+d) The weird terrain was formed almost immediately after the Caloris basin
-e) The weird terrain was formed approximately 2 billions years before the Caloris basin

165) The 1982 Voyager flyby of Miranda (a moon of Uranus) established that _____

+a) inspired a theory a previous incarnation was destroyed by a collision
-b) Miranda has the largest active volcano in the solar system
-c) Miranda has geysers.
-d) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
-e) Miranda probably has an iron core

166) It has been suggested that Miranda's "racetrack"

-a) is an impact crater
-b) is associated with tidal heating
+c) Two other answers are correct (making this the only true answer).
-d) is antipodal to an impact crater
-e) is a series of rifts created by an upwelling of warm ice

167) According to Wikipedia, the largest lakes on Titan are probably fed by

-a) rivers from the highlands
-b) methane rain
-c) geysers
-d) liquid water rain
+e) underground aquifers
168)

The bright spot on Saturn's moon Titan is
-a) solar wind particles striking the atmosphere
+b) a lake
-c) lightening
-d) a volcano
-e) aurora borealis (northern lights)

169) One "year" on Saturn's largest moon Titan lasts

-a) 3 hours
-b) 3 years
-c) 30 hours
+d) 30 years
-e) 300 days
170)

The photographs compare
-a) winter windstorms and summer doldrums
-b) summer windstorms and winter doldrums
+c) Titan and Earth
-d) wet and dry seasons
-e) northern and southern hemispheres

171) The liquid water ocean of Saturn's largest moon Titan,

-a) is known to contain life
+b) explains how the elevation of a smooth planet seems to rise and fall
-c) is postulated to cover 15-30% of its surface
-d) Two other answers are correct
-e) is less than one meter in depth
172)
incomplete rim
The incomplete rims seen in the figure are caused by:
-a) meteorite erosion
-b) rilles
-c) low surface gravity
-d) micrometeorite erosion
+e) vulcanism

173) Rilles are caused by

+a) lava
-b) impacts
-c) water
-d) meteorites
-e) meteors

174) In the Wikipedia excerpt on "Planetary Astronomy" the mechanism by which a meander grows over time was discussed. Which of the the following is best describes why meanders grow? (Pick only one best answer)

-a) occasional periods of intense flooding
-b) wind erosion
+c) a combination of deposition and erosion
-d) combination of deposition and underlying bedrock strength
-e) combination of erosion and underlying bedrock strength

175) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

-a) the motion of an artificial satellite
-b) the motion of a neighboring planet
+c) the rotation of the planet about its axis
-d) the motion of a moon
-e) all of these have been used

176) What is unusual about calculations of the mass of Pluto made in the early part of the 20th century?

-a) It was the first time a moon was used to calculate the mass of a planet
+b) The estimates were high. Pluto was less massive than they calculated
-c) The estimates were correct to within less than 10%
-d) The estimates were too low. Pluto was actually more massive than they thought.
-e) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass

177) Why was the discovery of Pluto peculiar?

+a) It was discovered by a calculation based on flawed assumptions
-b) It was the first time a planet's period of orbit around the sun was used to calculate the planet's mass
-c) It was seen by Galileo, who thought it was a star
-d) It was seen by Halley, who was looking for comets
-e) It was discovered during a survey looking for stars

178) Which of the following is NOT used to measure the mass of a planet

-a) the motion of a moon
-b) the motion of an artificial satellite
-c) the motion of a neighboring planet
+d) all of these have been used

179) Which statement describes the relation between Pluto and Neptune

+a) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they don't collide because of an orbital resonance between the two
-b) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit but they avoid each other because Pluto's mass is too small
-c) Pluto's orbit intersects Neptune's orbit an the two bodies will eventually collide
-d) Pluto's orbit lies outside Neptune's orbit

180) The Ptolemaic system was geocentric.

-a) FALSE
+b) TRUE

181) An argument used to support the geocentric model held that heavenly bodies, while perhaps large, were able to move quickly.

+a) TRUE
-b) FALSE

182) Tycho tended to favor religious arguments over scientific arguments when justifying his opinions about the geocentric/heliocentric controversy.

+a) FALSE
-b) TRUE

183) Tycho was the first to propose an earth-orbiting sun had planets in orbit around the Sun.

+a) FALSE
-b) TRUE

184) The Ptolemaic system was heliocentric.

+a) FALSE
-b) TRUE

185) Most ancient Roman and most medieval scholars thought the Earth was flat.

+a) FALSE
-b) TRUE

186) Evidence for the Copernican system is that the Earth does not seem to move.

-a) TRUE
+b) FALSE

187) The ancient Greeks believed in circular orbits, causing them to devise the epicycle and the deferent.

-a) FALSE
+b) TRUE

188) Copernicus was a university-trained Catholic priest dedicated to astronomy.

-a) FALSE
+b) TRUE

189) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the geocentric theory.

-a) TRUE
+b) FALSE

190) Copernicus shared his heliocentric theory with colleagues decades before he died.

-a) FALSE
+b) TRUE

191) In the late 16th century, Tycho Brahe invented his system to resolve philosophical and what he called “physical" problems with the heliocentric theory.

+a) TRUE
-b) FALSE

192) At the center of the Crab nebula is

+a)a) all of these is correct
-b)c) none of these is correct
-c)e) the remnants of a supernova
-d)b) a pulsar
-e)d) a neutron star

193) One way to determine the distance to a nebula or small cluster of clouds is to compare the angular expansion to the spectroscopic Doppler shift. Two clusters (A and B) have the same spectroscopically measured velocity. Cluster A is moving towards the observer and exhibits the greater angular expansion. Which cluster is closer?

-a) cluster B, because it exhibits less angular expansion
-b) either cluster might be more distant
-c) cluster A, because it exhibits a blue Doppler shift
-d) cluster B, because it exhibits a red Doppler shift
+e) cluster A, because it exhibits greater angular expansion

194) What causes the "finger-like" filamentary structure in the Crab nebula?

-a) a heavy (high density) fluid underneath a light (low density) fluid, like a lava lamp
+b) a light(low density) fluid underneath a heavy(high density) fluid, like a lava lamp
-c) electrons striking hydrogen molecules, like a lava lamp
-d) cyclotron motion, causing the electrons to strike oxygen molecules
-e) electrons striking oxygen molecules, like a lava lamp

195) ${\displaystyle KE={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$ is the kinetic energy of a solid rotating ball, where M is mass, R is radius, and P is period. And, ${\displaystyle power={\frac {energy}{time}}}$.
You are banging espressos in a little coffeehouse with your astronomy friends, talking about a new SN remnant that closely resembles the Crab. You have observed the pulsar, and wonder what the total power output of the nebula might be. You know both the period of the pulsar, as well as ${\displaystyle \tau }$, which represents the amount of time you think the pulsar will continue pulsing if it continues slowing down at its present rate. What formula do you write on your napkin?

-a) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}\tau ^{4}}$
-b) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {5}{4\tau \pi ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
-c) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau ^{2}}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
+d) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\pi ^{2}}{5\tau }}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$
-e) ${\displaystyle power={\frac {4\tau \pi ^{2}}{5}}{\frac {MR^{2}}{P^{2}}}}$

196) In one respect, the universie is arguably "young", considering how much complexity it contains. This is often illustrated by a calculation of

-a) recalibration of supernovae luminosity
+b) chimps typing Shakespeare
-c) cosmic expansion
-d) recalibration of supernovae relative magnitude
-e) cosmic redshift

197) Comparing Hubble's original (1929) plot of redshift versus distance with the later one in 2007, the latter extends farther into space by a factor of

-a) 100,000
+b) 10
-c) 100
-d) 10,000
-e) 1000

198) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. Hubble's original (1929) plot used

-a) Cepheid variables
-b) novae
-c) red giants
+d) entire galaxies
-e) supernovae

199) The course materials present two cosmic expansion plots. The more recent (2007) plot used

-a) Cepheid variables
-b) red giants
+c) supernovae
-d) entire galaxies
-e) novae

200) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expands out to 12 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expand?

-a) 4
+b) 6
-c) 3
-d) 8
-e) 2

201) You at the center raisin of an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion, and from your location a raisin originally situated at a distance of 1 cm expands out to a distance of 4 cm. The nearest raisin with intelligent life is situated exactly halfway between your (central) location and the edge. How would this second "intelligent" raisin view an expansion of a raisin 1 cm away?

-a) expansion from 1 cm to 3 cm (since 3-1=2)
+b) expansion from 1 cm to 4 cm (just like yours).
-c) expansion from 1 cm to 9 cm (since 5-1=4)
-d) expansion from 1 cm to 2 cm (half of yours)
-e) expansion from 1 cm to 8 cm (twice yours).

202) Place yourself in an expanding raisinbread model of Hubble expansion. A raisin originally situated at a distance of 2 cm expands out to 4 cm. To what distance would a raisin originally situated at a distance of 4 cm expand?

-a) 2
-b) 4
+c) 8
-d) 6
-e) 3

203) Aside from its location on the HR diagram, evidence that the white dwarf has a small radius can be found from

+a) the gravitational redshift
-b) the doppler shift
-c) the mass as measured by Kepler's third law (modified by Newton)
-d) the temperature
-e) the expansion of the universe
204)
This light clock is associated with
-a) all of these are true
-b) general relativity
-c) gravitational shift
-d) doppler shift
+e) special relativity
205)
Suppose the light clock involved a ball being tossed back and forth on a train going just under the speed of sound. In contrast to the situation for light reflecting back and forth on a train going just under the speed of light, there is virtually no time dilation. Why?
-a) Special relativity is valid only for objects travelling in a vacuum.
-b) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be smaller.
+c) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling faster.
-d) The observer on the ground would perceive the ball to be travelling more slowly.
-e) The observer on the ground would perceive the width the train to be greater.
206)

This spectrum of the star Vega suggests that
-a) it is an approximate black body
-b) it's surface can be associated with a range of temperatures
-c) if is not really a black body
+d) all of these are true
-e) it can be associated with an "effective" temperature

207) Which of the following is NOT an essential piece of a a strong argument that a white dwarf is not only the size of the earth, but typically has the same mass as the Sun.

+a) all of these are true
-b) the relative magnitude of Sirius B
-c) the "color" (spectral class) of Sirius B
-d) the wobble of Sirius A
-e) the distance to Sirius A

208) The course materials presented three arguments suggesting that a white dwarf is roughly the size of the earth. Which best summarizes them?

-a) HR-diagram-location...X-ray-emmision...spectral-lines
-b) all of these are true
-c) x-ray-emmission...doppler-shift...rotation-rate
+d) temperature-luminosity...redshift...quantum-theory-of-solids
-e) doppler-shift...period-of-pulsation...temperature-luminosity

209) As of 2008, the percent uncertainty in the distance to the Crab nebula is approximately,

-a) 10%
-b) 100%
-c) 1%
+d) 25%
-e) 0.1%

210) What was Messier doing when he independently rediscovered the Crab in 1758?

-a) Attempting to count asteroids
+b) Looking for a comet that he knew would be appearing in that part of the sky.
-c) Looking for lobsters
-d) Attempting one of the first star charts
-e) Trying to measure the orbital radius of a planet
211)

What best explains this figure?
-a) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, c=fλ, and therefore by E=hf it turns red.
-b) The photon loses energy, not speed. By c=fλ , it loses frequency, and by E=hf it increases wavelength and turns red.
-c) The photon slows down as it goes uphill, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength therefore by E=hf, it turns red.
-d) The photon slows down, by the Doppler shift, E=hf, and therefore by c=f&;lambda it turns red.
+e) The photon loses energy, not speed. By E=hf, it loses frequency, and by c=fλ it increases wavelength and turns red.

212) What causes the blue glow of the Crab nebula?

-a) the same emission found in a Lava lamp (ultra-violet)
+b) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion resembles a radio antenna
-c) the Gravitational blue shift
-d) the curving motion of electrons in a magnetic field; such motion traps ultra-violet and blue light
-e) the Doppler blue shift

213) A grouping with 100 thousand stars would probably be a

-a) A-B association
-b) dwarf galaxy
-c) open cluster
-d) elliptical galaxy
+e) globular cluster

214) Many stars in a typical open cluster are nearly as old as the universe

+a) False
-b) True

215) Many stars in a typical globular cluster are nearly as old as the universe

-a) False
+b) True

216) The number of globular clusters in the Milky way galaxy is about

-a) 1,500
-b) 15 thousand
-c) 15 million
+d) 150

217) The location of open clusters can be described as

-a) uniformly distributed in a sphere centered at the Milky Way's center
-b) uniformly distributed within the galactic disk
+c) in the spiral arms
-d) between the spiral arms

218) Stars can "evaporate" from a cluster. What does this mean?

-a) The gravitational attraction between stars evaporates the gas from stars
-b) The solar wind from neighboring stars blows the atmosphere away
+c) Close encounters between 3 or more cluster members gives one star enough speed to leave the cluster

219) A grouping with a hundred stars is probably a

+a) open cluster
-b) A-B association
-c) elliptical galaxy
-d) dwarf galaxy
-e) globular cluster

220) I gravity is what holds stars in a cluster together, what is the most important process that causes them to spread apart?

+a) random motion
-b) solar wind
-c) anti-gravity
-d) supernovae
-e) magnetism

221) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces only due to gravitational interaction with each other

+a) False
-b) True

222) Members of an open cluster feel significant forces from nearby giant molecular clouds

+a) True
-b) False

223) Members of a globular cluster tend to be

+a) old
-b) young
-c) of all ages

224) Members of a globular cluster tend to have

-a) high mass
+b) low mass
-c) a wide range of masses

225) In 1917, the astronomer Harlow Shapley was able to estimate the Sun's distance from the galactic centre using

+a) goblular clusters
-b) open clusters
-c) a combination of open and globular clusters

226) Most globular clusters that we see in the sky orbit _____ and have ______ orbits

-a) within the disk of the Milky way ... nearly circular
-b) the center of the Milky way ... nearly circular
-c) within the disk of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits
+d) the center of the Milky way ... elliptic orbits

227) Stellar parallax is

-a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
-b) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
-c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
+d) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
-e) an astronomical object with known luminosity.

228) A star that is increasing it's temperature while maintaining constant luminosity is

-a)e) getting larger in size
-b) turning red
-c) in the process of dying
-d) on the verge of becoming a supernovae
+e) getting smaller in size

229) The range of wavelength for visible light is between

-a) 0.1 and 10 nanometers
-b) 1 and 10 nanometers
+c) 400 and 700 nanometers
-d) 600 and 1200 nanometers
-e) 5000 and 6000 nanometers

230) Based on the HR diagrams and images in stars shown in the materials, a very large red supergiant has a diameter that is about ____ greater than a small white dwarf.

-a) 3x109
+b) 3x105
-c) 3x103
-d) 3x107
-e) 3x1011

231) Luminosity is

-a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
+b) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
-c) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
-d) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
-e) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

232) A standard candle is

+a) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
-b) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
-c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
-d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
-e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

233) Absolute magnitude is

-a) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
-b) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
+c) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years
-d) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
-e) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth

234) Relative magnitude is

-a) an astronomical object with known luminosity.
-b) an annual change in angular position of a star as seen from Earth
-c) the total amount of energy emitted per unit time.
+d) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from Earth
-e) a numerical measure of brightness as seen from a distance of approximately 33 light-years

235) In 1989 the satellite Hipparcos was launched primarily for obtaining parallaxes and proper motions allowing measurements of stellar parallax for stars up to about 500 parsecs away, which is about ____ times the diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy.

+a) .015
-b) 15
-c) 1.5
-d) 0.15
-e) 150

236) An object emits thermal (blackbody) radiation with a peak wavelength of 250nm. How does its temperature compare with the Sun?

-a) 2 times colder than the Sun
-b) 5 times colder than the Sun
+c) 2 times hotter than the Sun
-d) The temperature is the same
-e) 5 times hotter than the Sun

237) The "normalized intensity" of a Sun-like star situated one parsec from Earth would be 4πI = 1. What is 4πI for a star with 100 times the Sun's energy output that is situated 10pc from Earth?

-a) 10-2
-b) 10-4
-c) 10-1
-d) 10-3
+e) 1

238) An orbiting satellite makes a circular orbit 5 AU from the Sun. It measures a parallax angle of 0.2 of an arcsecond (each way from the average position). What is the star's distance?

+a) 25 parsecs
-b) 5 parsecs
-c) 1 parsec
-d) 50 parsecs
-e) 10 parsecs

239) When imaged in visible light Venus appears like ______ rather than ______.

+a) a gas dwarf ... a rocky planet
-b) Mars ... Venus
-c) an asteroid ... a terrestrial planet
-d) Venus ... Mars

240) The clouds on Venus are made of

+a) sulfuric acid
-b) water
-c) steam
-d) nitrogen
-e) carbon dioxide

241) The geology of Venus is predominantly

+a) Basalt
-b) Andesite
-c) Picrite

242) Basalt is what type of rock?

+a) Igneous
-b) Metamorphic
-c) Sedimentary

243) The rocks on Venus are mostly

-a) from the seabed of a now non-existent ocean
+b) from volcanoes
-c) associated with plate tectonics

244) The rocky surface of the planet Venus can be detected when Venus is observed using infrared astronomy.

-a) TRUE
+b) FALSE

245) When Venus is viewed in the ultraviolet, its color appears brownish.

-a) TRUE
+b) FALSE

246) Moldavite is a mineral that may be associated with what radiation astronomy phenomenon?

-a) predicting when currently dormant volcanoes will erupt
+b) meteorite impacts and fireballs
-c) evidence that Venus was once a comet
-d) lightening strikes

247) According to Wikipedia, a "mineral" is a naturally occurring solid that

-a) does not contain carbon
-b) has useful value
+c) is by a chemical formula
-d) is heterogeneous
-e) contains carbon

248) Which types of radiation astronomy directly observe the rocky-object surface of Venus?

-a) ultraviolet astronomy
-b) infrared astronomy
-c) visual astronomy
-e) X-ray astronomy

249) One reason that Venus's atmosphere has more carbon dioxide than Earth's is that

-a) Venus is exposed to a stronger solar wind strips away the other gasses
-b) the mass of Venus is slightly higher
+c) Venus was too hot for oceans that could absorb the carbon dioxide
-d) Venus has a lower magnetic field that disassociates carbon dioxide

250) The surface temperature of Venus is about

+a) 850 Fahrenheit (730 Kelvin or 230 Celsius)
+b) 150 Fahrenheit (340 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)
+c) 450 Fahrenheit (500 Kelvin or 66 Celsius)

251) The Venetian atmosphere consists of mostly carbon dioxide and

-a) helium
-b) sulfuric acid
-c) oxygen
+d) nitrogen
-e) hydrogen

252) The Wikipedia article Sidereus Nuncius suggests that the inventor of the telescope was likely to be

+a) a lensmaker
-b) a Chinese scientist
-c) Galileo
-d) A Greek scholar
-e) none of these

253) When the German astronomy Marius provided evidence that he (Marius) had first seen the moons of Jupiter, Galileo

+a) won the argument using his knowledge of calendars
-b) appealed to the Pope
-c) used his political contacts to ensure that he (Galileo) would get credit
-d) pointed out that the telescope Marius was using could not have seen the Moons
-e) didn't care; he was a true scientist

254) Prior to the publication of Sidereus Nuncius, the Church

-a) none of these are true (according to the Wikipedia permalink to Sidereus Nuncius.)
-b) was unaware of any controversy concerning the Copernican heliocentric system
-c) had given Galileo a commission to look into the Copernican heliocentric system
+d) accepted the Copernican heliocentric system as strictly mathematical and hypothetical
-e) had outlawed all discussion of the Copernican heliocentric system

255) Galileo called his telescope

-a) a mistake
-b) the liberator
-c) the magic eye
-d) a double magnifying glass
+e) an optical cannon

256) The "terminator" for Galileo was

+a) sunrise or sunset
-b) his trial for heresy
-c) the most distant star he could see
-d) the division between east and west
-e) the equator

257) Galileo used the terminator to

-a) none of these
-b) compensate for stellar parallax
-c) observe the wobble of the Moon's orbit
+d) correlate color with whether the region had mountains
-e) deduce the color beneath the dust layer

258) Galileo used the terminator to

-a) correlate dark and light regions with terrain
-b) compensate for stellar parallax
-c) publicize his ideas
+d) two of these
-e) measure the height of mountains

259) What statement is FALSE about Galileo and the Median Stars

-a) motion could be observed after observing a moon for just one hour
+b) they were described by Aristotle
-c) they were lined up
-d) they are actually moons
-e) Galileo named them after a famous and wealthy family

260) The title of Galileo's book, Sidereus Nuncius, is often translated as ____, but it is probably more proper to translate it as _______

-a) the Moon close up - - the Moon through a telescope
-b) the motion of the earth - - the location of the earth
+c) Starry messenger - - Starry message
-d) the motion of the stars - - the location of the stars
-e) the moons of Jupiter

261) The Wikipedia article, Sidereus Nuncius, points out that what the ancient Greek scientist thought was a cloudy star was really

+a) many faint stars
-b) a planetary nebula
-c) a comet
-d) a supernovae remnant
-e) the rings of Saturn

262) Galileo's naming of the "Medicean Stars"

-a) caused his house arrest
+b) two of these are true
-c) was controversial because stars were supposed to be named after Roman gods
-d) broke an agreement he made with the Pope to stop writing about astronomy
-e) might have earned him a promotion

263) Very far from the sun, the heliosphere

-a) spins in the opposite direction
-b) becomes the magnetosphere
-c) never ends
+d) becomes weaker than the interstellar wind
-e) reverses direction

264) According to Wikipedia, if all the mass of the asteroid belt were combined to one object, it's mass would _______ times less than Earth's mass.

-a) 10,000
-b) 10
+c) 1,000
-d) 100
-e) 1
265)
planetary disk
In this hypothetical image of a sun-like star we see a bright band of dust that we on Earth call zodiacal light. It is due to sunlight reflecting off dust in the
-a) Oort Cloude
-b) magnetic sun's magnetic field
+c) ecliptic plane
-d) Van Allen belt
-e) Kuiper belt

266) In planetary science, the frost line refers to a distance away from

-a) either pole of a planet
-b) the south pole of a planet
-c) ecliptic plane
+d) the star in the middle
-e) the north pole of a planet

267) Oort's cloud was hypothesized to explain the source of

-a) water outside the frost line
+b) comets
-c) asteroids
-d) planets
-e) water inside the frost line

268) According to Wikipedia _______ and ______ are referred to as volatiles.

+a) ices and gasses
-b) acids and bases
-c) electrons and protons
-d) planets and moons
-e) asteroids and terrestrial planets

269) Which of the following list is properly ranked, starting with objects closest to the Sun?

-a) Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt
+b) Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt, Oort's cloud
-c) Oort's cloud, Asteroid belt, Kuiper belt
-d) Kuiper belt, Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud
-e) Asteroid belt, Oort's cloud, Kuiper belt

270) When the sun turns into a red giant,

-a) surface temperature increases; energy output increases
-b) The sun will not turn into a red giant
-c) surface temperature decreases; energy output decreases
+d) surface temperature decreases; energy output increases
-e) surface temperature increases; energy output decreases

271) A volatile is a substance that

+a) melts or evaporates at low temperature
-b) reacts violently with oxygen
-c) reacts violently with acids
-d) reacts violently with water
-e) melts or evaporates at high temperature

272) All planets lie within a nearly flat disc called the __________ plane

+b) ecliptic
-c) angular
-d) interstellar
-e) fissile

273) The AU is

+a) the distance from the Sun to Earth
-b) a measure of the brightness of a planet
-c) the most distant Kuiper object from the Sun
-d) the size of Oort's cloud
-e) the distance from Earth to the Moon

274) The Sun and Earth are about

-a) 500 million years old
-b) 50 billion years old
+c) 5 billion years old
-d) 50 million years old
-e) 5 million years old

-a) 15 million years old
-b) 1.5 billion years old
-c) 150 million years old
+d) 15 billion years old
-e) 150 billion years old

276) Roughly how much bigger is a gas planet than a terrestrial planet?

-a) 30
-b) 300
+c) 10
-d) 3
-e) 100

277) Roughly how much bigger is a the Sun than a gas planet?

-a) 300
-b) 100
-c) 3
+d) 10
-e) 30

278) In astrophysics, what is accretion?

-a) the condensation of volatiles as a gas cools
-b) the growth in size of a massive star as its outer atmosphere expands
-c) the increase in temperature and pressure of a star as it collapses from its own gravity
-d) the growth of a comet's tail as it comes close to the Sun
+e) the growth of a massive object by gravitationally attracting more matter

279) Dwarf planets are defined as objects orbiting the Sun and smaller than planets, that?

+a) have been rounded by their own gravity
-b) possess an atmosphere
-c) lie in the asteroid belt
-d) are too far from the Sun to be planets
-e) lack an atmosphere

280) Dwarf planets have no natural satellites,

-a) true
+b) false

281) Pluto is classified as

-a) a natural satellite of Neptune
-b) a natural satellite of Uranus
+c) a dwarf planet and a trans-Neptunian object.
-d) a dwarf planet with no natural satellites
-e) an asteroid belt object

282) How many of the outer planets have rings?

-a) 2
-b) 3
-c) 1
+d) 4

283) Currently there are 7 billion people on Earth, if that ever increases to 10 billion people, for every person on Earth there will be ____ stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

-a) 2
-b) 2000
+c) 20
-d) 200

284) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is nearly circular.

-a) true
+b) false

285) The revolution of Haley's comet around the Sun is opposite that of the 8 planets.

-a) false
+b) true

286) The frost line is situated approximately

-a) 10 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center
+b) 5 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun
-c) 10 times as far from the Sun as the Earth is from the Sun
-d) 5 times as far from the Earth as the Earth's surface is from its center

287) Why is a star made of plasma?

-a) plasma is generic word for "important"
-b) the intense gravity liquifies the substance, just as red blood cells liquify plasma in the body
+c) it is so hot that electrons are stripped away from the protons
-d) the interstellar gas was mostly plasma
-e) plasma is always present when there are strong magnetic fields

288) Pre–main sequence stars are often surrounded by a protoplanetary disk and powered mainly by

-a) chemical reactions
-b) the fusion of Helium to Carbon
-c) collisions between protoplanets
+d) the release of gravitational energy
-e) the fission of Carbon from Helium

289) Stars that begin with more than 50 solar masses will typically lose _______ while on the main sequence.

+a) 50% their mass
-b) 1% their mass
-c) all of their magnetic field
-d) 10% of their magnetic field
-e) 10% their mass

290) The Hayashi and Henyey tracks refer to how T Tauri of different masses will move

-a) through an HR diagram as they die
+b) through an HR diagram as they are born
-c) Two of these are true
-d) through a cluster as they die
-e) through a cluster as they are born
291) How do low-mass stars change as they are born?
Birth of stars HR path tracks
-a) Increasing luminosity with no change in temperature
-b) Increasing temperature with no change in luminosity
-c) Decreasing temperature with no change in luminosity
+d) Decreasing luminosity with no change in temperature
-e) Decreasing temperature and increasing luminosity

292) When a star with more than 10 solar masses ceases fuse hydrogen to helium, it

-a) ceases to convert nuclear energy.
+b) it fuses helium to carbon and other elements up to iron and then ceases to produce more energy
-c) it fuses helium to carbon and then ceases to produce more energy
-d) it fuses helium to carbon to iron (and other elements), then continues to release more energy by fusing the iron to heavier elements such as uranium.
-e) it fuses elements up to uranium, and continues to produce energy by the fission of uranium.

293) Many supernovae begin as a shock wave in the core that was caused by

-a) all of these processes contribute to the shock wave
+b) electrons being driven into protons to form neutrons
-c) iron fusing into heavier elements such as uranium
-d) the conversion of carbon into diamonds,
-e) carbon and other elements fusing into iron

294) A dying star with more than 1.4 solar masses becomes a ______, and those with more than 5 solar masses becomes a _____

-a) white dwarf....neutron star
-b) white dwarf...red dwarf
-c) blue giant....red giant
+d) neutron star....black hole
-e) white dwarf....black hole

295) According to Wikipedia, a star with over 20 solar masses converts its Hyrogen to Helium in about 8 billion years, but the conversion of Oxygen to heavier elements take about _____

-a) 1 billion years
-b) 10 billion years
-c) 1 thousand years
-d) 1 million years
+e) 1 year

296) What is the difference between a constellation and an asterism?

-a) constellations consist of never more than ten stars.
-b) asterisms are larger than constellations
+c) constellations represent regions of the sky, like state boundaries on a map of the USA
-d) asterisms are smaller than constellations
-e) none of these is correct

297) Stellar parallax is

-a) Triangulation to deduce the distance to nearby stars
-b) Using changes in the angular position of a star to deduce the star’s distance
-c) Using spectral lines to deduce the distance to nearby stars
-d) None of these is correct.
+e) Two of these is correct

298) Giant molecular clouds with sufficient conditions to form a star cluster would have formed them long ago. Any stellar births in the past couple of billions years probably resulted from _____ between clouds.

-a) photon exchange
-b) None of these is correct.
-c) ion exchange
+d) collisions
-e) Two of these are correct

299) A starburst galaxy.

-a) is a region of active stellar birth
-b) usually is a result of collisions between galaxies
+c) Two of these are correct
-d) All of these are correct
-e) has only dead or dying stars

300) Which of the following expresses Jean's criterion for the collapse of a giant molecular cloud of mass, M, radius, R, and temperature T, and pressure P? (Here ? is some constant)

-a) T>?RM
-b) P>?MR
-c) R>?MT
-d) P>?MT
+e) M>?RT

301) Which of the following changes in the properties of a giant molecular cloud might cause it to collapse?

-a) Decrease mass at fixed temperature and size
-b) Increase size at fixed pressure and mass
+c) Increase mass at fixed temperature and size
-d) Two of these are correct
-e) Increase temperature at fixed mass and size

302) What happens if you increase the size of a giant molecular cloud while keeping temperature and mass fixed?

-a) It is more likely to collapse because this will increase the temperature
+b) It is less likely to collapse spreading it out weakens the force of gravity
-c) It is more likely to collapse because larger things have more gravity
-d) It is equally likely to collapse because size is not part of the Jean's criterion.
-e) It is less likely to collapse because temperature can never be kept fixed

303) What is a Bok globule in the formation of stellar systems?

-a) A black hole that enters a cloud and triggers the collapse
-b) A cluster of giant molecular clouds that coalesce to form a solar system
-c) A small planet that formed before any stars have formed
+d) A small portion of a giant cloud that collapses
-e) A supernovae precurser that attracts more gas atoms

304) When did astronomy split between theoretical and observational branches?

+a) In the 20th century
-b) In the 19th century
-d) In the 18th century
-e) After Galileo

305) According to the Wikipedia Astronomy article, the first known efforts in the mathematical and scientific study of Astronomy began

-a) in south America
-b) in central America
+c) among the Babylonians
-d) in ancient Greece
-e) among the Chinese

306) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as Antikythera?

-a) 300 years
+b) 1500 years
-c) 15,000 years
-d) 3000 years
-e) 30 years

307) The saro cycle was about repeating cycles of

-a) seasons
+b) eclipses
-c) planets
308)
Who drew these sketches?

-a) Aristotle
-b) Kepler
-c) Copernicus
+d) Galileo
-e) Ptolemy

309) In what century was parallax first used to measure the distance to a Star (other than our Sun)?

-a) 16th century
-b) 20th century
+c) 19th century
-d) 18th century
-e) 17th century

310) The largest galaxy in the local group is

-a) ant-galexy
-b) M52
+c) Andromeda
-d) M-31
-e) Milky way

311) What two names are associated with the first new planet found (after those known by the ancients using the naked eye)

-a) Mars and the Candy Bar
-b) Mercury and Friendship
-c) Pluto and Goofy
+d) Uranus and George's Star
-e) Neptune and the Alabama Streaker

312) The historical record shows that in 1066 AD a supernovae was discovered by astronomers in _____ and _____

-a) Greece and North America
-b) Greece and Central America
+c) Egypt and China
-d) Greece and China
-e) China and South America

313) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' call astrology?

-a) the study of comets and asteroids
+b) the belief system which claims that human affairs are correlated with the positions of celestial objects.
-c) the study of planetary cores
-d) the study of planetary atmospheres
-e) the belief that all people should learn astronomy

314) Cosmology is the study of

-a) the birth and death of stars
-b) the formation of the solar system
-c) planetary atmospheres
-d) the oceans
+e) the universe as a whole

315) What does the Wikipedia 'Astronomy' article say about astronomy and astrophysics

-a) They often yield different results
+b) They are often considered to be synonymous
-c) They are often in conflict
-d) They must be in agreement or the result cannot be trusted
-e) They are often considered to be opposites

316) The goecentric theory put the Sun

-a) at the center of the universe
+b) in orbit around Earth
-c) none of the above or below are true
-d) orbiting around the Moon
-e) at the center of the solar system

317) In the 3rd century BC, Aristarchus of Samos estimated the size of

-a) Earth and the Moon
-b) Earth and the Sun
+c) the Moon and Sun
-d) the Moon
-e) the Sun

318) In the 19th century Fraunhoffer and Kirchoff studied light from the Sun and found

-a) sunspots and the sunspot cycle
-b) a golden ring
-d) a wobble that led to the discovery of new planets
+e) spectral lines and concluded that they were caused by the elements

319) The ancient Greeks discovered (named) most of the constellations

-a) in the eastern hemisphere
-b) in the southern hemisphere
+c) in the northern hemisphere
-d) in the western hemisphere
-e) in both all hemispheres

320) When did astronmers establish that the Milky way is only one of many billions of galaxies in the universe?

+a) 20th century
-b) 16th century
-c) 18th century
-d) 14th century
321)
What is this?
-a) the magnetic field of Saturn
+b) a dying star
-c) a supernovae remnant
-d) colliding galaxies
-e) the magnetic field of Venus

322) An active galaxy is emitting a significant amount of its energy from _____

-a) magnetism
-b) exploding stars
+c) gravity
-d) nuclear fusion
-e) nuclear fission

323) Wihlem Conrad Rontgen, a pioneer in X-rays is famous for his photo of

-a) a double star
-b) Barnard's star
-c) The Sun
+d) his wife
-e) a supernovae

324) Earth based infrared observatories tend to be located in

-a) where the air is cold
+b) where the air is dry
-c) near the equator
-d) near the north and south poles
-e) underground

325) The shortest wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is associated with

-a) infrared
-b) blue light
-c) ultra violet
+d) gamma rays
-e) X-rays
326)
What are the blue things in this figure?

-a) none of these is correct
-b) a globular cluster
-c) a cluster of galaxy
-d) an open cluster of stars
+e) one galaxy

327) Most of the ______ that astronomers observe from Earth is seen in the form of synchrotron radiation, which is produced when electrons oscillate around magnetic fields.

-b) energy
-c) meteors
-d) photons
-e) meteorites

328) Most gamma rays are

-a) from hot stars
-b) from the Sun
-c) from cold stars
-d) the Andromeda galaxy
+e) in bursts

329) Studies in the infrared are useful for objects that are

-a) in our own galaxy
-b) inside the solar system
-c) associated with supernovae
+d) cold
-e) in other galaxies

330) The best place to observe neutrinos is

-a) where the air is dry
-b) near the equator
-c) where the air is cold
+d) underground
-e) near the north and south poles

331) A car traveling at 44.6 miles/hour stops in 1.8 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

-a) 1.11 x 100 m/s2
-b) 1.97 x 100 m/s2
-c) 3.5 x 100 m/s2
-d) 6.23 x 100 m/s2
+e) 1.11 x 101 m/s2

332) A car completes a complete circle of radius 2.2 miles at a speed of 63.6 miles per hour. How many minutes does it take?

-a) 9.78 x 100 minutes
+b) 1.3 x 101 minutes
-c) 1.74 x 101 minutes
-d) 2.32 x 101 minutes
-e) 3.09 x 101 minutes

333) A car traveling at 29.4 mph increases its speed to 32.7 mph in 5.3 seconds. What is the average acceleration?

-a) 8.8 x 10-2 m/s2
-b) 1.57 x 10-1 m/s2
+c) 2.78 x 10-1 m/s2
-d) 4.95 x 10-1 m/s2
-e) 8.8 x 10-1 m/s2

334) Mr. Smith is backing his car at a speed of 2.33 mph when he hits a cornfield (seed corn). In the course of 1.22 seconds he stops, puts his car in forward drive, and exits the field at a speed of 6.68 mph. What was the magnitude ( absolute value) of his acceleration?

-a) 2.94 x 100 miles per hour per second
-b) 3.7 x 100 miles per hour per second
-c) 4.66 x 100 miles per hour per second
-d) 5.87 x 100 miles per hour per second
+e) 7.39 x 100 miles per hour per second

335) A car is accelerating uniformly at an acceleration of 3.2m/s/s. At x = 7.5m, the speed is 4m/s. How fast is it moving at x = 12 m?

-a) 4.65 m/s.
-b) 5.58 m/s.
+c) 6.69 m/s.
-d) 8.03 m/s.
-e) 9.64 m/s.

336) What is the acceleration if a car travelling at 8.45 m/s makes a skid mark that is 8.5 m long before coming to rest? (Assume uniform acceleration.)

-a) 2.43m/s2.
-b) 2.92m/s2.
-c) 3.5m/s2.
+d) 4.2m/s2.
-e) 5.04m/s2.

337) A train accelerates uniformly from 10 m/s to 18.75 m/s, while travelling a distance of 263 m. What is the 'average' acceleration?

-a) 0.28m/s/s.
-b) 0.33m/s/s.
-c) 0.4m/s/s.
+d) 0.48m/s/s.
-e) 0.57m/s/s.

338) A particle accelerates uniformly at 16 m/s/s. How long does it take for the velocity to increase from 981 m/s to 1816 m/s?

-a) 30.2 s
-b) 36.24 s
-c) 43.49 s
+d) 52.19 s
-e) 62.63 s

339) A ball is kicked horizontally from a height of 3 m, at a speed of 10m/s. How far does it travel before landing?

-a) 6.52 m.
+b) 7.82 m.
-c) 9.39 m.
-d) 11.27 m.
-e) 13.52 m.

340) A particle is initially at the origin and moving in the x direction at a speed of 3.9 m/s. It has an constant acceleration of 2.2 m/s2 in the y direction, as well as an acceleration of 0.8 in the x direction. What angle does the velocity make with the x axis at time t = 2.9 s?

-a) 26.14 degrees.
-b) 30.07 degrees.
-c) 34.58 degrees.
-d) 39.76 degrees.
+e) 45.73 degrees.

341) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 6.76 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.65 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.8 m/s in the +y direction. At what time do they meet?

-a) 0.21 s.
-b) 0.25 s.
-c) 0.3 s.
-d) 0.36 s.
+e) 0.43 s.

342) At time, t=0, two particles are on the x axis. Particle A is (initially) at the origin and moves at a constant speed of 7.18 m/s at an angle of θ above the x-axis. Particle B is initially situated at x= 2.15 m, and moves at a constant speed of 2.88 m/s in the +y direction. What is the value of θ (in radians)?

343) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 42.3 m/s. Mr. Smith is at the back of the train and fires a pellet gun with a muzzle speed of 25.2 m/s at Mrs. Smith who is at the front of the train. What is the speed of the bullet with respect to Earth?

-a) 30 m/s.
-b) 45 m/s.
+c) 67.5 m/s.
-d) 101.3 m/s.
-e) 151.9 m/s.

344) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.6 m/s. Mrs. Smith, who is at the front of the train, fires straight towards the back with a bullet that is going forward with respect to Earth at a speed of 23.7 m/s. What was the muzzle speed of her bullet?

-a) 15.9 m/s.
+b) 23.9 m/s.
-c) 35.9 m/s.
-d) 53.8 m/s.
-e) 80.7 m/s.

345) The Smith family is having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.6 m/s. The daugher fires at Mr. Smith with a pellet gun whose muzzle speed is 25.5 m/s. She was situated across the isle, perpendicular to the length of the train. What is the speed of her bullet with respect to Earth?

-a) 10.7 m/s.
-b) 16 m/s.
-c) 24 m/s.
-d) 36 m/s.
+e) 54 m/s.

346) The Smith family got in trouble for having fun on a high speed train travelling at 47.1 m/s. Mr. Smith is charged with having fired a pellet gun at his daughter (directly across the isle) with a bullet that had a speed of 95.6 m/s with respect to Earth. How fast was the bullet going relative to the daughter (i.e. train)?

-a) 69.3 m/s.
+b) 83.2 m/s.
-c) 99.8 m/s.
-d) 119.8 m/s.
-e) 143.8 m/s.

347) A mass with weight (mg) of 27 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. The angle between the two strings (i.e. where they are attached to the mass) is 70 degrees. What is the tension in the string?

-a) 12.5 N.
-b) 14.3 N.
+c) 16.5 N.
-d) 19 N.
-e) 21.8 N.

348) A mass with weight (mg) equal to 33 newtons is suspended symmetrically from two strings. Each string makes the (same) angle of 72 degrees with respect to the horizontal. What is the tension in each string?

-a) 9.9 N.
-b) 11.4 N.
-c) 13.1 N.
-d) 15.1 N.
+e) 17.3 N.

349) A 2.4 kg mass is sliding along a surface that has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.68 . In addition to the surface friction, there is also an air drag equal to 6 N. What is the magnitude (absolute value) of the acceleration?

+a) 9.2 m/s2.
-b) 10.5 m/s2.
-c) 12.1 m/s2.
-d) 13.9 m/s2.
-e) 16 m/s2.

350) A mass with weight (mg) 8.7 newtons is on a horzontal surface. It is being pulled on by a string at an angle of 30 degrees above the horizontal, with a force equal to 4.08 newtons. If this is the maximum force before the block starts to move, what is the static coefficient of friction?

-a) 0.44
+b) 0.53
-c) 0.64
-d) 0.76
-e) 0.92

351) A sled of mass 5.5 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 46.8N at an angle of 40 degress above the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the friction?

-a) 27.11 N.
-b) 31.17 N.
+c) 35.85 N.
-d) 41.23 N.
-e) 47.41 N.

352) A sled of mass 5.9 kg is at rest on a rough surface. A string pulls with a tension of 45.6N at an angle of 36 degress above the horizontal. What is the normal force?

-a) 23.45 N.
-b) 26.97 N.
+c) 31.02 N.
-d) 35.67 N.
-e) 41.02 N.

353) A sled of mass 5.4 kg is at rest on a perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 41.2N at an angle of 58 degress above the horizontal. How long will it take to reach a speed of 10.5 m/s?

+a) 2.6 s
-b) 2.99 s
-c) 3.43 s
-d) 3.95 s
-e) 4.54 s

354) A sled of mass 2.1 kg is on perfectly smooth surface. A string pulls with a tension of 17.7N. At what angle above the horizontal must the string pull in order to achieve an accelerations of 3.6 m/s2?

-a) 56.3 degrees
+b) 64.7 degrees
-c) 74.4 degrees
-d) 85.6 degrees
-e) 98.4 degrees
355)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 15 degrees, and θ3 is 37 degrees. The tension T3 is 22 N. What is the tension, T1?
-a) 11.96 N.
-b) 13.75 N.
-c) 15.82 N.
+d) 18.19 N.
-e) 20.92 N.
356)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 15 degrees, and θ3 is 37 degrees. The tension T3 is 22 N. What is the weight?
-a) 13.6 N.
-b) 15.6 N.
+c) 17.9 N.
-d) 20.6 N.
-e) 23.7 N.
357)
In the figure shown, θ is 33 degrees, and the mass is 3.7 kg. What is T2?
+a) 66.58 N.
-b) 76.56 N.
-c) 88.05 N.
-d) 101.25 N.
-e) 116.44 N.
358)
In the figure shown, θ is 36 degrees, and the mass is 3.1 kg. What is T1?
-a) 34.8 N.
+b) 41.8 N.
-c) 50.2 N.
-d) 60.2 N.
-e) 72.3 N.
359)
In the figure shown, θ1 is 17 degrees , and θ3 is 29 degrees . The mass has a weight of 29 N. What is the tension, T1?
-a) 20.16 N.
-b) 23.18 N.
-c) 26.66 N.
-d) 30.66 N.
+e) 35.26 N.
360)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 5.4 kg, and the mass of m2 is 2.3 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 138 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume no friction is present.
-a) 84.2 N
+b) 96.8 N
-c) 111.3 N
-d) 128 N
-e) 147.2 N
361)
In the figure shown (with m1 = 6.5 kg, m2 = 2.5 kg, and Fext = 141 N), what is the acceleration? Assume no friction is present.
-a) 9 m/s2
-b) 10.3 m/s2
-c) 11.8 m/s2
-d) 13.6 m/s2
+e) 15.7 m/s2

362) Nine barefoot baseball players, with a total mass of 672 kg plays tug of war against five basketball players wearing shoes that provide a static coefficient of friction of 0.59 . The net mass of the (shoed) basketball team is 407 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of the barefoot boys if they lose?

-a) 0.295
-b) 0.325
+c) 0.357
-d) 0.393
-e) 0.432

363) Without their shoes, members of a 9 person baseball team have a coefficient of static friction of only 0.3 . But the team wins a game of tug of war due to their superior mass of 662 kg. They are playing against a 5 person basketball team with a net mass of 430 kg. What is the maximum coefficient of static friction of the basketball team?

-a) 0.42
+b) 0.462
-c) 0.508
-d) 0.559
-e) 0.615
364)
In the figure shown, the mass of m1 is 5.7 kg, and the mass of m2 is 2.5 kg. If the external force, Fext on m2 is 159 N, what is the tension in the connecting string? Assume that m1 has a kinetic coefficient of friction equal to 0.34, and that for m2 the coefficient is 0.46 .
-a) 82 N
-b) 94.3 N
+c) 108.5 N
-d) 124.8 N
-e) 143.5 N

365) A merry-go-round has an angular frequency, ${\displaystyle \omega }$, equal to 0.192 rad/sec. How many minutes does it take to complete 12.5 revolutions?

-a) 5.93 minutes.
+b) 6.82 minutes.
-c) 7.84 minutes.
-d) 9.02 minutes.
-e) 10.37 minutes.

366) A merry-go round has a period of 0.38 minutes. What is the centripetal force on a 64.8 kg person who is standing 1.76 meters from the center?

-a) 5 newtons.
-b) 5.7 newtons.
-c) 6.5 newtons.
-d) 7.5 newtons.
+e) 8.7 newtons.

367) A merry-go round has a period of 0.34 minutes. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction that would allow a 51.4 kg person to stand3.09 meters from the center, without grabbing something?

-a) 0.017
-b) 0.02
-c) 0.023
-d) 0.026
+e) 0.03

368) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 1.83 times more massive than Earth, and a radius that is 1.38 times greater than Earths?

-a) 8.2 m/s2
+b) 9.4 m/s2
-c) 10.8 m/s2
-d) 12.5 m/s2
-e) 14.3 m/s2

369) What is the gravitational acceleration on a plant that is 2.01 times more dense than Earth, and a radius that is 1.54 times greater than Earth's?

-a) 26.4 m/s2
+b) 30.3 m/s2
-c) 34.9 m/s2
-d) 40.1 m/s2
-e) 46.1 m/s2
370)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) No
+b) Yes
371)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/r=d\ell /v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) No
-b) Yes
372)
Is ${\displaystyle rd\ell =vdv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
373)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}|-|{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) Yes
+b) No
374)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell /dv=v/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) No
-b) Yes
375)
Is ${\displaystyle dv/d\ell =r/v}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) No
-b) Yes
376)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=|{\vec {v}}_{2}-{\vec {v}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
377)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =vdt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) No
+b) Yes
378)
Is ${\displaystyle adt/v=vdt/r}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
379)
Is ${\displaystyle dv=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
380)
Is ${\displaystyle |d{\vec {v}}|=adt}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

-a) No
+b) Yes
381)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}-{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) Yes
-b) No
382)
Is ${\displaystyle d\ell =|{\vec {r}}_{2}|-|{\vec {r}}_{1}|}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) No
-b) Yes
383)
Is ${\displaystyle v/d\ell =r/dv}$ valid for uniform circular motion?

+a) No
-b) Yes
384) If the initial velocity after leaving the spring is 7.30 m/s, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
- a) 2.35 m
- b) 2.47 m
- c) 2.59 m
+ d) 2.72 m
- e) 2.85 m
385) The mass of the cart is 3.0kg, and the spring constant is 8205N/m. If the initial compression of the spring is 3.00m, how high does it reach before coming to rest?
+ a) 1.26E+03 m
- b) 1.32E+03 m
- c) 1.38E+03 m
- d) 1.45E+03 m
- e) 1.53E+03 m
386) What is the highest point the cart reaches if the speed was 2.4m/s, when the cart was situated at a height of 3.8m?,
- a) 3.28 m
- b) 3.45 m
- c) 3.62 m
+ d) 3.80 m
- e) 3.99 m
387) The spring constant is 615N/m, and the initial compression is 0.12m. What is the mass if the cart reaches a height of 2.74m, before coming to rest?
- a) 0.157 kg
+ b) 0.165 kg
- c) 0.173 kg
- d) 0.182 kg
- e) 0.191 kg
388) The cart has a mass of 36.30kg. It is moving at a speed of 2.10m/s, when it is at a height of 3.33m. If the spring constant was 677N/m, what was the initial compression?
- a) 1.69 m
- b) 1.81 m
+ c) 1.93 m
- d) 2.07 m
- e) 2.21 m

389) You are riding a bicycle on a flat road. Assume no friction or air drag, and that you are coasting. Your speed is 4.9m/s, when you encounter a hill of height 1.14m. What is your speed at the top of the hill?

+ a) 1.291 m/s
- b) 1.368 m/s
- c) 1.450 m/s
- d) 1.537 m/s
- e) 1.630 m/s

390) On object of mass 2.3 kg that is moving at a velocity of 22m/s collides with a stationary object of mass 19.36 kg. What is the final velocity if they stick? (Assume no external friction.)

-a) 1.62m/s.
-b) 1.95m/s.
+c) 2.34m/s.
-d) 2.8m/s.
-e) 3.36m/s.

391) A car of mass 856 kg is driving on an icy road at a speed of 19 m/s, when it collides with a stationary truck. After the collision they stick and move at a speed of 4.7 m/s. What was the mass of the truck?

-a) 1507 kg
-b) 1809 kg
-c) 2170 kg
+d) 2604 kg
-e) 3125 kg
392)
A 159 gm bullet strikes a ballistic pendulum of mass 2.27 kg (before the bullet struck). After impact, the pendulum rises by 65 cm. What was the speed of the bullet?
+a) 55 m/s.
-b) 58 m/s.
-c) 62 m/s.
-d) 67 m/s.
-e) 71 m/s.
393)
A massless bar of length, S = 8.1m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 31.1 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 5.4kg is suspended at a length, L = 6.2m from the wall. What is the tension, T, in the string?
-a) 3.93E+01 N
-b) 4.95E+01 N
-c) 6.23E+01 N
+d) 7.84E+01 N
-e) 9.87E+01 N
394)
In the figure shown, L1 = 5.6m, L2 = 4.3m and L3 = 8.3m. What is F1 if F2 =8.6N and F3 =6.3N?
-a) 7.40E+00 N
-b) 8.96E+00 N
-c) 1.09E+01 N
-d) 1.32E+01 N
+e) 1.59E+01 N
395)
A massless bar of length, S = 9.2m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 35.1 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 3.5kg is suspended at a length, L = 6.2m from the wall. What is the x (horizontal) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
-a) 2.71E+01 N
+b) 3.29E+01 N
-c) 3.98E+01 N
-d) 4.83E+01 N
-e) 5.85E+01 N
396)
In the figure shown, L1 = 5.5m, L2 = 3.7m and L3 = 8.6m. What is F2 if F1 =0.51N and F3 =0N?
-a) 4.26E-01 N
-b) 5.16E-01 N
-c) 6.26E-01 N
+d) 7.58E-01 N
-e) 9.18E-01 N
397)
A massless bar of length, S = 7.3m is attached to a wall by a frictionless hinge (shown as a circle). The bar his held horizontal by a string that makes and angle θ = 27.3 degrees above the horizontal. An object of mass, M = 9.1kg is suspended at a length, L =5.3m from the wall. What is the y (vertical) component of the force exerted by the wall on the horizontal bar?
+a) 2.44E+01 N
-b) 2.96E+01 N
-c) 3.59E+01 N
-d) 4.34E+01 N
-e) 5.26E+01 N

398) A car with a tire radius of 0.35 m accelerates from 0 to 32 m/s in 8.8 seconds. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?

-a) 5.84 x 100 m
-b) 7.08 x 100 m
-c) 8.58 x 100 m
+d) 1.04 x 101 m
-e) 1.26 x 101 m

399) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.35 m and mass 2.3 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.1 revolutions per second. What is the moment of inertia?

+a) 2.82 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-b) 3.41 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-c) 4.14 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-d) 5.01 x 10-1 kg m2/s2
-e) 6.07 x 10-1 kg m2/s2

400) A lead filled bicycle wheel of radius 0.37 m and mass 2.1 kg is rotating at a frequency of 1.4 revolutions per second. What is the total kinetic energy if the wheel is rotating about a stationary axis?

-a) 5.16 x 100 J
-b) 6.25 x 100 J
-c) 7.58 x 100 J
-d) 9.18 x 100 J
+e) 1.11 x 101 J
401)
The moment of inertia of a solid disk of mass, M, and radius, R, is ½ MR2. Two identical disks, each with mass 4.7 kg are attached. The larger disk has a diameter of 0.81 m, and the smaller disk has a diameter of 0.44 m. If a force of 97 N is applied at the rim of the smaller disk, what is the angular acceleration?
+a) 4.27 x 101 s-2
-b) 5.18 x 101 s-2
-c) 6.27 x 101 s-2
-d) 7.6 x 101 s-2
-e) 9.21 x 101 s-2

402) A cylinder with a radius of 0.38 m and a length of 3.6 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.2 m below the water. The mass of the block is 829.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the pressure at the top face of the cylinder?

- 3.40E4 Pa
+ 4.12E4 Pa
- 4.99E4 Pa
- 6.04E4 Pa
- 7.32E4 Pa

403) A cylinder with a radius of 0.29 m and a length of 2.3 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.7 m below the water. The mass of the block is 968.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the buoyant force?

+ 5.96E3 N
- 7.21E3 N
- 8.74E3 N
- 1.06E4 N
- 1.28E4 N

404) A cylinder with a radius of 0.25 m and a length of 3.5 m is held so that the top circular face is 3.3 m below the water. The mass of the block is 922.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the water at the top surface?

- 4.01E3 N
- 5.04E3 N
+ 6.35E3 N
- 7.99E3 N
- 1.01E4 N

405) A cylinder with a radius of 0.28 m and a length of 2.9 m is held so that the top circular face is 4.6 m below the water. The mass of the block is 880.0 kg. The mass density of water is 1000kg/m^3. What is the force exerted by the fluid on the bottom of the cylinder?

- 1.14E4 Pa
- 1.44E4 Pa
+ 1.81E4 Pa
- 2.28E4 Pa
- 2.87E4 Pa

406) A 7.9 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.5 m^3 volume in 7.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 2.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the speed in the first (wider) pipe?

-a) 6.01E-1 m/s
+b) 7.29E-1 m/s
-c) 8.83E-1 m/s
-d) 1.07E0 m/s
-e) 1.30E0 m/s

407) A 9.4 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.5 m^3 volume in 7.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 1.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). What is the pressure difference (in Pascals) between the two regions of the pipe?

+a) 1.24E5
-b) 1.50E5
-c) 1.82E5
-d) 2.20E5
-e) 2.66E5

408) A 7.9 cm diameter pipe can fill a 1.5 m^3 volume in 7.0 minutes. Before exiting the pipe, the diameter is reduced to 2.7 cm (with no loss of flow rate). If two fluid elements at the center of the pipe are separated by 28.0 mm when they are both in the wide pipe, and we neglect turbulence, what is the separation when both are in the narrow pipe?

-a) 1.35E2 mm
-b) 1.63E2 mm
-c) 1.98E2 mm
+d) 2.40E2 mm
-e) 2.90E2 mm

409) A large cylinder is filled with water so that the bottom is 5.4 m below the waterline. At the bottom is a small hole with a diameter of 9.6E-4 m. How fast is the water flowing at the hole? (Neglect viscous effects, turbulence, and also assume that the hole is so small that no significant motion occurs at the top of the cylinder.)

-a) 7.01E0 m/s
-b) 8.49E0 m/s
+c) 1.03E1 m/s
-d) 1.25E1 m/s
-e) 1.51E1 m/s

410) What is the root-mean-square of 45, 23, and -43?

-a) 3.414 x 101
+b) 3.831 x 101
-c) 4.298 x 101
-d) 4.823 x 101
-e) 5.411 x 101

411) What is the rms speed of a molecule with an atomic mass of 14 if the temperature is 22 degrees Fahrenheit?

+a) 6.9 x 102 m/s
-b) 8.37 x 102 m/s
-c) 1.01 x 103 m/s
-d) 1.23 x 103 m/s
-e) 1.49 x 103 m/s

412) If a molecule with atomic mass equal to 9 amu has a speed of 445 m/s, what is the speed at an atom in the same atmosphere of a molecule with an atomic mass of 25 ?

-a) 1.82 x 102 m/s
-b) 2.2 x 102 m/s
+c) 2.67 x 102 m/s
-d) 3.23 x 102 m/s
-e) 3.92 x 102 m/s

413) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.95 kg is filled with 0.19 kg of water. How much heat does it take to raise both from 32.6 C to 75.6 C?

-a) 3.68 x 104 J
-b) 4.33 x 104 J
-c) 5.11 x 104 J
-d) 6.02 x 104 J
+e) 7.1 x 104 J

414) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.61 kg is filled with 0.21 kg of water. What fraction of the heat went into the aluminum?

-a) 3.3 x 10-1
+b) 3.8 x 10-1
-c) 4.5 x 10-1
-d) 5.3 x 10-1
-e) 6.3 x 10-1

415) The specific heat of water and aluminum are 4186 and 900, respectively, where the units are J/kg/Celsius. An aluminum container of mass 0.82 kg is filled with 0.11 kg of water. You are consulting for the flat earth society, a group of people who believe that the acceleration of gravity equals 9.8 m/s/s at all altitudes. Based on this assumption, from what height must the water and container be dropped to achieve the same change in temperature? (For comparison, Earth's radius is 6,371 kilometers)

-a) 4.68 x 100 km
-b) 5.67 x 100 km
-c) 6.87 x 100 km
-d) 8.32 x 100 km
+e) 1.01 x 101 km

416) A window is square, with a length of each side equal to 0.73 meters. The glass has a thickness of 14 mm. To decrease the heat loss, you reduce the size of the window by decreasing the length of each side by a factor of 1.45. You also increase the thickness of the glass by a factor of 2.4. If the inside and outside temperatures are unchanged, by what factor have you decreased the heat flow?. By what factor have you decreased the heat flow (assuming the same inside and outside temperatures).

+a) 5.05 x 100 unit
-b) 6.11 x 100 unit
-c) 7.41 x 100 unit
-d) 8.97 x 100 unit
-e) 1.09 x 101 unit
417)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 1.6 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.9 kPa, P2= 3.6 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.6m3 and V4= 3.3m3. How much work is done in in one cycle?
-a) 4.57 x 101 J
-b) 1.45 x 102 J
-c) 4.57 x 102 J
+d) 1.45 x 103 J
-e) 4.57 x 103 J
418)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.5 kPa, P2= 2.7 kPa. The volumes are V1= 1.9m3 and V4= 3.3m3. How much work is involved between 1 and 4?
-a) 6.64 x 102 J
+b) 2.1 x 103 J
-c) 6.64 x 103 J
-d) 2.1 x 104 J
-e) 6.64 x 104 J
419)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 2.9 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 1.7 kPa, P2= 3.1 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.8m3 and V4= 4.3m3. How much work is involved between 2 and 4?
+a) 3.6 x 103 J
-b) 1.14 x 104 J
-c) 3.6 x 104 J
-d) 1.14 x 105 J
-e) 3.6 x 105 J
420)
A 1241 heat cycle uses 1.5 moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes are: P1= 2.6 kPa, P2= 5.7 kPa. The volumes are V1= 2.7m3 and V4= 5.5m3. What is the temperature at step 4?
+a) 1.15 x 103 K
-b) 3.63 x 103 K
-c) 1.15 x 104 K
-d) 3.63 x 104 K
-e) 1.15 x 105 K

421) A 0.062 kg mass is on a spring that causes the frequency of oscillation to be 65 cycles per second. The maximum velocity is 70.2 m/s. What is the maximum force on the mass?

+a) 1.8 x 103 N
-b) 3.8 x 103 N
-c) 8.3 x 103 N
-d) 1.8 x 104 N
-e) 3.8 x 104 N

422) A spring with spring constant 7.8 kN/m is attached to a 2.5 gram mass. The maximum acelleration is 6.8 m/s2. What is the maximum displacement?

-a) 6.89 x 10-7 m
+b) 2.18 x 10-6 m
-c) 6.89 x 10-6 m
-d) 2.18 x 10-5 m
-e) 6.89 x 10-5 m

423) A spring of spring constant 4.9 kN/m causes a mass to move with a period of 8.8 ms. The maximum displacement is 2.1 mm. What is the maximum kinetic energy?

-a) 3.42 x 10-3 J
+b) 1.08 x 10-2 J
-c) 3.42 x 10-2 J
-d) 1.08 x 10-1 J
-e) 3.42 x 10-1 J

424) A spring with spring constant 1.2 kN/m undergoes simple harmonic motion with a frequency of 5.3 kHz. The maximum force is 1.5 N. What is the total energy?

-a) 2.96 x 10-5 J
-b) 9.38 x 10-5 J
-c) 2.96 x 10-4 J
+d) 9.38 x 10-4 J
-e) 2.96 x 10-3 J

425) The temperature is -2.7 degrees Celsius, and you are standing 0.58 km from a cliff. What is the echo time?

-a) 2.797 x 100 seconds
-b) 3.02 x 100 seconds
-c) 3.261 x 100 seconds
+d) 3.521 x 100 seconds
-e) 3.802 x 100 seconds

426) While standing 0.66 km from a cliff, you measure the echo time to be 3.768 seconds. What is the temperature?

+a) 3.26 x 101Celsius
-b) 3.77 x 101Celsius
-c) 4.35 x 101Celsius
-d) 5.03 x 101Celsius
-e) 5.81 x 101Celsius

427) What is the speed of a transverse wave on a string if the string is 0.58 m long, clamped at both ends, and harmonic number 4 has a frequency of 543 Hz?

-a) 8.86 x 101 unit
-b) 1.07 x 102 unit
-c) 1.3 x 102 unit
+d) 1.57 x 102 unit
-e) 1.91 x 102 unit

428) What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin if a 2.7 nC charge is placed at x = 9.1 m, and a 2.5 nC charge is placed at y = 5.9 m?

-a) 3.99 x 10-1N/C
-b) 4.6 x 10-1N/C
-c) 5.32 x 10-1N/C
-d) 6.14 x 10-1N/C
+e) 7.09 x 10-1N/C

429) What angle does the electric field at the origin make with the x-axis if a 1.4 nC charge is placed at x = -5.5 m, and a 2.8 nC charge is placed at y = -6.8 m?

-a) 3.95 x 101degrees
-b) 4.56 x 101degrees
+c) 5.26 x 101degrees
-d) 6.08 x 101degrees
-e) 7.02 x 101degrees

430) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the x component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 5a, 4a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

-a) 1.76 x 10-3 unit
-b) 2.13 x 10-3 unit
-c) 2.59 x 10-3 unit
+d) 3.13 x 10-3 unit
-e) 3.79 x 10-3 unit

431) A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the y component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 1.1a, 1.2a) is βkQ/a2, where β equals

-a) 1.95 x 10-1 unit
-b) 2.36 x 10-1 unit
-c) 2.86 x 10-1 unit
+d) 3.47 x 10-1 unit
-e) 4.2 x 10-1 unit

432) A parallel plate capacitor has both plates with an area of 1.05 m2. The separation between the plates is 0.63mm. Applied to the plates is a potential difference of 4.35 kV. What is the capacitance?

-a) 11.16 nF.
-b) 12.83 nF.
+c) 14.76 nF.
-d) 16.97 nF.
-e) 19.52 nF.

433) The same parallel plate capacitor, with area 0.75 m2, plate separation 0.53mm, and an applied voltage of 3.55 kV. How much charge is stored?

-a) 29.25 μC.
-b) 33.63 μC.
-c) 38.68 μC.
+d) 44.48 μC.
-e) 51.15 μC.

434) A 0.5 Farad capacitor is charged with 1.3 Coulombs. What is the value of the electric field if the plates are 0.7 mm apart?

+a) 3.71 kV/m.
-b) 4.27 kV/m.
-c) 4.91 kV/m.
-d) 5.65 kV/m.
-e) 6.5 kV/m.

435) A 0.8 Farad capacitor charged with 1.7 Coulombs. What is the energy stored in the capacitor if the plates are 0.5 mm apart?

+a) 1.81 J.
-b) 2.08 J.
-c) 2.39 J.
-d) 2.75 J.
-e) 3.16 J.

436) A 1.3 Farad capacitor charged with 1.9 Coulombs. What is the force between the plates if they are 0.3 mm apart?

-a) 4025 N.
+b) 4628 N.
-c) 5322 N.
-d) 6121 N.
-e) 7039 N.

437) How fast is a 2952 eV electron moving?

-a) 6.4 x 106 m/s.
-b) 9.5 x 106 m/s.
-c) 1.4 x 107 m/s.
-d) 2.1 x 107 m/s.
+e) 3.2 x 107 m/s.

438) A proton is accellerated (at rest) from a plate held at 729.8 volts to a plate at zero volts. What is the final speed?

-a) 1.7 x 105 m/s.
-b) 2.5 x 105 m/s.
+c) 3.7 x 105 m/s.
-d) 5.6 x 105 m/s.
-e) 8.4 x 105 m/s.

439) What voltage is required accelerate an electron at rest to a speed of 1.5 x 103 m/s?

-a) 1.9 x 10-6 volts
-b) 2.8 x 10-6 volts
-c) 4.3 x 10-6 volts
+d) 6.4 x 10-6 volts
-e) 9.6 x 10-6 volts

440) What voltage is required to stop a proton moving at a speed of 8.1 x 104 m/s?

+a) 3.4 x 101 volts
-b) 5.1 x 101 volts
-c) 7.7 x 101 volts
-d) 1.2 x 102 volts
-e) 1.7 x 102 volts

441) A 5.1 volt battery moves 43 Coulombs of charge in 1.5 hours. What is the power?

+a) 4.06 x 10-2 W
-b) 4.92 x 10-2 W
-c) 5.96 x 10-2 W
-d) 7.22 x 10-2 W
-e) 8.75 x 10-2 W

442) The diameter of a copper wire is 9.9 mm, and it carries a current of 41 amps. What is the drift velocity if copper has a density of 8.8E3 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 63.54 g/mol? (1 mol = 6.02E23 atoms, and copper has one free electron per atom.)

-a) 2.24 x 10-5m/s
-b) 2.72 x 10-5m/s
-c) 3.29 x 10-5m/s
+d) 3.99 x 10-5m/s
-e) 4.83 x 10-5m/s

443) A 162 Watt DC motor draws 0.41 amps of current. What is effective resistance?

-a) 5.42 x 102 Ω
-b) 6.57 x 102 Ω
-c) 7.95 x 102 Ω
+d) 9.64 x 102 Ω
-e) 1.17 x 103 Ω

444) A power supply delivers 110 watts of power to a 299 ohm resistor. What was the applied voltage?

-a) 8.42 x 101 volts
-b) 1.02 x 102 volts
-c) 1.24 x 102 volts
-d) 1.5 x 102 volts
+e) 1.81 x 102 volts

445) A 819 mF capacitor is connected in series to a 798 kΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

-a) 8.27 x 105 s.
+b) 2.61 x 106 s.
-c) 8.27 x 106 s.
-d) 2.61 x 107 s.
-e) 8.27 x 107 s.

446) A 65 μF capacitor is connected in series to a 414 kΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

-a) 1.08 x 101 s.
-b) 3.4 x 101 s.
+c) 1.08 x 102 s.
-d) 3.4 x 102 s.
-e) 1.08 x 103 s.

447) A 727 mF capacitor is connected in series to a 860 MΩ resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e3? (where e =2.7...)

+a) 1.88 x 109 s.
-b) 5.93 x 109 s.
-c) 1.88 x 1010 s.
-d) 5.93 x 1010 s.
-e) 1.88 x 1011 s.

448) A 10 F capacitor is connected in series to a 10Ω resistor. If the capacitor is discharged, how long does it take to fall by a factor of e4? (where e =2.7...)

-a) 4 x 100 s.
-b) 1.26 x 101 s.
-c) 4 x 101 s.
-d) 1.26 x 102 s.
+e) 4 x 102 s.

449) 3 amps flow through a 1 Ohm resistor. What is the voltage?}

-a) None these are correct.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}V}$
-c) ${\displaystyle 1V}$
+d) ${\displaystyle 3V}$

450) A 1 ohm resistor has 5 volts DC across its terminals. What is the current (I) and the power consumed?}

-a) I = 5A & P = 3W.
-b) I = 5A & P = 5W.
+c) I = 5A & P = 25W.
-d) I = 5A & P = 9W

451) The voltage across two resistors in series is 10 volts. One resistor is twice as large as the other. What is the voltage across the larger resistor? What is the voltage across the smaller one? }

+a) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=6.67V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=3.33V}$.
-b) ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=3.33V}$ and${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=6.67V}$.
-c) None of these are true.
-d) ${\displaystyle V_{small-Resistor}=5V}$ and ${\displaystyle V_{Big-Resistor}=5V}$.

452) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in series. What is the total resistance?}

-a) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=3\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=0.5454\Omega }$.
-c) None of these are true.
+d) ${\displaystyle R_{Total}=6\Omega }$.

453) Two identical resistors are connected in series. The voltage across both of them is 250 volts. What is the voltage across each one?}

-a) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=150V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=100V}$.
+b) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=125V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=125V}$.
-c) ${\displaystyle R_{1}=250V}$ and ${\displaystyle R_{2}=0V}$.
-d) None of these are true.

454) A 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

-a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{6}}\Omega }$.
+b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{11}}\Omega }$.
-c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{3}}\Omega }$.
-d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{6}}\Omega }$.

455) A 5 ohm and a 2 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

-a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{6}}\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{10}}\Omega }$.
-c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {6}{10}}\Omega }$.
+d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{7}}\Omega }$.

456) A 7 ohm and a 3 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

+a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {21}{10}}\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {10}{21}}\Omega }$.
-c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {7}{11}}\Omega }$.
-d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {11}{7}}\Omega }$.

457) Three 1 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?}

-a) ${\displaystyle 3\Omega }$.
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {2}{3}}\Omega }$.
-c) ${\displaystyle {\frac {3}{2}}\Omega }$.
+d) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{3}}\Omega }$.

458) If you put an infinite number of resistors in parallel, what would the total resistance be?}

-a) It is not possible to connect that Number of Resistors in parallel.
+b) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach Zero as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity.
-c) ${\displaystyle R_{total}}$ would approach 1 as The No. of Resistors In parallel Approaches Infinity
-d) None of these are true.
459) What is the current through R1 and R2 in the figure shown?
-a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=25A}$.
-b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.1667A}$.
+c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=1.667A}$.
-d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$ and ${\displaystyle I_{2}=16.67A}$.

460) Why do we say the "voltage across" or "the voltage with respect to?" Why can't we just say voltage?}

-a) It's an Electrical Cliche.
-b) None these are correct
-c) The other point could be Negative or positive.
+d) Voltage is a measure of Electric Potential difference between two electrical points.
461) What is the current through R1, R2, R3, and R4 in the figure shown?
-a) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=0.25A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.1A}$.
-b) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=3.3A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=2.5A}$.
-c) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=10A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=50A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=25A}$..
+d) ${\displaystyle I_{1}=1A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{2}=0.5A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{3}=0.33A}$; ${\displaystyle I_{4}=0.25A}$.

462) Two resistors are in parallel with a voltage source. How do their voltages compare?}

+a) The voltage across both resistors is the same as the source.
-b) One has full voltage, the other has none.
-c) The voltage across both resistors is half the voltage of the source.
-d) None of these are true.

463) A resistor consumes 5 watts, and its current is 10 amps. What is its voltage?

-a) 10V.
-b) 2V.
-c) 15V.
+d) 0.5V.

464) A resistor has 10 volts across it and 4 amps going through it. What is its resistance?}

-a) ${\displaystyle 4.5\Omega .}$
-b) None of these are true.
-c) ${\displaystyle 3.5\Omega .}$
+d) ${\displaystyle 2.5\Omega .}$

465) If you plot voltage vs. current in a circuit, and you get a linear line, what is the significance of the slope? }

-a) Discriminant.
-b) Power.
+c) Resistance.
-d) None of these are true.

466) A resistor has 3 volts across it. Its resistance is 1.5 ohms. What is the current?}

-a) 3A
+b) 2A
-c) 1.5A
-d) 12A

467) A resistor has 8 volts across it and 3 Amps going through it. What is the power consumed?}

+a) 24W
-b) 8W
-c) 3W
-d) 2.2W

468) A resistor has a voltage of 5 volts and a resistance of 15 ohms. What is the power consumed? }

-a) 11.67 Joules
-b) 2.5 Watts
+c) 1.67 Watts
-d) None of these are ture.

469) A resistor is on for 5 seconds. It consumes power at a rate of 5 watts. How many joules are used?}

-a) 3 Joules
+b) 25 Joules
-c) None of these are true
-d) 5 Joules

470) An ideal 9.4 V voltage source is connected to two resistors in parallel. One is 2.1${\displaystyle k\Omega }$, and the other is 4.3 ${\displaystyle k\Omega }$. What is the current through the larger resistor?

+a) 1.47 mA.
-b) 1.69 mA.
-c) 1.94 mA.
-d) 2.23 mA.
-e) 2.57 mA.

471) A 8.1 ohm resistor is connected in series to a pair of 5.2 ohm resistors that are in parallel. What is the net resistance?

-a) 6.1 ohms.
-b) 7 ohms.
-c) 8.1 ohms.
-d) 9.3 ohms.
+e) 10.7 ohms.

472) Two 7.8 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series to a 5.4 ohm resistor. What is the net resistance?

+a) 9.3 ohms.
-b) 10.7 ohms.
-c) 12.3 ohms.
-d) 14.1 ohms.
-e) 16.3 ohms.

473) An ideal 5.9 volt battery is connected to a 0.059 ohm resistor. To measure the current an ammeter with a resistance of 24${\displaystyle m\Omega }$ is used. What current does the ammeter actually read?

+a) 71.1 A.
-b) 81.7 A.
-c) 94 A.
-d) 108.1 A.
-e) 124.3 A.

474) A battery has an emf of 6.5 volts, and an internal resistance of 244 ${\displaystyle k\Omega }$. It is connected to a 4 ${\displaystyle M\Omega }$ resistor. What power is developed in the 4 ${\displaystyle M\Omega }$ resistor?

-a) 7.09 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
-b) 8.16 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
+c) 9.38 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
-d) 10.79 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.
-e) 12.41 ${\displaystyle \mu }$W.

475) A cosmic ray alpha particle encounters Earth's magnetic field at right angles to a field of 7.4 μT. The kinetic energy is 437 keV. What is the radius of particle's orbit?

-a) 1.3 x 102 m.
-b) 4.1 x 102 m.
-c) 1.3 x 103 m.
-d) 4.1 x 103 m.
+e) 1.3 x 104 m.

476) Two parallel wires are 7.5 meters long, and are separated by 4.4 mm. What is the force if both wires carry a current of 14.8 amps?

-a) 2.36 x 10-3 newtons
-b) 7.47 x 10-3 newtons
-c) 2.36 x 10-2 newtons
+d) 7.47 x 10-2 newtons
-e) 2.36 x 10-1 newtons

477) Blood is flowing at an average rate of 24.5 cm/s in an artery that has an inner diameter of 3.9 mm. What is the voltage across a hall probe placed across the inner diameter of the artery if the perpendicular magnetic field is 0.17 Tesla?

-a) 5.14 x 10-5 Volts
+b) 1.62 x 10-4 Volts
-c) 5.14 x 10-4 Volts
-d) 1.62 x 10-3 Volts
-e) 5.14 x 10-3 Volts

478) An electron tube on Earth's surface is oriented horizontally towards magnetic north. The electron is traveling at 0.06c, and Earth's magnetic field makes an angle of 48.5 degrees with respect to the horizontal. To counter the magnetic force, a voltage is applied between two large parallel plates that are 59 mm apart. What must be the applied voltage if the magnetic field is 45μT?

-a) 1.1 x 100 volts
-b) 3.6 x 100 volts
-c) 1.1 x 101 volts
+d) 3.6 x 101 volts
-e) 1.1 x 102 volts

479) Two orbiting satellites are orbiting at a speed of 83 km/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of 57 μT. They are connected by a cable that is 23 km long. A voltmeter is attached between a satellite and one end of the cable. The voltmeter's internal impedance far exceeds the net resistance through the ionosphere that completes the circuit. What is the measured voltage?

-a) 8.98 x 104 volts.
+b) 1.09 x 105 volts.
-c) 1.32 x 105 volts.
-d) 1.6 x 105 volts.
-e) 1.93 x 105 volts.

480) An loop of wire with 43 turns has a radius of 0.27 meters, and is oriented with its axis parallel to a magetic field of 0.68 Tesla. What is the induced voltage if this field is reduced to 36% of its original value in 3.8 seconds?

-a) 6.34 x 10-1 volts
-b) 7.68 x 10-1 volts
-c) 9.31 x 10-1 volts
+d) 1.13 x 100 volts
-e) 1.37 x 100 volts
481)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
-a) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
-b) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
+c) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
-d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
482)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
-a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
-b) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
+c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
-d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

483) In optics, normal means

-a) parallel to the surface
-b) to the right of the optical axis
+c) perpendicular to the surface
-d) to the left of the optical axis

484) The law of reflection applies to

+a) both flat and curved surfaces
-b) only light in a vacuum
-c) telescopes but not microscopes
-d) flat surfaces
-e) curved surfaces

485) When light passes from air to glass

-a) the frequency increases
-b) the frequency decreases
-c) it bends away from the normal
-d) it does not bend
+e) it bends towards the normal

486) When light passes from glass to air

-a) the frequency increases
-b) it does not bend
-c) it bends towards the normal
+d) it bends away from the normal
-e) the frequency decreases

487) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

-a) the Doppler shift
-b) the invariance of the speed of light
-c) partial internal absorption
+d) total internal reflection
-e) total external refraction

488) The focal point is where

-a) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
-b) the center of the lens
-c) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
+d) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
-e) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

489) An object is placed 8.6 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 6.3 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

-a) 3.64 x 10-1 cm
-b) 6.47 x 10-1 cm
-c) 1.15 x 100 cm
-d) 2.04 x 100 cm
+e) 3.64 x 100 cm

490) An object is placed 4.85 cm to the left of a converging lens with a focal length of 4 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

-a) 4.06 x 100 cm
-b) 7.22 x 100 cm
-c) 1.28 x 101 cm
+d) 2.28 x 101 cm
-e) 4.06 x 101 cm

491) An object of height 0.67 cm is placed 107 cm behind a diverging lens with a focal length of 70 cm. What is the height of the image?

+a) 2.65 x 10-1 cm
-b) 3.18 x 10-1 cm
-c) 3.82 x 10-1 cm
-d) 4.58 x 10-1 cm
-e) 5.49 x 10-1 cm

492) An object is placed 10.9 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 16.3 cm. On the side, at a distance of 5.7 cm from the diverging lens is a converging lens with focal length equal to 4 cm. How far is the final image from the converging lens?

-a) 1.88 x 100 cm
+b) 5.94 x 100 cm
-c) 1.88 x 101 cm
-d) 5.94 x 101 cm
-e) 1.88 x 102 cm

493) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

-a) They have the same focal lengh.
-b)
+c)

494) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

-a) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
-b) very far away
-c) at infinity
-d) One focal length in front of the eye
+e) Two (of the other answers) are true

495) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

+a) false
-b) true

496) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

+a)
-b)
-c)

497) A 5.1 volt battery moves 43 Coulombs of charge in 1.5 hours. What is the power?

+a) 4.06 x 10-2 W
-b) 4.92 x 10-2 W
-c) 5.96 x 10-2 W
-d) 7.22 x 10-2 W
-e) 8.75 x 10-2 W

498) The diameter of a copper wire is 7.4 mm, and it carries a current of 38 amps. What is the drift velocity if copper has a density of 8.8E3 kg/m3 and an atomic mass of 63.54 g/mol? (1 mol = 6.02E23 atoms, and copper has one free electron per atom.)

-a) 3.07 x 10-5m/s
-b) 3.72 x 10-5m/s
-c) 4.5 x 10-5m/s
-d) 5.46 x 10-5m/s
+e) 6.61 x 10-5m/s

499) A 130 Watt DC motor draws 0.3 amps of current. What is effective resistance?

-a) 8.12 x 102 Ω
-b) 9.84 x 102 Ω
-c) 1.19 x 103 Ω
+d) 1.44 x 103 Ω
-e) 1.75 x 103 Ω

500) A power supply delivers 145 watts of power to a 244 ohm resistor. What was the applied voltage?

+a) 1.88 x 102 volts
-b) 2.28 x 102 volts
-c) 2.76 x 102 volts
-d) 3.34 x 102 volts
-e) 4.05 x 102 volts

501) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to

-a) counting rods
-b) an abacus
-c) Roman numerals
+d) a person

502) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem

+a) true
-b) false

503) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved.

+a) false
-b) true

504) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

-a) analog
+b) conceptual
-c) prototype
-d) electromechanical
-e) digital

505) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

-a) true
+b) false

506) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* If the number is divisible by 10, add 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

-a) false
+b) true

507) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to

-a) count votes in an election
-b) calculate the value of π
+c) control a telephone exchange
-d) control a textile mill

508) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.}

-a) mechanical
-b) electric digital programmable
-c) Turing-complete
+d) electromechanical

509) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was

-a) Turing-complete
-b) mechanical
+c) electric digital programmable
-d) electromechanical

510) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

-a) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
+b) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
-c) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
-d) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors

511) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

+a) true
-b) false

512) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

+a) false
-b) true

513) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

+a) false
-b) true

514) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.

+a) true
-b) false

515) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer

+a) true
-b) false

516) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer

-a) true
+b) false

517) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)

+a) false
-b) true

518) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

-a) false
+b) true

519) Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?

+a) high speed
-b) low speed
-c) low mass
-d) confinement to a small space

520) How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?

-a) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits
+b) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits
-c) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.
-d) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.

521) What are the units of Plank's constant?

-a) none of the above
+b) all of the above
-c) momentum x distance
-d) energy x time
-e) mass x velocity x distance

522) What are the units of Plank's constant?

-a) none of the above
-b) energy x time
-c) momentum x distance x mass
-d) mass x velocity
+e) all of the above

523) How would you describe Old Quantum Theory

-a) complete but not self-consistent
-b) complete and self-consistent
-c) self-consistent but not complete
+d) neither complete nor self-consistent

524) The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of

-a) protons
-b) electrons
-c) energy
+d) light

525) What are examples of energy?

+a) all of the above
-b) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}mv^{2}}$
-c) heat
-d) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height

526) What are examples of energy?

-a) ${\displaystyle {\frac {1}{2}}mv}$
+b) all of the above
-c) momentum
-d) heat

527) What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?

-a) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct
-b) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize
+c) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick
-d) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation

528) What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?

-a) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.
-b) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.
+c) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.
-d) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur

529) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

+a) once every 50 years
-b) once a 5 months
-c) once every 5 years

530) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

-a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines
+b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines
-c) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

531) An example of a standard candle is

-a) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark
-b) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light
-c) all of these are standard candles
+d) a supernova in a distant galaxy

532) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

+a) 1400km/s
-b) 350km/s
-c) 700km/s

533) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

-a) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion
-b) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away
+c) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

534) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

-a) they all have nearly the same speed
+b) they have a wide variety of speeds
-c) they are not receding away from us
-d) the cluster is close to us

535) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

-a) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light
-b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies
+c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
-d) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

536) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

+a) No, the clouds would get hot
-b) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
-c) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
-d) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis

537) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

+a) true
-b) false

538) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

+a) true
-b) false

539) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

+a) false
-b) true

540) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons. }

-a) false
+b) true

541) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.}

-a) true
+b) false

542) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.}

+a) false
-b) true

543) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years

-a) 1
-b) 2
+c) 3
-d) 4

544) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

-a) 4
-b) 3
-c) 1
+d) 2

545) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

+a) true
-b) false

546) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.

-a) true
+b) false

547) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______}

-a) six months;   54 years
+b) 34 days;   six months
-c) one month;   18 years
-d) six months;   18 years
-e) 7 days;   one month

548) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?

-a)15,000 years
-b)30 years
-c)300 years
-d)3000 years
+e)1500 years
549)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
+a) crown gear
-b) epicycle gear
-c) spiral bevel gear

550) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

+a) true
-b) false

551) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?

+a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
-b) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
-c) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.

552) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

+b) 100-150 BC
-c) 300-350 BC
-d) 500-550 BC

553) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.

-a) true
+b) false

554) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________.

+a) sponge divers;   1900
-b) Jacques-Yves Cousteau;   1976

555) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?

+a) The quality of its manufacture.
-b) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
-c) Chemical analysis of the bronze.
-d) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.

556) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

-a) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
-b) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.
-c) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
+d) copper;   to make it hard.

557) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device

-a) suggested that Greek technology was used.
-b) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
-c) suggested that Roman technology was used.
+d) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.

558) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?

-a) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
+b) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
-c) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
-d) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.
559) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
+a) B: 000100
-b) A: 000010
-c) B: 000010
-d) A: 000100
560) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
-a) B: 000110
-b) A: 001100
-c) B: 000110
+d) A: 000110
561) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
-a) A: 001110
-b) B: 001100
+c) B: 000110
-d) A: 000110
562) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
-a) B: 001110
+b) A: 001110
-c) B: 000111
-d) A: 001110
563) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
-a) H: 011110
-b) A: 011110
-c) H: 011110
+d) B: 011110
564) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
-a) A: 011110
-b) B: 011110
+c) H: 011110
-d) H: 011110

565) The ecliptic is the set of all points on the celestial sphere

+a) occupied by the Sun over the course of a year.
-b) occupied by the Sun and Moon during eclipse season.
-c) occupied by the Sun over the course of one day.
-d) occupied by the Moon over the course of one month.
-e) occupied by the Moon over the course of one day.

566) ${\displaystyle {\frac {360\,{\text{degrees}}}{30\,{\text{days}}}}={\frac {36}{3}}\,}$, calculates that the Moon moves approximately 13 ______

-a) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
+b) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
-c) degrees per hour across the sky
-d) degrees per day across the sky

567) Two great circles on a sphere meet at ______ point(s)

+a) 2
-b) 4
-c) 0
-d) 3
-e) 1

568) A star in any of the 12 zodiacal constellations rises and sets near where the Sun rises and sets, except that the cycle is repeated every 24 hours minus approximately 4 minutes.

-a) false
+b) true

569) Four minutes times 365 is approximately one

-a) week
-b) year
-c) month
+d) day

570) As the Sun rises and sets it typically spends 4 minutes in each constellation of the Zodiac

+a) false
-b) true

571) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which is NOT equal to the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

+a) true
-b) false

572) One minute of arc describes and angle 60 times smaller than one degree, which nearly equals the observed angular motion of a star in one minute.

-a) true
+b) false

573) In the course of a year, the Sun is always in or near one of the 12 zodiacal constellations

+a) true
-b) false

574) ${\displaystyle {\frac {360}{24}}={\frac {36\cdot 10}{12\cdot 2}}={\frac {12\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 2}{12\cdot 2\,}}}$, calculates that the Sun moves 15

-a) degrees per day across the sky
-b) degrees per hour compared to the fixed stars
-c) degrees per day compared to the fixed stars
+d) degrees per hour across the sky

575) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years

+a) 10
-b) 100
-c) 300
-d) 30
-e) 3

576) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent

-a) estimates of the impact on land temperatures
-b) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels
-c) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone
+d) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future

577) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

-a) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming
-b) adaptation to the effects of global warming
-c) climate engineering
+d) reduction of green house emissions

578) Anthropogenic means something that

-a) will hurt humans
-b) humans can repair
-c) humans cannot repair
+d) human caused

579) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________

-a) land; near the equators
-b) air; in the water vapor
-c) sea; in the bottom kilometer
+d) sea; in the top kilometer
-e) land; near the poles

580) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling

-a) true
+b) false

581) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

-a) near the equator
-b) on the ocean surface
-c) in the western hemisphere
+d) near the poles

582) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by

-a) all but the US academy of science
-b) 90% of the academies of science
+c) all of the academies of science
-d) 60% of the academies of science

583) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are

-a) cement production and waste disposal
-b) population growth
-c) population growth and waste disposal
+d) cement production and land use changes

584) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

-a) 1.6° Celsius
-b) 0.16° Celsius
-c) 0.06° Celsius
-d) 16° Celsius
+e) 0.6° Celsius

585) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

-a) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
-b) The United States has warmed more than Australia
+c) all portions of Antarctica have warmed
-d) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia

586) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in

-a) the sun's energy output
-b) the earth's distance from the sun
-c) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
+d) the world economy

587) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.}

-a) 0.7°C
-b) 7.0°C
+c) 0.07°C

588) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

+a) both of these are true
-b) water tends to expand as it warms
-c) ice and snow melts

589) What happens when water is heated?

-a) it absorbs CO2
-b) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
+c) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C

590) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

-a) true
+b) false

591) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

-a) false
+b) true

592) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun

+a) false
-b) true

593) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

-a) 0.7 °C per year
+c) 0.7 °C per century

594) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was

-a) half as much
+b) twice as much

595) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

-a) twice as much
+c) half as much

596) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.

-a) 30%
+b) 3%
-c) 0.3%
-d) 0%

597) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth

+a) true
-b)false

598) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.

+a) false
-b) true

599) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

-a) the Little Ice Age
-b) a 10 year average
-c) tree proxy measurements
-d) the Medieval Warming Period
+e) thermometer measurements

600) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)

+a) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
-b) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
-c) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements
-d) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period

601) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.

+a) false
-b) true

602) Emissions scenarios are

-a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
-b) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
-c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature
+d) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases

603) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

-a) true
+b) false

604) The carbon cycle

-a) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.
+b) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
-c) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.

605) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

-a) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
-b) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming
+c) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight

606) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

+a) false
-b) true

607) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

-a) false
+b) true

608) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.

-a) true
+b) false

609) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.

+a) true
-b) false

610) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?

-a) 10%
-b) 30%
+c) 0%
-d) 50%

611) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere

-a) false
+b) true

612) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

-a) false
+b) true

613) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere

-a) true
+b) false

614) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

-a) false
+b) true

615) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.

-a) true
+b) false

616) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.

-a) false
+b) true

617) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

-a) volcanic eruptions
+b) orbital cycles
-c) greenhouse gasses
-d) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)

618) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.

-a) true
+b) false

619) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.

-a) true
+b) false

620) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.

+a) true
-b) false

621) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.

+a) false
-b) true

622) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations

-a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.
-b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
+c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations

623) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

+a) false
-b) true

624) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in

-a) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun
-b) how much ice is melted during the summer months
+c) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight

625) The cryosphere refers to

-a) the highest mountains
-b) the north and south poles
-c) the upper atmosphere
+d) two of these are true

626) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

-a) false
+b) true

627) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.

-a) true
+b) false

628) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?

-a) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.
+b) all of these are true
-c) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
-d) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.

629) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

+a) true
-b) false

630) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet

-a) true
+b) false

631) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.

-a) false
+b) true

632) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.

-a) true
+b) false

633) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.}

+a) false
-b) true

634) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.}

-a) true
+b) false

635) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.

+a) false
-b) true

636) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.

-a) false
+b) true

637) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

-a) the American civil war (1861)
-b) World War I (1914)
+c) the American revolution (1776)

638) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them

+a) two of these are true
-b) was sabotaged by workers
-c) burned down
-d) is still in use today
-e) was transported to Germany

639) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

-a) spin cotton
-b) clean cotton
-c) pick cotton
+d) remove seeds
-e) weave cotton

640) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______

-a) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
-b) Coalopolis, coal mines
+c) Cottonopolis, textile factories
-d) Weavopolis, Weaving factories

641) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required

-a) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.
-b) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).
+c) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.

642) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______

-a) cheaper, hammering
-b) faster, puddling
-c) cheaper, puddling
+d) faster, hammering

643) Puddling involved

-a) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring
-b) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
+c) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
-d) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron

644) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by

+a) water and wind.
-b) steam and wind.
-c) water and steam.

645) The Miner's Friend

+a) pumped water
-b) provided ventilation
-c) transported miners
-d) was electrical lighting

646) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to

-a) shape plates for ship hulls
+b) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
-c) drill coal mines

647) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by

-a) replacing iron containers with glass containers
+b) replacing glass containers with lead containers
-c) replacing glass containers with iron containers
-d) replacing lead containers with glass containers

648) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years

+a) 100
-b) 500
-c) 300
-d) 200
-e) 400

649) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

-a) making cement and bleaching cloth
+b) removing rust and bleaching cloth
-c) removing rust and making cement
-d) producing dyes and making cement
-e) producing dyes and bleaching cloth

650) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in

+a) Germany
-b) Italy
-c) Sweden
-d) United States
-e) Great Britain

651) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was

-a) ship building
+c) textiles
-d) military spending
-e) farm equipment

652) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?

-a) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
+b) the question is a subject of controversy
-c) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.
-d) sustained growth, for the first time in history

653) The industrial revolution began in

+a) Great Britain
-b) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
-c) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
-d) United States
-e) Germany

654) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?

-a) textiles
-b) iron making
+c) assembly lines
-d) steam power

655) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect

-a) large manufacturers
-b) domestic cotton production
+c) the woollen industry
-d) small manufacturers

656) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

-a) spinning, weaving, fewer
-b) weaving, spinning, more
-c) weaving, spinning, fewer
+d) spinning, weaving, more

657) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.

+a) weaving, spinning, fewer
-b) spinning, weaving, fewer
-c) spinning, weaving, more
-d) weaving, spinning, more

658) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 7.0 meters
+b) 6.0 meters
-c) 3.0 meters
-d) 4.0 meters
-e) 5.0 meters

659) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 9.0 meters
+b) 10.0 meters
-c) 7.0 meters
-d) 11.0 meters
-e) 8.0 meters

660) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 11.0 meters
+b) 12.0 meters
-c) 10.0 meters
-d) 8.0 meters
-e) 9.0 meters

661) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

-a) 5.0 meters
+b) 6.0 meters
-c) 8.0 meters
-d) 9.0 meters
-e) 7.0 meters

662) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

+a) 10.0 meters
-b) 7.0 meters
-c) 11.0 meters
-d) 8.0 meters
-e) 9.0 meters

663) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

-a) 22.0 meters
-b) 21.0 meters
-c) 19.0 meters
+d) 20.0 meters
-e) 23.0 meters

664) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 4.0 meters
+b) 3.0 meters
-c) 5.0 meters
-d) 6.0 meters
-e) 7.0 meters

665) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 11.0 meters
-b) 10.0 meters
-c) 12.0 meters
+d) 9.0 meters
-e) 8.0 meters

666) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

-a) 17.0 meters
+b) 16.0 meters
-c) 20.0 meters
-d) 19.0 meters
-e) 18.0 meters

667) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 4.0 meters
-b) 5.0 meters
-c) 1.0 meters
+d) 3.0 meters
-e) 2.0 meters

668) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

-a) 23.0 meters
-b) 25.0 meters
+c) 24.0 meters
-d) 26.0 meters
-e) 27.0 meters

669) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

+a) 16.0 meters
-b) 15.0 meters
-c) 13.0 meters
-d) 17.0 meters
-e) 14.0 meters

670) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?

-a) 3%
+b) 13%
-c) 63%
-d) 33%

671) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

-a) neutrons are stable
-b) neutrons are slow

672) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

-a) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
-b) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
-c) protons move at the speed of light
+d) protons are positively charged

673) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

-a) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons
-b) "moonshine";   fast neutrons
-c) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"
+d) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)

674) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________

-a) fission;   hesparium
+b) hesperium;   fission
-c) fusion;   hesparium
-d) hesperium;   fusion

675) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

-a) nuclear power generation
-b) they were developed simultaneously
+c) nuclear weapons

+a) plutonium and enriched uranium
-b) plutonium and enriched hesparium
-c) uranium and enriched plutonium

677) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...

+a) that fossil fuels would go unused
-b) a world government to prevent nuclear war
-c) nuclear war

678) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was

+a) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
-b) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
-c) a protest movement centered in US universities
-d) a congressional committee

679) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

+a) Russia
-b) Great Britain
-c) Virginia
-d) Oak Ridge

680) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was

+a) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
-b) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
-c) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy

681) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?

-a) impossible
+b) unlikely
-c) expected
-d) likely

682) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years

+a) true
-b) false

683) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines

+a) false
-b) true

684) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia

-a) true
+b) false

685) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and

-a) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)
+b) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
-c) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
-d) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)

686) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

+a) comparable
-b) more
-c) less

687) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)

-a) less
-b) greater

688) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

-a) 10
+b) 50
-c) 90

689) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is

+a) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.
-b) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.
-c) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.
-d) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.

690) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______

+a) early 20th century
-b) early 19th century
-c) late 19th century

691) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons

-b) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
+c) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price

692) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

-a) what he called alpha particles
-b) what called neutrons
-c) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
+d) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power

693) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure

-a) only in the reactor core
+b) to prevent it from boiling
-c) to reduce the heat required to boil it
-d) to slow down the neutrons

694) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

+a) 100 times less than
-b) 100 times more than
-c) 10 times less than
-e) 10 times more than

695) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

-a) true
+b) false

696) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

+a) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
-b) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership
-c) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full

697) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium

-a) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
-b) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states
-c) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
+d) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns

698) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage

-a) true
+b) false

699) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage

-a) false
+b) true

700) Nuclear power plants typically have

-a) high capital costs and high fuel costs
-b) low capital costs and low fuel costs
+c) high capital costs and low fuel costs
-d) low capital costs and high fuel costs

701) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?

+a) zero
-b) from 4000 to 25,000
-c) from 0 to 1000

702) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.

-a) false
+b) true

703) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

+a) false
-b) true

704) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned

+a) 6 years;   3%
-b) 6 months;   30%
-c) 6 months;   3%
-d) 6 years;   30%

705) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries

-a) false
+b) true

706) The Megatons to Megawatts Program

+a) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
-b) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure
-c) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
-d) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure

707) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

+a) 5 years
-b) 5 months
-c) 50 years

708) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.

-a) 4 times less common
+b) 40 times more common
-c) 4 times more common
-d) 40 times less common

709) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are

-a) considered impossible
-c) are likely to emerge in the next few decades

710) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

-a) 1 %
-b) 3%
-c) 60%
+d) 99%
-e) 30%

711) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

+a) false
-b) true

712) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

+a) the isotopes are long-lived
-b) the isotopes are short-lived
-c) they cannot be stored underground

713) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

-a) 100 times less than
-c) 10 times less than
+d) 100 times more than
-e) 10 times more than

714) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and NOT somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

-a) above a threshold wavelength
+b) above a threshold intensity
-c) at a specific frequency
-d) above a threshold frequency

715) If the electron behaved as a classical (non-quantum) particle and the electron was somehow connected to a spring inside the metal, then one would expect that photoelectrons would be emitted _______

-a) above a threshold intensity
+b) at a specific frequency
-c) above a threshold wavelength
-d) above a thresholdfrequency

716) In the photoelectric effect, how was the maximum kinetic energy measured?

-a) by measuring the distance between the electrodes
-b) by measuring the wavelength of the light
+c) by measuring the voltage required to prevent the electrons from passing between the two electrodes.

717) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

-a) true
+b) false

718) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

-a) 10
-b) 15
+c) 30
-d) 40

719) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

-a) 10
-b) 20
+c) 40
-d) 1
-e) 2

720) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

-a) false
+b) true

721) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

-a) false
+b) true

722) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

+a) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
-c) an unknown Babylonian
-d) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)

723) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

-a) a wobble in the Moon's orbit
-b) precession of the Moon's orbit
+c) leap years
-d) precession of the equinoxes

724) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

-a) day of the month
+b) season of the year
-c) time of day

725) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

-a) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
+b) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day
-c) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
-d) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)

726) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

-a) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
-b) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
+c) phase of moon and earth-moon distance

727) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

-a) 5
-b) 30
+c) 15
-d) 8

728) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

-a) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly
+b) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
-c) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied

729) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

-a) up
-b) zero
+c) down

730) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

-a) zero
+b) up
-c) down

731) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

+a) down
-b) up
-c) zero

732) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

-a) up
+b) zero
-c) down

733) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

-a) south
-b) southwest
-c) north
-d) northeast
+e) northwest

734) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

-a) north
-b) south
-c) northwest
+d) northeast
-e) southwest

735) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

-a) northwest
-b) northeast
-c) southeast
+d) north
-e) northeast

736) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

-a) south
-b) northwest
+c) north
-d) northeast
-e) southwest

737) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

-a) southeast
+b) southwest
-c) south
-d) west
-e) northwest

738) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

-a) north
+b) southeast
-c) northeast
-d) northwest
-e) south

739) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

-a) to the west
-b) zero
+c) to the east

740) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

-a) zero
+b) to the west
-c) to the east

741) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

-a) to the west
+b) to the east
-c) zero

742) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

-a) up
-b) zero
+c) down

743) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

-a) zero
-b) east
-c) north
-d) south
+e) west

744) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is

-a) south
+b) east
-c) zero
-d) west
-e) north

745) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

-a) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
-b) zero
-c) away from Earth
+d) towards Earth
-e) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity

746) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is

-a) up
-b) zero
+c) down

747) These two pulses will collide and produce

-a) negative diffraction
+b) positive interference
-c) positive diffraction
-d) negative interference

748) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes

-a) lower
-b) unchanged
+c) higher

749) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

-a) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.
+b) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
-c) Rough walls make for a louder sound.

750) People don't usually perceive an echo when

-a) it arrives at a lower pitch
-b) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
-c) it arrives at a higher pitch
-d) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
+e) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound

751) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,

-a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
+b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
-c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
-d) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

752) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

+a) the wavelength gets longer
-b) the wavelength stays the same
-c) the wavelength gets shorter

753) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

+a) has lower amplitude than the incident wave
-b) both of these are true
-c) has higher frequency than the incident wave

754) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

-a) neither reverberation nor echo
-b) both reverberation and echo

755) These two pulses will collide and produce

-a) positive diffraction
-b) positive interference
+c) negative interference
-d) negative diffraction

756) These two pulses will collide and produce

-a) negative interference
+b) positive interference
-c) positive diffraction
-d) negative diffraction

757) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

+a) octave
-b) fifth
-c) dissonance

758) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

-a) fifth
+b) dissonance
-c) octave

759) Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

-a) octave
+b) fifth
-c) dissonance

760) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

-a) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard
+b) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
-c) Echo usually stifles the beats
-d) Reverberation usually stifles the beats

761) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

+a) 20
-b) 50
-c) 60
-d) 40
-e) 30

762) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes

+a) higher
-b) lower
-c) unchanged

763) Integrate the line integral of, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=6.9xy{\hat {x}}+5.5y^{3}{\hat {y}}}$, along the y axis from y = 7 to y = 18

+ a) 1.41E+05
- b) 1.51E+05
- c) 1.61E+05
- d) 1.73E+05
- e) 1.85E+05

764) Integrate the function, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=r^{3}\theta ^{7}{\hat {r}}+r^{7}\theta ^{4}{\hat {\theta }}}$ , along the first quadrant of a circle of radius 4

- a) 1.02E+05
- b) 1.09E+05
- c) 1.17E+05
+ d) 1.25E+05
- e) 1.34E+05

765) Integrate the line integral of ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=1.6xy{\hat {x}}+8.7x{\hat {y}}}$ from the origin to the point at x = 2.7 and y = 3.2

- a) 4.37E+01
- b) 4.68E+01
+ c) 5.00E+01
- d) 5.35E+01
- e) 5.73E+01

766) Integrate the function, ${\displaystyle {\vec {F}}=-x^{3}y^{2}{\hat {x}}+x^{5}y^{3}{\hat {y}}}$, as a line integral around a unit square with corners at (0,0),(1,0),(1,1),(0,1). Orient the path so its direction is out of the paper by the right hand rule

+ a) 5.00E-01
- b) 5.35E-01
- c) 5.72E-01
- d) 6.13E-01
- e) 6.55E-01

767) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6), what is the velocity?

-a) v(t) = 7cos(3t-π/6)
+b) v(t) = 21cos(3t-π/6)
-c) v(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
-d) v(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)
-e) v(t) = 21sin(3t-π/6)

768) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6), what is the acceleration?

+a) a(t) = -63sin(3t-π/6)
-b) a(t) = +63sin(3t-π/6)
-c) a(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
-d) a(t) = +21sin(3t-π/6)
-e) a(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)

769) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5cos(4t-π/6), what is the velocity?

+a) v(t) = -20sin(4t-π/6)
-b) v(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6)
-c) v(t) = -20cos(4t-π/6)
-d) v(t) = 20cos(4t-π/6)
-e) v(t) = 20sin(4t-π/6)

770) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6), what is the velocity?

-a) v(t) = 20sin(4t-π/6)
+b) v(t) = 20cos(4t-π/6)
-c) v(t) = -20sin(4t-π/6)
-d) v(t) = -20cos(4t-π/6)
-e) v(t) = 5cos(4t-π/6)

771) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 7cos(3t-π/6), what is the velocity?

-a) v(t) = -21cos(3t-π/6)
+b) v(t) = -21sin(3t-π/6)
-c) v(t) = 21cos(3t-π/6)
-d) v(t) = 7sin(3t-π/6)
-e) v(t) = 21sin(3t-π/6)

772) If a particle's position is given by x(t) = 5sin(4t-π/6), what is the acceleration?

-a) a(t) = +80sin(4t-π/6)
-b) a(t) = +20sin(4t-π/6)
-c) a(t) = -100cos(4t-π/6)
+d) a(t) = -80sin(4t-π/6)
-e) a(t) = -100sin(4t-π/6)

773) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = -3 to y = 2. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (3, 7)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$) ${\displaystyle is:{\frac {1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}}\int _{\mathcal {A}}^{\mathcal {B}}{\frac {{\mathcal {C}}\;\lambda ds}{\left[{\mathcal {D}}^{2}+{\mathcal {E}}^{2}\right]^{\mathcal {F}}\;}}}$, where ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}=}$

-a) 3
-b) −7
-c) −3
-d) −3
+e) 2

774) A line of charge density λ situated on the y axis extends from y = 4 to y = 6. What is the y component of the electric field at the point (5, 1)?
${\displaystyle Answer}$ (assuming ${\displaystyle {\mathcal {B}}>{\mathcal {A}}}$