# Quizbank/HTW/All

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HTWall/ALL ID153480976567

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Exams:

Answers:

8 Tests = 2 versions x 4 variations: Each of the 4 variations (A, B, ...) represents a different random selection of questions taken from the study guide.The 2 versions (0,1,..) all have the same questions but in different order and with different numerical inputs. Unless all students take version "0" it is best to reserve it for the instructor because the questions are grouped according to the order in which they appear on the study guide.

Contact me at User talk:Guy vandegrift if you need any help.

### ALL A0

1) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that any student could write on any text editor if they learn the magic words introduced in this quiz.

a) True
b) False

2) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that students cannot write without special software and/or a detailed knowledge of wikitext.[1]

a) True
b) False

3) QB/a25GeometricOptics_thinLenses is an example of a numerical quiz that uses random numbers to generate a large number of equivalent renditions. It cannot be written by students until a convenient Python code is developed.

a) True
b) False

4) The magic symbols used in for the raw script are, :t, :!, :?, :-, :+ :$, :z, and begin each line of the quiz in "raw-script" form. a) True b) False 5) A good place to see a sample raw script for conceptual quizzes is a) mw:Extension:Quiz b) Wikipedia:Main_Page c) Miraheze d) Quizbank e) Talk:QB/d zTemplateConceptual 6) The magic symbol ___ serves to identify the title of the conceptual quiz a) :+ b) :! c) :$
d) :?
e) :t

7) The magic symbol ___ permits each question to be attributed independently.

a) :t
b) :+
c) :$ d) :? e) :! 8) The preferred attribution is CC0, with the author's ___ optional. a) none of these b) employer c) username d) full name e) email address 9) CCO is how Creative commons labels _____ (see w:special:permalink/841826293#Seven_regularly_used_licenses for answer) a) Public domain b) Share alike c) Non-commercial use only d) Attribution to the author e) all of these 10) The magic symbol ___ denotes the question a) :t b) :! c) :$
d) :?
e) :+

11) The magic symbol ___ denotes the correct answer

a) :+
b) :?
c) :!
d) :t
e) :$ 12) The magic symbol ___ is optional and can be used for a hint for students, or advice for instructors. a) :t b) :+ c) :? d) :! e) :$

13) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

a) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied
b) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
c) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly

14) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

15) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

16) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

17) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) up
c) zero

18) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northwest
b) south
c) southwest
d) northeast
e) north

19) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) south
b) northwest
c) southwest
d) northeast
e) north

20) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) northeast
b) north
c) southeast
d) northeast
e) northwest

21) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) northeast
b) southwest
c) northwest
d) north
e) south

22) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northwest
b) southeast
c) southwest
d) west
e) south

23) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) southeast
b) northwest
c) northeast
d) north
e) south

24) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the west
c) to the east

25) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the east
c) to the west

26) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) to the west
b) zero
c) to the east

27) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

28) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) south
b) east
c) zero
d) north
e) west

29) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is

a) south
b) west
c) zero
d) north
e) east

30) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) towards Earth
b) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
c) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
d) away from Earth
e) zero

31) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is

a) zero
b) down
c) up

32) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 6.0 meters
d) 3.0 meters
e) 7.0 meters

33) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 8.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 11.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters

34) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 12.0 meters
b) 9.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 10.0 meters
e) 11.0 meters

35) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 9.0 meters
b) 6.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 8.0 meters
e) 7.0 meters

36) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 8.0 meters
b) 11.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 10.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

37) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 23.0 meters
b) 20.0 meters
c) 21.0 meters
d) 22.0 meters
e) 19.0 meters

38) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 3.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

39) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 12.0 meters
b) 11.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 10.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

40) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 18.0 meters
b) 19.0 meters
c) 20.0 meters
d) 16.0 meters
e) 17.0 meters

41) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 1.0 meters
b) 3.0 meters
c) 2.0 meters
d) 4.0 meters
e) 5.0 meters

42) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 27.0 meters
b) 26.0 meters
c) 25.0 meters
d) 24.0 meters
e) 23.0 meters

43) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 17.0 meters
b) 15.0 meters
c) 16.0 meters
d) 13.0 meters
e) 14.0 meters

44) People don't usually perceive an echo when

a) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound
b) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
c) it arrives at a higher pitch
d) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
e) it arrives at a lower pitch

45) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

a) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
c) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.

46) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

a) neither reverberation nor echo
b) both reverberation and echo
c) echo instead of reverberation
d) reverberation instead of echo

47) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope towards the low density rope,

a) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed

48) A low density rope is connected to a rope with higher density (i.e. more kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along the low density rope towards the high density rope,

a) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
b) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
c) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
d) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

49) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength gets shorter
b) the wavelength stays the same
c) the wavelength gets longer

50) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) has higher frequency than the incident wave
b) both of these are true
c) has lower amplitude than the incident wave

51) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative diffraction
b) positive interference
c) positive diffraction
d) negative interference

52) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) positive diffraction
b) negative diffraction
c) negative interference
d) positive interference

53) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) fifth
b) dissonance
c) octave

54) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) octave
b) dissonance
c) fifth

55) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) octave
b) fifth
c) dissonance

56) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

a) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
b) Echo usually stifles the beats
c) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
d) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard

57) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 30
e) 50

58) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch

a) becomes lower
b) becomes higher
c) remains unchanged

59) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch

a) becomes lower
b) becomes higher
c) remains unchanged

60) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once a 5 months
b) once every 50 years
c) once every 5 years

61) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines
b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines
c) there would be no shift in the spectral lines

62) An example of a standard candle is

a) all of these are standard candles
b) a supernova in a distant galaxy
c) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light
d) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

63) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 350km/s
b) 700km/s
c) 1400km/s

64) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion
b) How bright it is as viewed from Earth
c) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away

65) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

a) they have a wide variety of speeds
b) they all have nearly the same speed
c) they are not receding away from us
d) the cluster is close to us

66) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light
b) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
c) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.
d) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

67) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
b) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
c) No, the clouds would get hot
d) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis
68)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
c) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
69)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
c) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
d) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

70) In optics, normal means

a) to the left of the optical axis
b) parallel to the surface
c) to the right of the optical axis
d) perpendicular to the surface

71) The law of reflection applies to

a) curved surfaces
b) flat surfaces
c) only light in a vacuum
d) both flat and curved surfaces
e) telescopes but not microscopes

72) When light passes from air to glass

a) it does not bend
b) the frequency increases
c) it bends towards the normal
d) the frequency decreases
e) it bends away from the normal

73) When light passes from glass to air

a) the frequency increases
b) it bends away from the normal
c) it bends towards the normal
d) it does not bend
e) the frequency decreases

74) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) the invariance of the speed of light
b) total internal reflection
c) the Doppler shift
d) total external refraction
e) partial internal absorption

75) The focal point is where

a) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
b) rays meet if they are parallel to each other
c) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
d) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
e) the center of the lens

76) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

a) They have the same focal lengh.
b)
c)

77) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
b) One focal length in front of the eye
c) very far away
d) at infinity
e) Two (of the other answers) are true

78) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) true
b) false

79) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)

80) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 4♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) be disqualified for cheating
b) win 3 points
c) lose 3 points
d) win 1 point
e) lose 1 point

81) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) win 1 point
b) lose 1 point
c) win 3 points
d) lose 3 points
e) be disqualified for cheating

82) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following wins?

a) K♠ and K♣
b) none of these are true
c) K and K♠
d) two of these are true
e) K and K♣

83) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following loses?

a) K♠ and K♣
b) K and K♠
c) none of these are true
d) two of these are true
e) K and K♣

84) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 2
e) 3

85) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
e) 3

86) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
e) 3

87) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 5
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
e) 2

88) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is never skewed

a) True
b) False

89) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is usually skewed

a) True
b) False

90) By definition, a skewed distribution

a) is asymmetric about it's peak value
b) is a "normal" distribution
c) is broader than an unskewed distribution
d) includes negative values of the observed variable
e) contains no outliers

91) The binomial distribution results from observing n outcomes, each having a probability p of "success"

a) True
b) False

92) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as "two"?

a) 3/6
b) 5/6
c) 1/6
d) 4/6
e) 2/6

93) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as anything but "two"?

a) 4/6
b) 3/6
c) 1/6
d) 5/6
e) 2/6

94) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as either a "two" or a "three"?

a) 4/6
b) 5/6
c) 1/6
d) 2/6
e) 3/6

95) How would you describe the "skew" of a binary distribution?

a) The binary distribution is never skewed if it is a true binary distribution.
b) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a small number of trials n.
c) None of these are true.
d) Distributions are never skewed. Only experimental measurements of them are skewed.
e) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a large number of trials n.

96) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 3
b) 18
c) 1
d) 9
e) 6

97) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 6
b) 9
c) 18
d) 3
e) 2

98) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 4.4
b) 2.2
c) 1.1
d) 3.3
e) 9.9

99) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 2.2
b) 3.3
c) 1.1
d) 9.9

100) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 40 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 22
b) 12
c) 8
d) 16
e) 6

101) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 90 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 22
b) 16
c) 12
d) 6
e) 8

102) A local college averages 2500 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 500
b) 150
c) 50
d) 200
e) 250

103) A local college averages 1600 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 32
b) 16
c) 10
d) 160
e) 40

104) The light is linearly polarized, the electric field is oriented ________to the direction of motion

a) perpendicular
b) all of these are possible
c) at 45 degrees
d) parallel

105) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) linearly
b) linear or elliptical
c) circular
d) circular or elliptical
e) circular or linear

106) A mathematically pure (strictly monochromatic) __________ wave (oscillation) that is unpolarized cannot be created

a) both can be created
b) electromagnetic or pendulum
c) pendulum
d) electromagnetic

107) To create an unpolarized pendulum oscillation

a) create an elliptically polarized wave with an 0.2<ε<0.8
b) start with a linear, circular, or elliptical wave and slowly evolve to different polarizations
c) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε>0.2
d) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε<0.8

108) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle 1}$

109) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle 1}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle 1}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$

110) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the shorter side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$

111) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the longer side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$

112) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 30° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$

113) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 60° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$

114) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power passes the filter?

a) 9mW
b) 8mW
c) 4mW
d) 6mW
e) 3mW

115) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 6mW
b) 3mW
c) 4mW
d) 8mW
e) 9mW

116) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 9mW
b) 4mW
c) 8mW
d) 3mW
e) 6mW

117) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 9mW
c) 4mW
d) 6mW
e) 3mW

118) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 45° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 6mW
b) 3mW
c) 4mW
d) 9mW
e) 8mW
119)
A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters, each oriented 45° to the previous, as shown. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?
a) 1/16
b) 1/8
c) 3/32
d) 3/16
e) 1/32

120) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction parallel to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) linearly
b) circular or linear
c) circular
d) circular or elliptical
e) linear or elliptical

121) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters. The second is oriented 30° from the first, and the third is rotated by an additional 60°, making it at right angles from the first filter. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?

a) 3/32
b) 1/16
c) 1/32
d) 1/8
e) 3/16
122)
Why is the referee smoking a pipe?
a) The CC-BY-SA license denies the right to modify File:Silhouette Mr Pipo.svg.
b) The paper's author either likes the pipe or was too busy to remove it.
c) The paper's author wishes to promote pipe smoking among college students.
d) It is nearly impossible for Inkscape to modify an svg file.

123) When is the referee allowed to observe Alice and Bob?

a) While their backs are turned, but not while they are discussing strategy (phase 1)
b) While they are discussing strategy (phase 1), but not while their backs are turned to each other.
c) never
d) The referee should carefully observe Alice and Bob all the time

124) is it cheating for one of the partners to change mind in after communication ceases?

a) It is cheating and the game should be terminated if the partners are caught doing this
b) It is not cheating, and allowing to partners to do this is in the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
c) It is not cheating, but allowing to partners to do so violates the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
d) It is cheating, but fortunately the penalty allows partners to do it

125) The β-strategy is a new strategy introduced in the couples version of the card game that calls for

a) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
b) None of these describes the β-strategy
c) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
d) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
e) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"

126) The α-strategy in the couples version of the card game is similar to the strategy introduced in the solitaire version, and calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
b) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
c) None of these describes the α-strategy
d) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
e) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"

127) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the different suit (different questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) None of these is correct
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$

128) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the same suit (same questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) None of these is correct
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$

129) Suppose the partners choose the β strategy (which was not available in the solitaire version). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) None of these is correct
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$

130) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) None of these is correct
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$

131) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. Why would such a strategy ever be adopted? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Both partners agree that there is a 90% chance that the two question cards will have the same suit.
b) The partners might have cheated so much in the past that they need to lose a round.
c) One partner might announce that all answers will be "even", while the other is certain that the both question cards will have the same suit.
d) There is no reason for the partners to ever adopt this strategy
e) Two of these reasons for this strategy might be valid

132) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4 to A?

a) lose Q points
b) lose 3 points
c) win 1 point
d) no points awarded or lost

133) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5 to A?

a) lose 3 points
b) no points awarded or lost
c) lose Q points
d) win 1 point

134) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) lose 3 points
c) lose Q points
d) no points awarded or lost

135) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) lose 3 points
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose Q points

136) Suppose referee adopts neutral scoring with Q=4 and asks the same question with a probability PS=0.25. This reduces the average loss rate for their partners for the following reason: Consider a probability space with

a) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning once but losing twice. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
b) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning twice. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
c) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
d) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning twice but losing once. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
e) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.

137) Although it decreases the rate at which the partners lose point, increasing the probability of asking the same question is more effective at persuading students to act as particles by relying on the α-strategy because relying on a larger penalty for giving different answers to the same question will tempt students to use the β-strategy only briefly (hoping never to be caught) and then requesting a break to "re-establish" quantum entanglement.

a) True
b) False

138) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 1?

a) ${\displaystyle 3}$
b) ${\displaystyle 0}$
c) ${\displaystyle 4}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
e) ${\displaystyle \infty }$

139) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 0?

a) ${\displaystyle 4}$
b) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
c) ${\displaystyle 0}$
d) ${\displaystyle 3}$
e) ${\displaystyle \infty }$

140) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.25?

a) ${\displaystyle 4}$
b) ${\displaystyle 3}$
c) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
d) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
e) ${\displaystyle 0}$

141) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.5?

a) ${\displaystyle 0}$
b) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
c) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
d) ${\displaystyle 3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 4}$

142) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon is cut in half, the photon's energy E

a) stays the same
b) becomes 4 times as big
c) is reduced by a factor of 4
d) is cut in half
e) becomes twice as big

143) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon doubles, the photon's frequency f

a) stays the same
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) is cut in half
d) becomes twice as big
e) becomes 4 times as big

144) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's wavelength λ

a) is reduced by a factor of 4
b) is cut in half
c) becomes twice as big
d) stays the same
e) becomes 4 times as big

145) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's energy E

a) becomes twice as big
b) becomes 4 times as big
c) is reduced by a factor of 4
d) stays the same
e) is cut in half

146) If an atom emits two photons in a cascade emission and both photons have 2 eV of energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 4 eV
b) decreases by 2 eV
c) decreases by 4 eV
d) stays the same
e) increases by 2 eV

147) If an atom absorbs a photon with 2 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) decreases by 2 eV
b) decreases by 4 eV
c) stays the same
d) increases by 2 eV
e) increases by 4 eV

148) If a 3 eV photon strikes a metal plate and causes an electron to escape, that electron will have a kinetic energy that is

a) greater than 3 eV
b) equal to 3 eV
c) less than 3 eV
d) zero
e) equal to 6 eV

149) In the Phet lab for photoelectric effect, how was the electron's kinetic energy measured?

a) stopping the electron with an applied voltage
b) measuring both spin and polarization
c) measuring spin
d) deflecting the electron with a magnetic field
e) measuring polarization

150) If an atom absorbs a photon with 4 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 4 eV
b) increases by 2 eV
c) decreases by 2 eV
d) stays the same
e) decreases by 4 eV

151) If 1018 photons pass through a small hole in your roof every second, how many photons would pass through it if you doubled the diameter?

a) 2x1018
b) 4x1018
c) 6x1018
d) 1018
e) 8x1018

152) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy density (energy per unit volume)?

a) The larger object has a greater energy density.
b) The hotter object has a greater energy density.
c) They have the same energy density (since the holes are identical).
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

153) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object emits more photons per second (above a given threshold energy)?

a) The object with the greater temperature emits more.
b) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
c) The object with the greater volume.
d) They both emit the same number of photons (since the holes are identical).

154) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy?

a) They have the same energy (since the holes are identical).
b) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
c) The larger object has a greater energy.
d) The hotter object has a greater energy.
155)
This figure is associated with
a) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
b) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
c) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
d) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
e) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
156)
This figure is associated with
a) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
b) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
c) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
157)
This figure is associated with
a) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
b) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
c) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
d) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
e) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
158)
This figure is associated with
a) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf
c) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
d) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)

159) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 35°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1/2
b) 0
c) 3/4
d) 1/4
e) 1

160) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 55°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1
b) 0
c) 1/4
d) 3/4
e) 1/2

161) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 70°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1/4
b) 1
c) 1/2
d) 0
e) 3/4

162) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 40°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1
b) 3/4
c) 1/2
d) 0
e) 1/4

163) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 50°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1
d) 0
e) 3/4

164) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 65°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 0
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) 1

165) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 3/4
b) 1/4
c) 0
d) 1/2
e) 1

166) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1
b) 0
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) 1/4
167)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 5/6
b) 2/4=1/2
c) 3/5
d) 3/4
e) 2/5
168)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 2/4=1/2
b) 5/6
c) 2/5
d) 3/4
e) 3/5
169)
Calculate the probability
P(♠,)+P(♠,)+P(,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 6/5
b) 7/5
c) 4/5
d) 5/4
e) 5/6
170)
Calculate the quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +2/5
b) −1/5
c) +1/5
d) +1
e) 0
f) −2/5
171)
Calculate the measured quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +2/5
b) +1
c) 0
d) +1/5
e) −1/5
f) −2/5
172)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(even), or the probability that the number is even?
a) 5/4
b) 1/2
c) 0
d) 1
e) 3/4
f) 1/4
173)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime), or the probability that the number is prime?
a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 5/4
d) 1
e) 3/4
f) 1/4
174)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime)+P(even), or the sum of the probability that it is even, plus the probability that it is prime?
a) 3/4
b) 1/4
c) 1
d) 5/4
e) 0
f) 1/2
175)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is both even and prime?
a) 5/4
b) 1
c) 1/4
d) 3/4
e) 1/2
f) 0
176)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is either even or prime?
a) 1/2
b) 3/4
c) 5/4
d) 1/4
e) 1
f) 0

177) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to

a) counting rods
b) a person
c) an abacus
d) Roman numerals

178) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem

a) true
b) false

179) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved.

a) true
b) false

180) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

a) analog
b) conceptual
c) digital
d) electromechanical
e) prototype

181) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* Add 3
* If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

182) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* Add 3
* If the number is divisible by 10, add 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

183) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to

a) control a telephone exchange
b) calculate the value of π
c) control a textile mill
d) count votes in an election

184) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.

a) mechanical
b) electromechanical
c) electric digital programmable
d) Turing-complete

185) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was

a) Turing-complete
b) electromechanical
c) mechanical
d) electric digital programmable

186) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

a) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
b) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
c) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
d) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes

187) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

a) true
b) false

188) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

a) true
b) false

189) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

190) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

191) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

192) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

193) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)

a) true
b) false

194) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

a) true
b) false

195) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

a) true
b) false

196) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

197) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

198) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons.

a) true
b) false

199) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

200) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.

a) true
b) false

201) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years

a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3

202) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

203) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

a) true
b) false

204) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.

a) true
b) false

205) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______

a) six months;   18 years
b) 34 days;   six months
c) one month;   18 years
d) 7 days;   one month
e) six months;   54 years

206) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?

a) 1500 years
b) 3000 years
c) 15,000 years
d) 300 years
e) 30 years
207)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
a) epicycle gear
b) crown gear
c) spiral bevel gear

208) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

a) true
b) false

209) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?

a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
b) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.
c) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.

210) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

a) 300-350 BC
b) 300-350 AD
c) 500-550 BC
d) 100-150 BC

211) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.

a) true
b) false

212) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________.

a) sponge divers;   1900
b) Jacques-Yves Cousteau;   1976

213) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?

a) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
b) Chemical analysis of the bronze.
c) The quality of its manufacture.
d) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.

214) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

a) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
b) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
c) copper;   to make it hard.
d) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.

215) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device

a) suggested that Roman technology was used.
b) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.
c) suggested that Greek technology was used.
d) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.

216) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?

a) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
b) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
c) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
d) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.

217) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

218) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

a) 30
b) 15
c) 10
d) 40

219) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

a) 2
b) 10
c) 40
d) 1
e) 20

220) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

a) true
b) false

221) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) true
b) false

222) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

a) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
b) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)
c) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD)
d) an unknown Babylonian

223) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

a) precession of the Moon's orbit
b) leap years
c) precession of the equinoxes
d) a wobble in the Moon's orbit

224) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

a) day of the month
b) season of the year
c) time of day

225) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

a) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
b) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
c) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
d) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day

226) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
b) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
c) phase of moon and earth-moon distance

227) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

a) 8
b) 15
c) 30
d) 5
228) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) A: 000010
b) B: 000100
c) A: 000100
d) B: 000010
229) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
a) A: 001100
b) B: 000110
c) A: 000110
d) B: 000110
230) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) B: 001100
b) B: 000110
c) A: 001110
d) A: 000110
231) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) A: 001110
b) B: 000111
c) A: 001110
d) B: 001110
232) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) A: 011110
c) B: 011110
d) H: 011110
233) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
a) A: 011110
b) H: 011110
c) H: 011110
d) B: 011110

234) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

a) the American revolution (1776)
b) World War I (1914)
c) the American civil war (1861)

235) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them

a) two of these are true
b) was transported to Germany
c) is still in use today
d) was sabotaged by workers
e) burned down

236) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

a) pick cotton
b) weave cotton
c) remove seeds
d) spin cotton
e) clean cotton

237) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______

a) Coalopolis, coal mines
b) Weavopolis, Weaving factories
c) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
d) Cottonopolis, textile factories

238) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required

a) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).
b) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.
c) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.

239) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______

a) faster, puddling
b) faster, hammering
c) cheaper, puddling
d) cheaper, hammering

240) Puddling involved

a) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
b) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring
c) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
d) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron

241) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by

a) water and wind.
b) water and steam.
c) steam and wind.

242) The Miner's Friend

a) pumped water
b) was electrical lighting
c) provided ventilation
d) transported miners

243) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to

a) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
b) plane rails for railroads
c) shape plates for ship hulls
d) drill coal mines

244) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by

a) replacing glass containers with iron containers
b) replacing lead containers with glass containers
c) replacing glass containers with lead containers
d) replacing iron containers with glass containers

245) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years

a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400
e) 500

246) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

a) producing dyes and making cement
b) producing dyes and bleaching cloth
c) making cement and bleaching cloth
d) removing rust and bleaching cloth
e) removing rust and making cement

247) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in

a) Sweden
b) Germany
c) Great Britain
d) Italy
e) United States

248) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was

a) textiles
b) railroads
c) ship building
d) farm equipment
e) military spending

249) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?

a) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
b) sustained growth, for the first time in history
c) the question is a subject of controversy
d) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.

250) The industrial revolution began in

a) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
b) Germany
c) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
d) Great Britain
e) United States

251) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?

a) assembly lines
b) textiles
c) iron making
d) steam power

252) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect

a) domestic cotton production
b) small manufacturers
c) large manufacturers
d) the woollen industry

253) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

a) spinning, weaving, fewer
b) spinning, weaving, more
c) weaving, spinning, more
d) weaving, spinning, fewer

254) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.

a) weaving, spinning, fewer
b) weaving, spinning, more
c) spinning, weaving, more
d) spinning, weaving, fewer

255) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?

a) 63%
b) 33%
c) 13%
d) 3%

256) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

a) neutrons permit induced radiation
b) neutrons are stable
c) neutrons are slow

257) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

a) protons move at the speed of light
b) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
c) protons are positively charged
d) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus

258) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

a) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)
b) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons
c) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"
d) "moonshine";   fast neutrons

259) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________

a) fission;   hesparium
b) hesperium;   fusion
c) fusion;   hesparium
d) hesperium;   fission

260) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

a) nuclear power generation
b) they were developed simultaneously
c) nuclear weapons

261) The Manhattan project made

a) plutonium and enriched hesparium
b) uranium and enriched plutonium
c) plutonium and enriched uranium

262) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...

a) widespread radiation poisoning
b) nuclear war
c) a world government to prevent nuclear war
d) that fossil fuels would go unused

263) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was

a) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
b) a protest movement centered in US universities
c) a congressional committee
d) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production

264) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

a) Great Britain
b) Oak Ridge
c) Russia
d) Virginia

265) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was

a) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
b) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
c) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy

266) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?

a) likely
b) expected
c) unlikely
d) impossible

267) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years

a) true
b) false

268) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines

a) true
b) false

269) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia

a) true
b) false

270) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and

a) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
b) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)
c) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
d) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)

271) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

a) more
b) less
c) comparable

272) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)

a) about the same
b) greater
c) less

273) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

a) 50
b) 90
c) 10

274) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is

a) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.
b) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.
c) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.
d) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.

275) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______

a) early 19th century
b) late 19th century
c) early 20th century

276) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons

a) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price
b) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
c) are not radioactive

277) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

a) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
b) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
c) what called neutrons
d) what he called alpha particles

278) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure

a) only in the reactor core
b) to slow down the neutrons
c) to reduce the heat required to boil it
d) to prevent it from boiling

279) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

a) 10 times less than
b) 10 times more than
c) about the same as
d) 100 times more than
e) 100 times less than

280) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

a) true
b) false

281) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

a) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
b) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
c) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership

282) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium

a) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns
b) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states
c) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
d) is not allowed due to waste management concerns

283) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

284) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

285) Nuclear power plants typically have

a) low capital costs and low fuel costs
b) high capital costs and high fuel costs
c) low capital costs and high fuel costs
d) high capital costs and low fuel costs

286) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?

a) from 0 to 1000
b) zero
c) from 4000 to 25,000

287) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.

a) true
b) false

288) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

a) true
b) false

289) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned

a) 6 months;   30%
b) 6 years;   3%
c) 6 years;   30%
d) 6 months;   3%

290) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries

a) true
b) false

291) The Megatons to Megawatts Program

a) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure
b) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
c) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
d) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure

292) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

a) 5 months
b) 5 years
c) 50 years

293) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.

a) 4 times less common
b) 4 times more common
c) 40 times less common
d) 40 times more common

294) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are

a) are already in use
b) considered impossible
c) are likely to emerge in the next few decades

295) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

a) 3%
b) 99%
c) 1 %
d) 60%
e) 30%

296) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

a) true
b) false

297) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

a) they cannot be stored underground
b) the isotopes are short-lived
c) the isotopes are long-lived

298) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

a) 100 times less than
b) about the same as
c) 10 times less than
d) 10 times more than
e) 100 times more than

299) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years

a) 3
b) 30
c) 300
d) 10
e) 100

300) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent

a) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels
b) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone
c) estimates of the impact on land temperatures
d) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future

301) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

a) climate engineering
b) adaptation to the effects of global warming
c) reduction of green house emissions
d) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming

302) Anthropogenic means something that

a) humans can repair
b) will hurt humans
c) humans cannot repair
d) human caused

303) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________

a) air; in the water vapor
b) sea; in the bottom kilometer
c) sea; in the top kilometer
d) land; near the poles
e) land; near the equators

304) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling

a) true
b) false

305) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

a) in the western hemisphere
b) near the equator
c) near the poles
d) on the ocean surface

306) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by

a) 60% of the academies of science
b) 90% of the academies of science
c) all but the US academy of science
d) all of the academies of science

307) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are

a) cement production and land use changes
b) population growth and waste disposal
c) population growth
d) cement production and waste disposal

308) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

a) 16° Celsius
b) 0.06° Celsius
c) 0.16° Celsius
d) 1.6° Celsius
e) 0.6° Celsius

309) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

a) The United States has warmed more than Australia
b) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
c) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
d) all portions of Antarctica have warmed

310) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in

a) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
b) the world economy
c) the sun's energy output
d) the earth's distance from the sun

311) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.

a) 0.7°C
b) 0.07°C
c) 7.0°C

312) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

a) water tends to expand as it warms
b) ice and snow melts
c) both of these are true

313) What happens when water is heated?

a) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C
b) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
c) it absorbs CO2

314) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

a) true
b) false

315) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

a) true
b) false

316) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun

a) true
b) false

317) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

a) 0.7 °C per century
b) 0.7 °C per year
c) 0.7 °C per decade

318) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was

a) about the same
b) half as much
c) twice as much

319) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

a) about the same
b) twice as much
c) half as much

320) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.

a) 0%
b) 3%
c) 0.3%
d) 30%

321) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth

a) true
b) false

322) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.

a) true
b) false

323) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

a) the Little Ice Age
b) the Medieval Warming Period
c) tree proxy measurements
d) a 10 year average
e) thermometer measurements

324) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)

a) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
b) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period
c) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
d) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements

325) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.

a) true
b) false

326) Emissions scenarios are

a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
b) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases
c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
d) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature

327) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

a) true
b) false

328) The carbon cycle

a) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.
b) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.
c) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.

329) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

a) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
b) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
c) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming

330) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

331) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

332) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.

a) true
b) false

333) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.

a) true
b) false

334) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?

a) 30%
b) 0%
c) 10%
d) 50%

335) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

336) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

a) true
b) false

337) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

338) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

a) true
b) false

339) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.

a) true
b) false

340) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.

a) true
b) false

341) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

a) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)
b) greenhouse gasses
c) orbital cycles
d) volcanic eruptions

342) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

343) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

344) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.

a) true
b) false

345) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.

a) true
b) false

346) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations

a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.

347) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

a) true
b) false

348) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in

a) how much ice is melted during the summer months
b) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight
c) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun

349) The cryosphere refers to

a) the highest mountains
b) the upper atmosphere
c) the north and south poles
d) two of these are true

350) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

a) true
b) false

351) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.

a) true
b) false

352) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?

a) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
b) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
c) all of these are true
d) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.

353) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

354) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

355) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.

a) true
b) false

356) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.

a) true
b) false

357) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.

a) true
b) false

358) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.

a) true
b) false

359) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.

a) true
b) false

360) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.

a) true
b) false

#### ALL A1

1) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device

a) suggested that Greek technology was used.
b) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.
c) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
d) suggested that Roman technology was used.
2)
Calculate the probability
P(♠,)+P(♠,)+P(,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 7/5
b) 5/6
c) 6/5
d) 4/5
e) 5/4

3) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once a 5 months
b) once every 50 years
c) once every 5 years
4)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
a) epicycle gear
b) crown gear
c) spiral bevel gear

5) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.

a) true
b) false
6) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
a) B: 000110
b) B: 000110
c) A: 001100
d) A: 000110

7) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

a) orbital cycles
b) volcanic eruptions
c) greenhouse gasses
d) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)

8) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4

9) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength stays the same
b) the wavelength gets shorter
c) the wavelength gets longer

10) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem

a) true
b) false

11) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

12) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

a) true
b) false

13) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

a) true
b) false

14) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

a) comparable
b) less
c) more
15) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) B: 000110
b) A: 001110
c) A: 000110
d) B: 001100

16) is it cheating for one of the partners to change mind in after communication ceases?

a) It is cheating and the game should be terminated if the partners are caught doing this
b) It is not cheating, but allowing to partners to do so violates the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
c) It is not cheating, and allowing to partners to do this is in the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
d) It is cheating, but fortunately the penalty allows partners to do it

17) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are

a) cement production and land use changes
b) population growth
c) population growth and waste disposal
d) cement production and waste disposal

18) A local college averages 2500 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 50
b) 500
c) 250
d) 150
e) 200

19) If an atom absorbs a photon with 2 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 4 eV
b) decreases by 2 eV
c) decreases by 4 eV
d) stays the same
e) increases by 2 eV

20) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.

a) true
b) false

21) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

a) what called neutrons
b) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
c) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
d) what he called alpha particles
22)
Calculate the measured quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +1
b) −2/5
c) 0
d) −1/5
e) +1/5
f) +2/5

23) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle 1}$

24) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

a) both reverberation and echo
b) echo instead of reverberation
c) neither reverberation nor echo
d) reverberation instead of echo

25) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) to the west
b) to the east
c) zero

26) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?

a) 1500 years
b) 3000 years
c) 30 years
d) 300 years
e) 15,000 years

27) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

a) producing dyes and making cement
b) making cement and bleaching cloth
c) removing rust and bleaching cloth
d) removing rust and making cement
e) producing dyes and bleaching cloth

28) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 40 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 22
b) 16
c) 6
d) 8
e) 12

29) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.5?

a) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
b) ${\displaystyle 4}$
c) ${\displaystyle 0}$
d) ${\displaystyle 3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$

30) The magic symbols used in for the raw script are, :t, :!, :?, :-, :+ :$, :z, and begin each line of the quiz in "raw-script" form. a) True b) False 31) The Megatons to Megawatts Program a) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success b) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure c) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success d) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure 32) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was a) military spending b) railroads c) textiles d) farm equipment e) ship building 33) Anthropogenic means something that a) humans can repair b) will hurt humans c) human caused d) humans cannot repair 34) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years? a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic. b) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic. c) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years. 35) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations. a) true b) false 36) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next? a) A: 011110 b) H: 011110 c) H: 011110 d) B: 011110 37) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust. a) 40 times less common b) 40 times more common c) 4 times less common d) 4 times more common 38) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is a) to the west b) zero c) to the east 39) The carbon cycle a) is a proposal to trade carbon credits. b) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves. c) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc. 40) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction parallel to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer) a) linearly b) linear or elliptical c) circular or linear d) circular or elliptical e) circular 41) If an atom absorbs a photon with 4 eV energy, the atom's energy a) increases by 4 eV b) increases by 2 eV c) decreases by 4 eV d) stays the same e) decreases by 2 eV 42) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution). a) 1 b) 18 c) 9 d) 6 e) 3 43) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model. a) true b) false 44) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to a) control a telephone exchange b) control a textile mill c) count votes in an election d) calculate the value of π 45) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with a) a wobble in the Moon's orbit b) precession of the equinoxes c) precession of the Moon's orbit d) leap years 46) To create an unpolarized pendulum oscillation a) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε<0.8 b) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε>0.2 c) start with a linear, circular, or elliptical wave and slowly evolve to different polarizations d) create an elliptically polarized wave with an 0.2<ε<0.8 47) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 65°. What is the probability that it is blocked? a) 0 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 3/4 e) 1/4 48) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle. a) true b) false 49) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 55°. What is the probability that it passes? a) 3/4 b) 1/4 c) 1 d) 0 e) 1/2 50) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in a) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun b) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight c) how much ice is melted during the summer months 51) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points a) southwest b) north c) northeast d) northwest e) south 52) The two solid signals add to a (dashed) a) octave b) dissonance c) fifth 53) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was a) mechanical b) Turing-complete c) electromechanical d) electric digital programmable 54) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor. a) true b) false 55) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters. The second is oriented 30° from the first, and the third is rotated by an additional 60°, making it at right angles from the first filter. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last? a) 1/8 b) 3/32 c) 3/16 d) 1/32 e) 1/16 56) Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates a) how a farsighted person might see a distant object b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort d) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort 57) This figure is associated with a) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.) b) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave. c) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905) d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909) e) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron. 58) Nuclear power plants typically have a) low capital costs and high fuel costs b) low capital costs and low fuel costs c) high capital costs and high fuel costs d) high capital costs and low fuel costs 59) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______ a) faster, puddling b) faster, hammering c) cheaper, hammering d) cheaper, puddling 60) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________ a) sea; in the top kilometer b) land; near the poles c) land; near the equators d) sea; in the bottom kilometer e) air; in the water vapor 61) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time? a) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard b) Reverberation usually stifles the beats c) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them. d) Echo usually stifles the beats 62) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines c) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines 63) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average win ___ times. a) 4 b) 2 c) 5 d) 6 e) 3 64) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 23.0 meters b) 26.0 meters c) 27.0 meters d) 24.0 meters e) 25.0 meters 65) If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is either even or prime? a) 1/2 b) 5/4 c) 1/4 d) 3/4 e) 1 f) 0 66) Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object b) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object 67) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______ a) 34 days; six months b) six months; 18 years c) six months; 54 years d) 7 days; one month e) one month; 18 years 68) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is a) zero b) up c) down 69) If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(even), or the probability that the number is even? a) 1/2 b) 5/4 c) 1/4 d) 0 e) 1 f) 3/4 70) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is a) east b) north c) zero d) south e) west 71) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the different suit (different questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$) a) None of these is correct b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ 72) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel? a) 14.0 meters b) 16.0 meters c) 13.0 meters d) 15.0 meters e) 17.0 meters 73) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's wavelength λ a) is cut in half b) becomes 4 times as big c) becomes twice as big d) stays the same e) is reduced by a factor of 4 74) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.25? a) ${\displaystyle 3}$ b) ${\displaystyle 4}$ c) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$ d) ${\displaystyle 0}$ e) ${\displaystyle \infty }$ 75) A good place to see a sample raw script for conceptual quizzes is a) Wikipedia:Main_Page b) Miraheze c) Talk:QB/d zTemplateConceptual d) Quizbank e) mw:Extension:Quiz 76) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by a) replacing glass containers with iron containers b) replacing lead containers with glass containers c) replacing iron containers with glass containers d) replacing glass containers with lead containers 77) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries a) true b) false 78) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines a) true b) false 79) When light passes from glass to air a) it bends away from the normal b) the frequency decreases c) it does not bend d) it bends towards the normal e) the frequency increases 80) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them a) was sabotaged by workers b) was transported to Germany c) burned down d) two of these are true e) is still in use today 81) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required a) less labour to mine and was also more abundant. b) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood. c) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered). 82) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 35°. What is the probability that it passes? a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 1 d) 0 e) 1/4 83) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is a) zero b) up c) down 84) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage a) true b) false 85) If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is both even and prime? a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 5/4 d) 0 e) 1/4 f) 1 86) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas. b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations 87) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the same suit (same questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$) a) None of these is correct b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ 88) The magic symbol ___ is optional and can be used for a hint for students, or advice for instructors. a) :+ b) :! c) :$
d) :t
e) :?

89) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

a) near the poles
b) on the ocean surface
c) near the equator
d) in the western hemisphere
90)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime), or the probability that the number is prime?
a) 3/4
b) 1
c) 5/4
d) 0
e) 1/4
f) 1/2

91) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon doubles, the photon's frequency f

a) becomes 4 times as big
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) is cut in half
d) stays the same
e) becomes twice as big

92) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) true
b) false

93) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

a) 10 times more than
b) 100 times less than
c) 10 times less than
d) 100 times more than
e) about the same as

94) When light passes from air to glass

a) it bends towards the normal
b) the frequency decreases
c) it bends away from the normal
d) the frequency increases
e) it does not bend

95) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1

96) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) circular or linear
b) linear or elliptical
c) circular or elliptical
d) linearly
e) circular
97)
This figure is associated with
a) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
b) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
c) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
d) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
e) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)

98) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

a) 10
b) 1
c) 2
d) 40
e) 20

99) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

a) 300-350 BC
b) 100-150 BC
c) 300-350 AD
d) 500-550 BC

100) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5♠ to A♠?

a) lose 3 points
b) win 1 point
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose Q points

101) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.

a) weaving, spinning, more
b) spinning, weaving, more
c) weaving, spinning, fewer
d) spinning, weaving, fewer

102) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

a) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
b) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
c) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
d) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits

103) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

a) about the same as
b) 100 times less than
c) 100 times more than
d) 10 times more than
e) 10 times less than

104) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as "two"?

a) 4/6
b) 3/6
c) 2/6
d) 1/6
e) 5/6

105) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

a) true
b) false

106) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was

a) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
b) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
c) a protest movement centered in US universities
d) a congressional committee

107) The industrial revolution began in

a) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
b) United States
c) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
d) Germany
e) Great Britain

108) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 19.0 meters
b) 16.0 meters
c) 18.0 meters
d) 20.0 meters
e) 17.0 meters

109) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

a) copper;   to make it hard.
b) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
c) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
d) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.

110) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.

a) true
b) false

111) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) southwest
b) south
c) north
d) northwest
e) northeast
112)
Calculate the quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) −2/5
b) +2/5
c) +1
d) 0
e) +1/5
f) −1/5

113) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

a) the isotopes are short-lived
b) they cannot be stored underground
c) the isotopes are long-lived

114) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

a) true
b) false
115) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) B: 000100
b) A: 000100
c) A: 000010
d) B: 000010

116) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?

a) likely
b) expected
c) impossible
d) unlikely

117) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power passes the filter?

a) 3mW
b) 6mW
c) 8mW
d) 4mW
e) 9mW

118) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

a) true
b) false

119) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch

a) becomes higher
b) becomes lower
c) remains unchanged

120) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.

a) true
b) false

121) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 7.0 meters
b) 10.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 11.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

122) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) win 1 point
b) win 3 points
c) be disqualified for cheating
d) lose 3 points
e) lose 1 point

123) The cryosphere refers to

a) the north and south poles
b) the highest mountains
c) two of these are true
d) the upper atmosphere

124) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4 to A?

a) lose 3 points
b) no points awarded or lost
c) win 1 point
d) lose Q points

125) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

126) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling

a) true
b) false

127) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

a) true
b) false

128) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) at infinity
b) very far away
c) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
d) Two (of the other answers) are true
e) One focal length in front of the eye

129) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the shorter side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$

130) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 6.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 8.0 meters

131) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

a) true
b) false

132) By definition, a skewed distribution

a) is a "normal" distribution
b) is broader than an unskewed distribution
c) is asymmetric about it's peak value
d) contains no outliers
e) includes negative values of the observed variable

133) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis
b) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
c) No, the clouds would get hot
d) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox

134) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 1
e) 3

135) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) zero
b) south
c) north
d) west
e) east

136) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

a) weave cotton
b) clean cotton
c) remove seeds
d) pick cotton
e) spin cotton

137) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
e) 6

138) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative interference
b) negative diffraction
c) positive interference
d) positive diffraction

139) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.

a) true
b) false

140) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was

a) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source
b) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
c) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy

141) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

a) 50 years
b) 5 months
c) 5 years

142) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

a) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership
b) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
c) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors

143) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

144) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is usually skewed

a) True
b) False

145) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 3.0 meters
d) 4.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

146) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 3.0 meters
b) 5.0 meters
c) 2.0 meters
d) 1.0 meters
e) 4.0 meters

147) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

a) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
b) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
c) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming

148) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?

a) textiles
b) assembly lines
c) iron making
d) steam power

149) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

a) a 10 year average
b) thermometer measurements
c) the Little Ice Age
d) tree proxy measurements
e) the Medieval Warming Period

150) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
b) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
c) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
151)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 3/5
b) 3/4
c) 2/5
d) 5/6
e) 2/4=1/2

152) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 6
b) 2
c) 18
d) 3
e) 9

153) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.

a) 0.07°C
b) 7.0°C
c) 0.7°C

154) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative diffraction
b) negative interference
c) positive diffraction
d) positive interference

155) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

a) protons move at the speed of light
b) protons are positively charged
c) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
d) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce

156) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
b) towards Earth
c) zero
d) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
e) away from Earth

157) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) both of these are true
b) has higher frequency than the incident wave
c) has lower amplitude than the incident wave

158) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

a) Virginia
b) Oak Ridge
c) Russia
d) Great Britain

159) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons

a) are not radioactive
b) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
c) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price

160) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.

a) true
b) false

161) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

a) "moonshine";   fast neutrons
b) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"
c) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)
d) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons

162) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

a) about the same
b) twice as much
c) half as much

163) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 45° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 9mW
b) 6mW
c) 3mW
d) 4mW
e) 8mW

164) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) None of these is correct

165) CCO is how Creative commons labels _____ (see w:special:permalink/841826293#Seven_regularly_used_licenses for answer)

a) Share alike
b) Public domain
c) all of these
d) Non-commercial use only
e) Attribution to the author

166) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) total internal reflection
b) total external refraction
c) partial internal absorption
d) the Doppler shift
e) the invariance of the speed of light

167) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) true
b) false

168) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)

169) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object emits more photons per second (above a given threshold energy)?

a) They both emit the same number of photons (since the holes are identical).
b) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
c) The object with the greater temperature emits more.
d) The object with the greater volume.

170) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

171) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 4.4
b) 9.9
c) 2.2
d) 1.1
e) 3.3

172) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

a) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming
b) adaptation to the effects of global warming
c) reduction of green house emissions
d) climate engineering

173) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

a) 1.6° Celsius
b) 16° Celsius
c) 0.6° Celsius
d) 0.06° Celsius
e) 0.16° Celsius

174) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is never skewed

a) True
b) False

175) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

a) true
b) false

176) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

a) water tends to expand as it warms
b) ice and snow melts
c) both of these are true

177) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.

a) true
b) false

178) The magic symbol ___ permits each question to be attributed independently.

a) :!
b) :t
c) :$ d) :+ e) :? 179) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested? a) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions. b) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions. c) all of these are true d) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true. 180) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem) a) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements b) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements c) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period d) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements 181) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are a) are likely to emerge in the next few decades b) considered impossible c) are already in use 182) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in a) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions b) the world economy c) the earth's distance from the sun d) the sun's energy output 183) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned a) 6 months; 3% b) 6 years; 3% c) 6 months; 30% d) 6 years; 30% 184) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by a) water and wind. b) water and steam. c) steam and wind. 185) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 50°. What is the probability that it is blocked? a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 1/4 d) 0 e) 1 186) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later a) 8 b) 30 c) 5 d) 15 187) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. a) true b) false 188) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years a) true b) false 189) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 0? a) ${\displaystyle 4}$ b) ${\displaystyle 3}$ c) ${\displaystyle 0}$ d) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$ e) ${\displaystyle \infty }$ 190) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent a) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future b) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone c) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels d) estimates of the impact on land temperatures 191) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 1? a) ${\displaystyle 4}$ b) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$ c) ${\displaystyle 3}$ d) ${\displaystyle 0}$ e) ${\displaystyle \infty }$ 192) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in a) Italy b) Great Britain c) Sweden d) United States e) Germany 193) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth. a) true b) false 194) In the Phet lab for photoelectric effect, how was the electron's kinetic energy measured? a) measuring both spin and polarization b) deflecting the electron with a magnetic field c) measuring polarization d) stopping the electron with an applied voltage e) measuring spin 195) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)? a) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac. b) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day) c) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day d) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.) 196) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature. a) true b) false 197) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun a) true b) false 198) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012? a) 33% b) 63% c) 3% d) 13% 199) If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime)+P(even), or the sum of the probability that it is even, plus the probability that it is prime? a) 1 b) 3/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/4 e) 0 f) 5/4 200) What happens when water is heated? a) it absorbs CO2 b) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C c) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C 201) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated? a) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship. b) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes. c) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked. d) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated. 202) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 30° to that field? a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$ b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$ c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$ d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$ e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$ 203) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that any student could write on any text editor if they learn the magic words introduced in this quiz. a) True b) False 204) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 70°. What is the probability that it passes? a) 1/2 b) 1/4 c) 0 d) 1 e) 3/4 205) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900) a) true b) false 206) A low density rope is connected to a rope with higher density (i.e. more kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along the low density rope towards the high density rope, a) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency b) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency c) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower speed d) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher speed 207) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it passes? a) 3/4 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/2 e) 1/4 208) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage a) true b) false 209) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______ a) early 20th century b) late 19th century c) early 19th century 210) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth. a) true b) false 211) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life. a) true b) false 212) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________ a) fusion; hesparium b) fission; hesparium c) hesperium; fusion d) hesperium; fission 213) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is a) up b) zero c) down 214) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the longer side? a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$ b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$ c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$ d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$ e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$ 215) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident? a) from 4000 to 25,000 b) from 0 to 1000 c) zero 216) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.) a) greater b) less c) about the same 217) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is a) up b) down c) zero 218) If a 3 eV photon strikes a metal plate and causes an electron to escape, that electron will have a kinetic energy that is a) equal to 3 eV b) equal to 6 eV c) less than 3 eV d) zero e) greater than 3 eV 219) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years a) 200 b) 100 c) 300 d) 500 e) 400 220) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate. a) true b) false 221) The β-strategy is a new strategy introduced in the couples version of the card game that calls for a) Alice and Bob to always answer "even" b) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd" c) None of these describes the β-strategy d) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd") e) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd") 222) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II. a) mechanical b) Turing-complete c) electric digital programmable d) electromechanical 223) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points a) south b) west c) southeast d) southwest e) northwest 224) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by a) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC) b) an unknown Babylonian c) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD) d) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD) 225) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved. a) true b) false 226) How would you describe the "skew" of a binary distribution? a) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a small number of trials n. b) Distributions are never skewed. Only experimental measurements of them are skewed. c) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a large number of trials n. d) None of these are true. e) The binary distribution is never skewed if it is a true binary distribution. 227) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it is blocked? a) 0 b) 3/4 c) 1 d) 1/2 e) 1/4 228) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution. a) 9.9 b) 3.3 c) 1.1 d) 2.2 229) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet. a) true b) false 230) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ... a) that fossil fuels would go unused b) a world government to prevent nuclear war c) widespread radiation poisoning d) nuclear war 231) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to a) plane rails for railroads b) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines. c) drill coal mines d) shape plates for ship hulls 232) Suppose the partners choose the β strategy (which was not available in the solitaire version). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$) a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ b) None of these is correct c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ 233) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter? a) 3mW b) 6mW c) 4mW d) 8mW e) 9mW 234) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's energy E a) stays the same b) becomes twice as big c) is cut in half d) becomes 4 times as big e) is reduced by a factor of 4 235) This figure is associated with a) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron. b) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave. c) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.) d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909) e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905) 236) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium a) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns b) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states c) is not allowed due to waste management concerns d) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel 237) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 7.0 meters b) 11.0 meters c) 10.0 meters d) 9.0 meters e) 8.0 meters 238) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere. a) true b) false 239) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds. a) true b) false 240) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______ a) Cottonopolis, textile factories b) Cokopolis, coke processing plants c) Coalopolis, coal mines d) Weavopolis, Weaving factories 241) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide. a) true b) false 242) The Manhattan project made a) plutonium and enriched hesparium b) uranium and enriched plutonium c) plutonium and enriched uranium 243) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name. a) true b) false 244) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is a) United States, Turkey, France least reliant. b) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant. c) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant. d) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant. 245) People don't usually perceive an echo when a) it arrives at a lower pitch b) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound c) it arrives at a higher pitch d) it arrives at exactly the same pitch e) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive 246) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations. a) true b) false 247) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is a) How bright it is as viewed from Earth b) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion c) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away 248) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature. a) true b) false 249) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as either a "two" or a "three"? a) 5/6 b) 2/6 c) 4/6 d) 3/6 e) 1/6 250) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere a) true b) false 251) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon is cut in half, the photon's energy E a) stays the same b) becomes 4 times as big c) is cut in half d) is reduced by a factor of 4 e) becomes twice as big 252) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points a) northeast b) north c) southeast d) south e) northwest 253) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was a) twice as much b) about the same c) half as much 254) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)? a) they all have nearly the same speed b) they are not receding away from us c) the cluster is close to us d) they have a wide variety of speeds 255) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.) a) day of the month b) time of day c) season of the year 256) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and a) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986) b) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil c) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986) d) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986). 257) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch a) remains unchanged b) becomes higher c) becomes lower 258) QB/a25GeometricOptics_thinLenses is an example of a numerical quiz that uses random numbers to generate a large number of equivalent renditions. It cannot be written by students until a convenient Python code is developed. a) True b) False 259) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by a) all but the US academy of science b) 60% of the academies of science c) all of the academies of science d) 90% of the academies of science 260) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to a) an abacus b) counting rods c) Roman numerals d) a person 261) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next? a) H: 011110 b) A: 011110 c) H: 011110 d) B: 011110 262) Which lens has the shorter focal length? a) b) They have the same focal lengh. c) 263) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0: * Add 3 * If the number is divisible by 10, add 10 * Stop if the number exceeds 100 * Go to top a) true b) false 264) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because a) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly b) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied c) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion 265) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter? a) 9mW b) 3mW c) 6mW d) 8mW e) 4mW 266) A mathematically pure (strictly monochromatic) __________ wave (oscillation) that is unpolarized cannot be created a) electromagnetic or pendulum b) both can be created c) electromagnetic d) pendulum 267) A local college averages 1600 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year? a) 32 b) 160 c) 40 d) 16 e) 10 268) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century. a) 0.3% b) 0% c) 30% d) 3% 269) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later a) 15 b) 40 c) 10 d) 30 270) The light is linearly polarized, the electric field is oriented ________to the direction of motion a) perpendicular b) all of these are possible c) at 45 degrees d) parallel 271) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy density (energy per unit volume)? a) The hotter object has a greater energy density. b) The larger object has a greater energy density. c) They have the same energy density (since the holes are identical). d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume). 272) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom. a) true b) false 273) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. Why would such a strategy ever be adopted? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$) a) There is no reason for the partners to ever adopt this strategy b) One partner might announce that all answers will be "even", while the other is certain that the both question cards will have the same suit. c) The partners might have cheated so much in the past that they need to lose a round. d) Two of these reasons for this strategy might be valid e) Both partners agree that there is a 90% chance that the two question cards will have the same suit. 274) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is a) zero b) down c) up 275) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope towards the low density rope, a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency b) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed c) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed d) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency 276) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer a) true b) false 277) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 40°. What is the probability that it is blocked? a) 1 b) 1/4 c) 3/4 d) 1/2 e) 0 278) If an atom emits two photons in a cascade emission and both photons have 2 eV of energy, the atom's energy a) decreases by 2 eV b) decreases by 4 eV c) increases by 4 eV d) increases by 2 eV e) stays the same 279) The magic symbol ___ serves to identify the title of the conceptual quiz a) :t b) :$
c) :!
d) :+
e) :?

280) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

a) weaving, spinning, more
b) spinning, weaving, fewer
c) weaving, spinning, fewer
d) spinning, weaving, more
281)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 5/6
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 2/4=1/2
e) 3/4

282) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

a) true
b) false

283) The Miner's Friend

a) was electrical lighting
b) pumped water
c) transported miners
d) provided ventilation
284)
This figure is associated with
a) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
b) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
c) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf
d) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)

285) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?

a) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.
b) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
c) The quality of its manufacture.
d) Chemical analysis of the bronze.

286) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy?

a) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
b) The larger object has a greater energy.
c) They have the same energy (since the holes are identical).
d) The hotter object has a greater energy.

287) When is the referee allowed to observe Alice and Bob?

a) never
b) While they are discussing strategy (phase 1), but not while their backs are turned to each other.
c) While their backs are turned, but not while they are discussing strategy (phase 1)
d) The referee should carefully observe Alice and Bob all the time

288) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 30
b) 40
c) 60
d) 20
e) 50

289) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) northeast
b) north
c) northeast
d) northwest
e) southeast

290) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) dissonance
b) octave
c) fifth

291) In optics, normal means

a) to the right of the optical axis
b) to the left of the optical axis
c) parallel to the surface
d) perpendicular to the surface

292) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

a) true
b) false

293) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

a) 0.7 °C per year
b) 0.7 °C per decade
c) 0.7 °C per century

294) The magic symbol ___ denotes the correct answer

a) :t
b) :?
c) :+
d) :!
e) :$ 295) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points a) north b) south c) northwest d) northeast e) southwest 296) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 90 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __ a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 6 e) 22 297) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere a) true b) false 298) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer a) true b) false 299) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect a) small manufacturers b) large manufacturers c) domestic cotton production d) the woollen industry 300) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is a) to the west b) zero c) to the east 301) The focal point is where a) rays meet whenever they are forming an image b) rays meet if they are parallel to each other c) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens d) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens e) the center of the lens 302) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average win ___ times. a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 e) 1 303) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following wins? a) none of these are true b) K and K♠ c) K and K♣ d) K♠ and K♣ e) two of these are true 304) The binomial distribution results from observing n outcomes, each having a probability p of "success" a) True b) False 305) An example of a standard candle is a) all of these are standard candles b) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark c) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light d) a supernova in a distant galaxy 306) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism. a) true b) false 307) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure a) to prevent it from boiling b) to slow down the neutrons c) to reduce the heat required to boil it d) only in the reactor core 308) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia? a) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution. b) the question is a subject of controversy c) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries) d) sustained growth, for the first time in history 309) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 4♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__ a) win 3 points b) lose 3 points c) be disqualified for cheating d) lose 1 point e) win 1 point 310) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years a) 30 b) 3 c) 100 d) 300 e) 10 311) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth a) true b) false 312) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 9.0 meters b) 10.0 meters c) 12.0 meters d) 8.0 meters e) 11.0 meters 313) If 1018 photons pass through a small hole in your roof every second, how many photons would pass through it if you doubled the diameter? a) 1018 b) 4x1018 c) 8x1018 d) 2x1018 e) 6x1018 314) The law of reflection applies to a) only light in a vacuum b) flat surfaces c) telescopes but not microscopes d) both flat and curved surfaces e) curved surfaces 315) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece. a) true b) false 316) The two solid signals add to a (dashed) a) dissonance b) fifth c) octave 317) The magic symbol ___ denotes the question a) :! b) :? c) :+ d) :$
e) :t

318) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

a) analog
b) electromechanical
c) conceptual
d) prototype
e) digital
319)
Why is the referee smoking a pipe?
a) The paper's author either likes the pipe or was too busy to remove it.
b) It is nearly impossible for Inkscape to modify an svg file.
c) The paper's author wishes to promote pipe smoking among college students.
d) The CC-BY-SA license denies the right to modify File:Silhouette Mr Pipo.svg.

320) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

a) true
b) false

321) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons.

a) true
b) false

322) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

a) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
b) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
c) The United States has warmed more than Australia
d) all portions of Antarctica have warmed

323) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following loses?

a) two of these are true
b) none of these are true
c) K and K♣
d) K and K♠
e) K♠ and K♣

324) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 20.0 meters
b) 21.0 meters
c) 19.0 meters
d) 22.0 meters
e) 23.0 meters

325) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________.

a) sponge divers;   1900
b) Jacques-Yves Cousteau;   1976

326) Puddling involved

a) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
b) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring
c) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
d) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
327)
A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters, each oriented 45° to the previous, as shown. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?
a) 3/16
b) 1/8
c) 1/32
d) 1/16
e) 3/32

328) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

a) true
b) false

329) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 350km/s
b) 700km/s
c) 1400km/s

330) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* Add 3
* If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

331) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

a) true
b) false

332) Emissions scenarios are

a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature
b) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases
c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
d) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture

333) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

a) 3%
b) 1 %
c) 60%
d) 30%
e) 99%

334) Although it decreases the rate at which the partners lose point, increasing the probability of asking the same question is more effective at persuading students to act as particles by relying on the α-strategy because relying on a larger penalty for giving different answers to the same question will tempt students to use the β-strategy only briefly (hoping never to be caught) and then requesting a break to "re-establish" quantum entanglement.

a) True
b) False

335) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

a) they were developed simultaneously
b) nuclear weapons
c) nuclear power generation

336) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 4mW
c) 9mW
d) 3mW
e) 6mW

337) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 9.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 11.0 meters
d) 12.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters

338) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as anything but "two"?

a) 5/6
b) 4/6
c) 3/6
d) 1/6
e) 2/6

339) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle 1}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$

340) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 3.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

341) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) lose 3 points
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose Q points

342) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.
b) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light
c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
d) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

343) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

a) the American revolution (1776)
b) the American civil war (1861)
c) World War I (1914)

344) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

a) 10
b) 50
c) 90

345) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5 to A?

a) lose 3 points
b) no points awarded or lost
c) win 1 point
d) lose Q points

346) The preferred attribution is CC0, with the author's ___ optional.

a) username
b) full name
c) none of these
d) employer
e) email address

347) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

a) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
c) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.

348) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) zero
b) down
c) up

349) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false
350) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) A: 001110
b) A: 001110
c) B: 000111
d) B: 001110

351) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

a) true
b) false

352) The α-strategy in the couples version of the card game is similar to the strategy introduced in the solitaire version, and calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
b) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
c) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
d) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
e) None of these describes the α-strategy

353) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

a) neutrons are slow
b) neutrons are stable
c) neutrons permit induced radiation

354) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 60° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$

355) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

a) true
b) false

356) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that students cannot write without special software and/or a detailed knowledge of wikitext.[2]

a) True
b) False

357) Suppose referee adopts neutral scoring with Q=4 and asks the same question with a probability PS=0.25. This reduces the average loss rate for their partners for the following reason: Consider a probability space with

a) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
b) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning twice but losing once. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
c) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning once but losing twice. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
d) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning twice. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
e) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.

358) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

a) true
b) false

359) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia

a) true
b) false

360) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?

a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 0%
d) 30%

### ALL B0

1) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that any student could write on any text editor if they learn the magic words introduced in this quiz.

a) True
b) False

2) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that students cannot write without special software and/or a detailed knowledge of wikitext.[3]

a) True
b) False

3) QB/a25GeometricOptics_thinLenses is an example of a numerical quiz that uses random numbers to generate a large number of equivalent renditions. It cannot be written by students until a convenient Python code is developed.

a) True
b) False

4) The magic symbols used in for the raw script are, :t, :!, :?, :-, :+ :$, :z, and begin each line of the quiz in "raw-script" form. a) True b) False 5) A good place to see a sample raw script for conceptual quizzes is a) Quizbank b) mw:Extension:Quiz c) Wikipedia:Main_Page d) Miraheze e) Talk:QB/d zTemplateConceptual 6) The magic symbol ___ serves to identify the title of the conceptual quiz a) :$
b) :!
c) :t
d) :?
e) :+

7) The magic symbol ___ permits each question to be attributed independently.

a) :?
b) :t
c) :+
d) :!
e) :$ 8) The preferred attribution is CC0, with the author's ___ optional. a) employer b) email address c) username d) full name e) none of these 9) CCO is how Creative commons labels _____ (see w:special:permalink/841826293#Seven_regularly_used_licenses for answer) a) Share alike b) Public domain c) Attribution to the author d) Non-commercial use only e) all of these 10) The magic symbol ___ denotes the question a) :? b) :t c) :+ d) :! e) :$

11) The magic symbol ___ denotes the correct answer

a) :t
b) :+
c) :$ d) :? e) :! 12) The magic symbol ___ is optional and can be used for a hint for students, or advice for instructors. a) :t b) :+ c) :! d) :$
e) :?

13) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

a) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied
b) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly
c) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion

14) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

15) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

16) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

a) up
b) zero
c) down

17) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

a) zero
b) up
c) down

18) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) north
b) south
c) southwest
d) northeast
e) northwest

19) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northeast
b) north
c) northwest
d) south
e) southwest

20) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) north
b) northeast
c) southeast
d) northeast
e) northwest

21) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) north
b) southwest
c) south
d) northwest
e) northeast

22) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northwest
b) southeast
c) southwest
d) south
e) west

23) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northeast
b) south
c) southeast
d) north
e) northwest

24) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the east
b) to the west
c) zero

25) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the east
b) to the west
c) zero

26) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) to the east
b) zero
c) to the west

27) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

a) zero
b) down
c) up

28) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) south
b) zero
c) north
d) east
e) west

29) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is

a) west
b) north
c) zero
d) east
e) south

30) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) zero
b) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
c) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
d) away from Earth
e) towards Earth

31) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is

a) zero
b) up
c) down

32) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 7.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 6.0 meters
e) 3.0 meters

33) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 10.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 11.0 meters

34) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 11.0 meters
b) 12.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters

35) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 7.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 6.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

36) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 9.0 meters
b) 10.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 8.0 meters
e) 11.0 meters

37) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 19.0 meters
b) 23.0 meters
c) 21.0 meters
d) 20.0 meters
e) 22.0 meters

38) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 6.0 meters
c) 4.0 meters
d) 3.0 meters
e) 7.0 meters

39) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 9.0 meters
b) 10.0 meters
c) 12.0 meters
d) 11.0 meters
e) 8.0 meters

40) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 20.0 meters
b) 19.0 meters
c) 18.0 meters
d) 16.0 meters
e) 17.0 meters

41) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 2.0 meters
b) 3.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 4.0 meters
e) 1.0 meters

42) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 24.0 meters
b) 27.0 meters
c) 23.0 meters
d) 25.0 meters
e) 26.0 meters

43) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 15.0 meters
b) 14.0 meters
c) 13.0 meters
d) 17.0 meters
e) 16.0 meters

44) People don't usually perceive an echo when

a) it arrives at a lower pitch
b) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
c) it arrives at a higher pitch
d) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
e) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound

45) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

a) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
b) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
c) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.

46) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

a) echo instead of reverberation
b) both reverberation and echo
c) neither reverberation nor echo
d) reverberation instead of echo

47) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope towards the low density rope,

a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

48) A low density rope is connected to a rope with higher density (i.e. more kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along the low density rope towards the high density rope,

a) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
b) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
c) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
d) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

49) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength gets longer
b) the wavelength stays the same
c) the wavelength gets shorter

50) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) has higher frequency than the incident wave
b) both of these are true
c) has lower amplitude than the incident wave

51) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative interference
b) negative diffraction
c) positive diffraction
d) positive interference

52) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) positive interference
b) negative interference
c) positive diffraction
d) negative diffraction

53) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) fifth
b) dissonance
c) octave

54) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) octave
b) dissonance
c) fifth

55) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) fifth
b) octave
c) dissonance

56) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

a) Echo usually stifles the beats
b) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard
c) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
d) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.

57) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 20
b) 40
c) 30
d) 60
e) 50

58) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch

a) becomes lower
b) remains unchanged
c) becomes higher

59) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch

a) remains unchanged
b) becomes lower
c) becomes higher

60) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once every 5 years
b) once a 5 months
c) once every 50 years

61) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines
b) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines
c) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines

62) An example of a standard candle is

a) all of these are standard candles
b) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark
c) a supernova in a distant galaxy
d) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

63) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 1400km/s
b) 700km/s
c) 350km/s

64) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it is as viewed from Earth
b) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away
c) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion

65) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

a) they have a wide variety of speeds
b) they are not receding away from us
c) the cluster is close to us
d) they all have nearly the same speed

66) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.
b) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light
c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
d) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

67) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
b) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
c) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis
d) No, the clouds would get hot
68)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
69)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

70) In optics, normal means

a) parallel to the surface
b) to the right of the optical axis
c) to the left of the optical axis
d) perpendicular to the surface

71) The law of reflection applies to

a) flat surfaces
b) curved surfaces
c) both flat and curved surfaces
d) telescopes but not microscopes
e) only light in a vacuum

72) When light passes from air to glass

a) it bends away from the normal
b) it does not bend
c) the frequency increases
d) the frequency decreases
e) it bends towards the normal

73) When light passes from glass to air

a) it does not bend
b) the frequency decreases
c) it bends towards the normal
d) the frequency increases
e) it bends away from the normal

74) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) the invariance of the speed of light
b) the Doppler shift
c) partial internal absorption
d) total internal reflection
e) total external refraction

75) The focal point is where

a) the center of the lens
b) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
c) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
d) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
e) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

76) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

a)
b)
c) They have the same focal lengh.

77) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) very far away
b) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
c) One focal length in front of the eye
d) Two (of the other answers) are true
e) at infinity

78) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) true
b) false

79) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)

80) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 4♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) lose 3 points
b) lose 1 point
c) be disqualified for cheating
d) win 3 points
e) win 1 point

81) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) lose 3 points
b) win 3 points
c) win 1 point
d) lose 1 point
e) be disqualified for cheating

82) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following wins?

a) K and K♠
b) K♠ and K♣
c) none of these are true
d) two of these are true
e) K and K♣

83) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following loses?

a) K and K♠
b) K♠ and K♣
c) two of these are true
d) K and K♣
e) none of these are true

84) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
e) 6

85) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
e) 1

86) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 6
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
e) 4

87) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
e) 2

88) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is never skewed

a) True
b) False

89) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is usually skewed

a) True
b) False

90) By definition, a skewed distribution

a) is asymmetric about it's peak value
b) contains no outliers
c) is broader than an unskewed distribution
d) includes negative values of the observed variable
e) is a "normal" distribution

91) The binomial distribution results from observing n outcomes, each having a probability p of "success"

a) True
b) False

92) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as "two"?

a) 1/6
b) 5/6
c) 2/6
d) 3/6
e) 4/6

93) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as anything but "two"?

a) 1/6
b) 4/6
c) 2/6
d) 3/6
e) 5/6

94) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as either a "two" or a "three"?

a) 4/6
b) 2/6
c) 1/6
d) 3/6
e) 5/6

95) How would you describe the "skew" of a binary distribution?

a) The binary distribution is never skewed if it is a true binary distribution.
b) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a large number of trials n.
c) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a small number of trials n.
d) Distributions are never skewed. Only experimental measurements of them are skewed.
e) None of these are true.

96) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 18
b) 6
c) 1
d) 9
e) 3

97) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 3
b) 18
c) 9
d) 6
e) 2

98) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 1.1
b) 2.2
c) 4.4
d) 3.3
e) 9.9

99) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 9.9
b) 3.3
c) 2.2
d) 1.1

100) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 40 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 22
b) 12
c) 6
d) 8
e) 16

101) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 90 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 16
b) 6
c) 12
d) 8
e) 22

102) A local college averages 2500 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 200
b) 150
c) 250
d) 50
e) 500

103) A local college averages 1600 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 32
b) 160
c) 40
d) 10
e) 16

104) The light is linearly polarized, the electric field is oriented ________to the direction of motion

a) at 45 degrees
b) perpendicular
c) parallel
d) all of these are possible

105) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) circular or linear
b) circular or elliptical
c) circular
d) linear or elliptical
e) linearly

106) A mathematically pure (strictly monochromatic) __________ wave (oscillation) that is unpolarized cannot be created

a) both can be created
b) electromagnetic
c) pendulum
d) electromagnetic or pendulum

107) To create an unpolarized pendulum oscillation

a) start with a linear, circular, or elliptical wave and slowly evolve to different polarizations
b) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε>0.2
c) create an elliptically polarized wave with an 0.2<ε<0.8
d) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε<0.8

108) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1}$
d) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$

109) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle 1}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle 1}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$

110) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the shorter side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$

111) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the longer side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$

112) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 30° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$

113) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 60° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$

114) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power passes the filter?

a) 6mW
b) 9mW
c) 8mW
d) 3mW
e) 4mW

115) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 4mW
b) 9mW
c) 8mW
d) 6mW
e) 3mW

116) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 4mW
b) 9mW
c) 6mW
d) 3mW
e) 8mW

117) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 4mW
b) 6mW
c) 9mW
d) 8mW
e) 3mW

118) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 45° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 9mW
b) 8mW
c) 4mW
d) 6mW
e) 3mW
119)
A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters, each oriented 45° to the previous, as shown. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?
a) 3/32
b) 3/16
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
e) 1/32

120) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction parallel to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) linearly
b) linear or elliptical
c) circular or elliptical
d) circular
e) circular or linear

121) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters. The second is oriented 30° from the first, and the third is rotated by an additional 60°, making it at right angles from the first filter. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?

a) 1/8
b) 1/16
c) 1/32
d) 3/32
e) 3/16
122)
Why is the referee smoking a pipe?
a) The paper's author either likes the pipe or was too busy to remove it.
b) It is nearly impossible for Inkscape to modify an svg file.
c) The paper's author wishes to promote pipe smoking among college students.
d) The CC-BY-SA license denies the right to modify File:Silhouette Mr Pipo.svg.

123) When is the referee allowed to observe Alice and Bob?

a) While their backs are turned, but not while they are discussing strategy (phase 1)
b) never
c) The referee should carefully observe Alice and Bob all the time
d) While they are discussing strategy (phase 1), but not while their backs are turned to each other.

124) is it cheating for one of the partners to change mind in after communication ceases?

a) It is cheating and the game should be terminated if the partners are caught doing this
b) It is not cheating, and allowing to partners to do this is in the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
c) It is not cheating, but allowing to partners to do so violates the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
d) It is cheating, but fortunately the penalty allows partners to do it

125) The β-strategy is a new strategy introduced in the couples version of the card game that calls for

a) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
b) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
c) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
d) None of these describes the β-strategy
e) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"

126) The α-strategy in the couples version of the card game is similar to the strategy introduced in the solitaire version, and calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
b) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
c) None of these describes the α-strategy
d) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
e) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"

127) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the different suit (different questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) None of these is correct

128) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the same suit (same questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
d) None of these is correct
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$

129) Suppose the partners choose the β strategy (which was not available in the solitaire version). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) None of these is correct

130) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) None of these is correct
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$

131) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. Why would such a strategy ever be adopted? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) There is no reason for the partners to ever adopt this strategy
b) The partners might have cheated so much in the past that they need to lose a round.
c) Both partners agree that there is a 90% chance that the two question cards will have the same suit.
d) One partner might announce that all answers will be "even", while the other is certain that the both question cards will have the same suit.
e) Two of these reasons for this strategy might be valid

132) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4 to A?

a) no points awarded or lost
b) win 1 point
c) lose Q points
d) lose 3 points

133) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5 to A?

a) no points awarded or lost
b) win 1 point
c) lose 3 points
d) lose Q points

134) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4♠ to A♠?

a) lose Q points
b) win 1 point
c) lose 3 points
d) no points awarded or lost

135) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5♠ to A♠?

a) lose 3 points
b) win 1 point
c) lose Q points
d) no points awarded or lost

136) Suppose referee adopts neutral scoring with Q=4 and asks the same question with a probability PS=0.25. This reduces the average loss rate for their partners for the following reason: Consider a probability space with

a) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning once but losing twice. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
b) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
c) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning twice. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
d) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning twice but losing once. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
e) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.

137) Although it decreases the rate at which the partners lose point, increasing the probability of asking the same question is more effective at persuading students to act as particles by relying on the α-strategy because relying on a larger penalty for giving different answers to the same question will tempt students to use the β-strategy only briefly (hoping never to be caught) and then requesting a break to "re-establish" quantum entanglement.

a) True
b) False

138) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 1?

a) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
b) ${\displaystyle 0}$
c) ${\displaystyle 3}$
d) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
e) ${\displaystyle 4}$

139) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 0?

a) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
b) ${\displaystyle 4}$
c) ${\displaystyle 0}$
d) ${\displaystyle 3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$

140) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.25?

a) ${\displaystyle 3}$
b) ${\displaystyle 4}$
c) ${\displaystyle 0}$
d) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
e) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$

141) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.5?

a) ${\displaystyle 0}$
b) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
c) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4}$
e) ${\displaystyle 3}$

142) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon is cut in half, the photon's energy E

a) is reduced by a factor of 4
b) becomes 4 times as big
c) is cut in half
d) becomes twice as big
e) stays the same

143) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon doubles, the photon's frequency f

a) is cut in half
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) becomes 4 times as big
d) becomes twice as big
e) stays the same

144) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's wavelength λ

a) is reduced by a factor of 4
b) becomes twice as big
c) becomes 4 times as big
d) is cut in half
e) stays the same

145) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's energy E

a) becomes twice as big
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) stays the same
d) is cut in half
e) becomes 4 times as big

146) If an atom emits two photons in a cascade emission and both photons have 2 eV of energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 4 eV
b) decreases by 4 eV
c) increases by 2 eV
d) stays the same
e) decreases by 2 eV

147) If an atom absorbs a photon with 2 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 4 eV
b) decreases by 4 eV
c) decreases by 2 eV
d) stays the same
e) increases by 2 eV

148) If a 3 eV photon strikes a metal plate and causes an electron to escape, that electron will have a kinetic energy that is

a) equal to 3 eV
b) less than 3 eV
c) greater than 3 eV
d) equal to 6 eV
e) zero

149) In the Phet lab for photoelectric effect, how was the electron's kinetic energy measured?

a) measuring both spin and polarization
b) measuring spin
c) measuring polarization
d) deflecting the electron with a magnetic field
e) stopping the electron with an applied voltage

150) If an atom absorbs a photon with 4 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 2 eV
b) decreases by 4 eV
c) decreases by 2 eV
d) increases by 4 eV
e) stays the same

151) If 1018 photons pass through a small hole in your roof every second, how many photons would pass through it if you doubled the diameter?

a) 6x1018
b) 8x1018
c) 1018
d) 2x1018
e) 4x1018

152) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy density (energy per unit volume)?

a) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
b) They have the same energy density (since the holes are identical).
c) The larger object has a greater energy density.
d) The hotter object has a greater energy density.

153) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object emits more photons per second (above a given threshold energy)?

a) The object with the greater temperature emits more.
b) The object with the greater volume.
c) They both emit the same number of photons (since the holes are identical).
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

154) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy?

a) They have the same energy (since the holes are identical).
b) The hotter object has a greater energy.
c) The larger object has a greater energy.
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).
155)
This figure is associated with
a) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
c) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
d) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
e) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
156)
This figure is associated with
a) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
b) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
c) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
d) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
157)
This figure is associated with
a) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
b) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
c) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
d) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
e) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
158)
This figure is associated with
a) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf
c) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
d) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
e) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.

159) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 35°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 0
b) 3/4
c) 1/2
d) 1
e) 1/4

160) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 55°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 0
b) 3/4
c) 1/4
d) 1/2
e) 1

161) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 70°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1
b) 1/2
c) 1/4
d) 3/4
e) 0

162) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 40°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 3/4
d) 1
e) 0

163) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 50°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 3/4
d) 0
e) 1/4

164) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 65°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1
b) 0
c) 3/4
d) 1/4
e) 1/2

165) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 0
b) 1/4
c) 1
d) 1/2
e) 3/4

166) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 0
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) 1
167)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 2/5
b) 3/5
c) 5/6
d) 3/4
e) 2/4=1/2
168)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 5/6
b) 2/4=1/2
c) 3/5
d) 2/5
e) 3/4
169)
Calculate the probability
P(♠,)+P(♠,)+P(,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 5/6
b) 4/5
c) 7/5
d) 5/4
e) 6/5
170)
Calculate the quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +2/5
b) +1
c) +1/5
d) −2/5
e) 0
f) −1/5
171)
Calculate the measured quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +1
b) +1/5
c) −2/5
d) 0
e) +2/5
f) −1/5
172)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(even), or the probability that the number is even?
a) 0
b) 5/4
c) 1/4
d) 1
e) 3/4
f) 1/2
173)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime), or the probability that the number is prime?
a) 5/4
b) 1/2
c) 0
d) 1
e) 3/4
f) 1/4
174)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime)+P(even), or the sum of the probability that it is even, plus the probability that it is prime?
a) 1/4
b) 1
c) 1/2
d) 0
e) 5/4
f) 3/4
175)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is both even and prime?
a) 1/2
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5/4
e) 1/4
f) 3/4
176)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is either even or prime?
a) 1/4
b) 3/4
c) 5/4
d) 1
e) 0
f) 1/2

177) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to

a) a person
b) Roman numerals
c) an abacus
d) counting rods

178) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem

a) true
b) false

179) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved.

a) true
b) false

180) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

a) electromechanical
b) conceptual
c) analog
d) prototype
e) digital

181) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* Add 3
* If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

182) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* Add 3
* If the number is divisible by 10, add 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

183) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to

a) control a textile mill
b) control a telephone exchange
c) count votes in an election
d) calculate the value of π

184) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.

a) electromechanical
b) mechanical
c) Turing-complete
d) electric digital programmable

185) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was

a) mechanical
b) electromechanical
c) electric digital programmable
d) Turing-complete

186) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

a) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors
b) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
c) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
d) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors

187) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

a) true
b) false

188) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

a) true
b) false

189) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

190) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

191) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

192) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

193) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900)

a) true
b) false

194) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

a) true
b) false

195) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

a) true
b) false

196) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

197) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

198) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons.

a) true
b) false

199) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

200) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.

a) true
b) false

201) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years

a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3

202) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4

203) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

a) true
b) false

204) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs.

a) true
b) false

205) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______

a) one month;   18 years
b) 34 days;   six months
c) six months;   18 years
d) six months;   54 years
e) 7 days;   one month

206) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism?

a) 15,000 years
b) 3000 years
c) 300 years
d) 30 years
e) 1500 years
207)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
a) crown gear
b) epicycle gear
c) spiral bevel gear

208) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

a) true
b) false

209) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years?

a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.
b) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years.
c) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic.

210) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

a) 500-550 BC
b) 300-350 AD
c) 300-350 BC
d) 100-150 BC

211) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.

a) true
b) false

212) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________.

a) sponge divers;   1900
b) Jacques-Yves Cousteau;   1976

213) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind?

a) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices.
b) Chemical analysis of the bronze.
c) The quality of its manufacture.
d) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site.

214) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

a) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
b) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.
c) copper;   to make it hard.
d) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.

215) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device

a) suggested that Roman technology was used.
b) suggested that Greek technology was used.
c) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced.
d) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion.

216) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?

a) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
b) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
c) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.
d) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.

217) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

218) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

a) 40
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30

219) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses.

a) 20
b) 10
c) 40
d) 2
e) 1

220) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

a) true
b) false

221) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) true
b) false

222) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by

a) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD)
b) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD)
c) an unknown Babylonian
d) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC)

223) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with

a) leap years
b) a wobble in the Moon's orbit
c) precession of the equinoxes
d) precession of the Moon's orbit

224) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

a) time of day
b) day of the month
c) season of the year

225) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

a) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)
b) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day
c) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
d) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.

226) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
b) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
c) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

227) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

a) 8
b) 5
c) 30
d) 15
228) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) B: 000010
b) A: 000010
c) A: 000100
d) B: 000100
229) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next?
a) B: 000110
b) B: 000110
c) A: 000110
d) A: 001100
230) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) A: 000110
b) B: 000110
c) A: 001110
d) B: 001100
231) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) B: 000111
b) A: 001110
c) B: 001110
d) A: 001110
232) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
a) B: 011110
b) A: 011110
c) H: 011110
d) H: 011110
233) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) A: 011110
c) B: 011110
d) H: 011110

234) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

a) World War I (1914)
b) the American revolution (1776)
c) the American civil war (1861)

235) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them

a) is still in use today
b) was transported to Germany
c) burned down
d) was sabotaged by workers
e) two of these are true

236) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

a) remove seeds
b) clean cotton
c) weave cotton
d) pick cotton
e) spin cotton

237) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______

a) Weavopolis, Weaving factories
b) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
c) Coalopolis, coal mines
d) Cottonopolis, textile factories

238) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required

a) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.
b) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.
c) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).

239) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______

a) cheaper, hammering
b) cheaper, puddling
c) faster, hammering
d) faster, puddling

240) Puddling involved

a) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
b) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
c) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
d) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring

241) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by

a) water and wind.
b) steam and wind.
c) water and steam.

242) The Miner's Friend

a) transported miners
b) was electrical lighting
c) provided ventilation
d) pumped water

243) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to

a) shape plates for ship hulls
b) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
c) drill coal mines
d) plane rails for railroads

244) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by

a) replacing glass containers with lead containers
b) replacing glass containers with iron containers
c) replacing lead containers with glass containers
d) replacing iron containers with glass containers

245) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years

a) 500
b) 300
c) 100
d) 400
e) 200

246) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

a) producing dyes and making cement
b) removing rust and bleaching cloth
c) making cement and bleaching cloth
d) removing rust and making cement
e) producing dyes and bleaching cloth

247) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in

a) Italy
b) United States
c) Great Britain
d) Germany
e) Sweden

248) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was

a) ship building
b) farm equipment
c) military spending
d) textiles
e) railroads

249) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?

a) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
b) sustained growth, for the first time in history
c) the question is a subject of controversy
d) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.

250) The industrial revolution began in

a) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
b) United States
c) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
d) Germany
e) Great Britain

251) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution?

a) assembly lines
b) steam power
c) iron making
d) textiles

252) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect

a) large manufacturers
b) the woollen industry
c) small manufacturers
d) domestic cotton production

253) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

a) spinning, weaving, more
b) weaving, spinning, more
c) weaving, spinning, fewer
d) spinning, weaving, fewer

254) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours.

a) spinning, weaving, more
b) weaving, spinning, fewer
c) spinning, weaving, fewer
d) weaving, spinning, more

255) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012?

a) 13%
b) 63%
c) 33%
d) 3%

256) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

a) neutrons permit induced radiation
b) neutrons are slow
c) neutrons are stable

257) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

a) protons are positively charged
b) protons move at the speed of light
c) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus
d) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce

258) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

a) "moonshine";   fast neutrons
b) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons
c) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)
d) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"

259) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________

a) hesperium;   fission
b) fusion;   hesparium
c) fission;   hesparium
d) hesperium;   fusion

260) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

a) nuclear power generation
b) they were developed simultaneously
c) nuclear weapons

261) The Manhattan project made

a) plutonium and enriched uranium
b) plutonium and enriched hesparium
c) uranium and enriched plutonium

262) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ...

a) widespread radiation poisoning
b) nuclear war
c) a world government to prevent nuclear war
d) that fossil fuels would go unused

263) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was

a) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements
b) a protest movement centered in US universities
c) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production
d) a congressional committee

264) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

a) Virginia
b) Russia
c) Great Britain
d) Oak Ridge

265) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was

a) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy
b) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source
c) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source

266) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050?

a) expected
b) unlikely
c) likely
d) impossible

267) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years

a) true
b) false

268) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines

a) true
b) false

269) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia

a) true
b) false

270) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and

a) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)
b) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
c) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
d) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)

271) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

a) less
b) comparable
c) more

272) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.)

a) less
b) about the same
c) greater

273) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

a) 90
b) 10
c) 50

274) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is

a) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant.
b) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant.
c) United States, Turkey, France least reliant.
d) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant.

275) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______

a) early 19th century
b) late 19th century
c) early 20th century

276) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons

a) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power
b) are not radioactive
c) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price

277) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

a) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
b) what called neutrons
c) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
d) what he called alpha particles

278) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure

a) to reduce the heat required to boil it
b) to prevent it from boiling
c) to slow down the neutrons
d) only in the reactor core

279) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

a) 100 times more than
b) 100 times less than
c) 10 times more than
d) 10 times less than
e) about the same as

280) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

a) true
b) false

281) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

a) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors
b) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
c) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership

282) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium

a) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
b) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
c) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states
d) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns

283) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

284) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

285) Nuclear power plants typically have

a) low capital costs and high fuel costs
b) high capital costs and high fuel costs
c) low capital costs and low fuel costs
d) high capital costs and low fuel costs

286) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident?

a) from 4000 to 25,000
b) zero
c) from 0 to 1000

287) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.

a) true
b) false

288) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

a) true
b) false

289) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned

a) 6 months;   3%
b) 6 years;   3%
c) 6 years;   30%
d) 6 months;   30%

290) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries

a) true
b) false

291) The Megatons to Megawatts Program

a) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
b) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure
c) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
d) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure

292) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

a) 5 years
b) 5 months
c) 50 years

293) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.

a) 4 times more common
b) 40 times more common
c) 4 times less common
d) 40 times less common

294) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are

a) are already in use
b) considered impossible
c) are likely to emerge in the next few decades

295) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

a) 60%
b) 3%
c) 99%
d) 30%
e) 1 %

296) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

a) true
b) false

297) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

a) the isotopes are long-lived
b) the isotopes are short-lived
c) they cannot be stored underground

298) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

a) 10 times more than
b) about the same as
c) 10 times less than
d) 100 times less than
e) 100 times more than

299) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years

a) 30
b) 300
c) 10
d) 100
e) 3

300) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent

a) estimates of the impact on land temperatures
b) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone
c) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future
d) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels

301) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

a) reduction of green house emissions
b) climate engineering
c) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming
d) adaptation to the effects of global warming

302) Anthropogenic means something that

a) human caused
b) humans can repair
c) will hurt humans
d) humans cannot repair

303) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________

a) sea; in the bottom kilometer
b) air; in the water vapor
c) sea; in the top kilometer
d) land; near the equators
e) land; near the poles

304) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling

a) true
b) false

305) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

a) near the poles
b) near the equator
c) in the western hemisphere
d) on the ocean surface

306) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by

a) 90% of the academies of science
b) 60% of the academies of science
c) all but the US academy of science
d) all of the academies of science

307) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are

a) cement production and land use changes
b) population growth
c) cement production and waste disposal
d) population growth and waste disposal

308) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

a) 1.6° Celsius
b) 0.6° Celsius
c) 0.06° Celsius
d) 0.16° Celsius
e) 16° Celsius

309) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

a) all portions of Antarctica have warmed
b) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
c) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States
d) The United States has warmed more than Australia

310) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in

a) the sun's energy output
b) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
c) the world economy
d) the earth's distance from the sun

311) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005.

a) 7.0°C
b) 0.7°C
c) 0.07°C

312) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

a) water tends to expand as it warms
b) both of these are true
c) ice and snow melts

313) What happens when water is heated?

a) it absorbs CO2
b) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C
c) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C

314) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

a) true
b) false

315) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

a) true
b) false

316) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun

a) true
b) false

317) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

a) 0.7 °C per century
b) 0.7 °C per year
c) 0.7 °C per decade

318) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was

a) half as much
b) twice as much
c) about the same

319) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

a) about the same
b) half as much
c) twice as much

320) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.

a) 0.3%
b) 30%
c) 3%
d) 0%

321) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth

a) true
b) false

322) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space.

a) true
b) false

323) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

a) the Medieval Warming Period
b) the Little Ice Age
c) tree proxy measurements
d) a 10 year average
e) thermometer measurements

324) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem)

a) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements
b) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements
c) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements
d) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period

325) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere.

a) true
b) false

326) Emissions scenarios are

a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans
b) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture
c) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases
d) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature

327) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

a) true
b) false

328) The carbon cycle

a) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
b) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.
c) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.

329) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

a) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming
b) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
c) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight

330) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

331) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

332) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth.

a) true
b) false

333) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.

a) true
b) false

334) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy?

a) 0%
b) 30%
c) 10%
d) 50%

335) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

336) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

a) true
b) false

337) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

338) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

a) true
b) false

339) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate.

a) true
b) false

340) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere.

a) true
b) false

341) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

a) greenhouse gasses
b) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)
c) volcanic eruptions
d) orbital cycles

342) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

343) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

344) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide.

a) true
b) false

345) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor.

a) true
b) false

346) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations

a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.
c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations

347) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

a) true
b) false

348) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in

a) how much ice is melted during the summer months
b) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight
c) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun

349) The cryosphere refers to

a) the north and south poles
b) two of these are true
c) the upper atmosphere
d) the highest mountains

350) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

a) true
b) false

351) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910.

a) true
b) false

352) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?

a) all of these are true
b) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
c) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
d) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.

353) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

354) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

355) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.

a) true
b) false

356) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet.

a) true
b) false

357) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.

a) true
b) false

358) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms.

a) true
b) false

359) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.

a) true
b) false

360) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model.

a) true
b) false

#### ALL B1

1) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) has higher frequency than the incident wave
b) both of these are true
c) has lower amplitude than the incident wave
2)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime)+P(even), or the sum of the probability that it is even, plus the probability that it is prime?
a) 5/4
b) 1/2
c) 1/4
d) 1
e) 3/4
f) 0

3) Suppose that you see a full moon, but no eclipse. You can be certain that a full moon will also occur exactly one Saros later.

a) true
b) false

4) Fermi thought he had discovered ________, when he actually discovered ________

a) hesperium;   fission
b) fusion;   hesparium
c) hesperium;   fusion
d) fission;   hesparium

5) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon doubles, the photon's frequency f

a) is cut in half
b) is reduced by a factor of 4
c) becomes twice as big
d) stays the same
e) becomes 4 times as big

6) The chronological order by which electronic computers advanced is:

a) transistors, integrated circuits, and then tubes
b) tubes, transistors, and then integrated circuits
c) tubes, integrated circuits and then transistors
d) integrated circuits, tubes, and then transistors

7) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 35°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
e) 1/4

8) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is never skewed

a) True
b) False

9) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

a) up
b) down
c) zero

10) What impact did the industrial revolution have on living standards of ordinary people, according to Wikipedia?

a) little or no growth until much later (19th and 20th centuries)
b) little or no growth in the first half, but enormous growth in the second half of the industrial revolution.
c) the question is a subject of controversy
d) sustained growth, for the first time in history

11) It has been estimated that if Japan had never adopted nuclear power, the use of other fuels would have caused more lost years of life.

a) true
b) false

12) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch

a) remains unchanged
b) becomes higher
c) becomes lower

13) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 65°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 1/4
b) 0
c) 3/4
d) 1
e) 1/2

14) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) true
b) false

15) Which of the following was NOT used as evidence in an effort to guess where the Antikythera device originated?

a) Coins at the site seemed to originate from Pergamon, where an important library was situated.
b) Vases found at the site suggest an origin near the trading port of Rhodes, where Hipparchus was believed to have worked.
c) The Library of Alexandria, where Ptolemy would later work, would have been a likely destination or origin for the ship.
d) Some of the astronomical events associated with the device could have only have been seen from Corinth, a region associated with Archimedes.

16) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements. The solid black line represents

a) tree proxy measurements
b) the Medieval Warming Period
c) a 10 year average
d) the Little Ice Age
e) thermometer measurements

17) It was discovered that radioactive elements released immense amounts of energy according to the principle of mass–energy equivalence in the ______

a) early 19th century
b) early 20th century
c) late 19th century

18) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. Why would such a strategy ever be adopted? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Two of these reasons for this strategy might be valid
b) Both partners agree that there is a 90% chance that the two question cards will have the same suit.
c) The partners might have cheated so much in the past that they need to lose a round.
d) One partner might announce that all answers will be "even", while the other is certain that the both question cards will have the same suit.
e) There is no reason for the partners to ever adopt this strategy

19) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

a) both reverberation and echo
b) neither reverberation nor echo
c) reverberation instead of echo
d) echo instead of reverberation
20)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

21) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 4♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) lose 3 points
b) lose 1 point
c) win 3 points
d) be disqualified for cheating
e) win 1 point

22) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the east
c) to the west

23) Analog computers continued to be developed into the twentieth century

a) true
b) false

24) Fermi used _______ to create what he thought was _______

a) transuranic (heavy) elements;   a new source of slow neutrons
b) "moonshine";   fast neutrons
c) slow neutrons;   "moonshine"
d) slow neutrons;   a new element heavier than uranium (called a transuranic element)

25) In the arctic, soot tends to warm the earth.

a) true
b) false

26) What is so special about 3 Saros cycles (triple Saros)?

a) this eclipse will occur at the same time of day
b) this eclipse terminates the Saros (and a new Saros number is assigned.)
c) this eclipse will occur with the Moon in the same position on the zodiac.
d) this eclipse will occur at the same day of the month (plus or minus one day)

27) Compared with the second half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the first half was

a) about the same
b) twice as much
c) half as much

28) Neutrons and protons both have "strong" short range interactions with the nucleus. Why can't slow protons be used to cause nuclei to undergo fission?

a) slow protons can induce fission but they are too expensive to produce
b) protons move at the speed of light
c) protons are positively charged
d) slow protons are attracted to the nucleus

29) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northwest
b) south
c) northeast
d) southeast
e) north
30) If the machine is at B: 011110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) A: 011110
c) B: 011110
d) H: 011110

31) Early uses for sulphuric acid included

a) producing dyes and bleaching cloth
b) removing rust and making cement
c) removing rust and bleaching cloth
d) making cement and bleaching cloth
e) producing dyes and making cement

32) Ernest Rutherford's "moonshine" was

a) what called neutrons
b) what he called the idea of harnessing nuclear power
c) what he called the idea of relying on fossil fuels
d) what he called alpha particles

33) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as indirect inferences gathered from ice cores, tree rings, and so forth

a) true
b) false

34) The industrial revolution began in

a) Germany
b) simultaneously in a variety of European nations
c) simultaneously in Europe and the United States
d) United States
e) Great Britain

35) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's energy E

a) stays the same
b) becomes 4 times as big
c) is reduced by a factor of 4
d) becomes twice as big
e) is cut in half
36)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is either even or prime?
a) 1
b) 1/4
c) 3/4
d) 5/4
e) 1/2
f) 0

37) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.
b) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
c) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies
d) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light

38) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with the role of clouds as a feedback mechanism.

a) true
b) false

39) The Turing machine could not have been invented until after the halting problem was solved.

a) true
b) false

40) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)
41)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(even), or the probability that the number is even?
a) 1/4
b) 0
c) 1
d) 1/2
e) 3/4
f) 5/4

42) Anthropogenic means something that

a) human caused
b) humans cannot repair
c) will hurt humans
d) humans can repair

43) Henry Cort developed rolling, which is 15 times _____ than ______

a) faster, hammering
b) cheaper, puddling
c) cheaper, hammering
d) faster, puddling

44) In the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise was closest to

a) 0.7 °C per decade
b) 0.7 °C per century
c) 0.7 °C per year

45) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it is blocked?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1/4
d) 3/4
e) 1/2

46) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows dips and rises that are caused by changes in

a) worldwide efforts to curtail emissions
b) the earth's distance from the sun
c) the sun's energy output
d) the world economy

47) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 equal sections of 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

48) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 70°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 1/4
e) 3/4

49) Reactors that use natural (unenriched) uranium are

a) are likely to emerge in the next few decades
b) are already in use
c) considered impossible

50) The lede's graphs of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" indicates that from 1960 to 2012 the average temperature increased by approximately

a) 16° Celsius
b) 0.6° Celsius
c) 0.16° Celsius
d) 0.06° Celsius
e) 1.6° Celsius

51) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) very far away
b) Two (of the other answers) are true
c) One focal length in front of the eye
d) at infinity
e) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
52)
This figure is associated with
a) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
b) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
c) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf
d) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
e) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.

53) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to predict lunar eclipses

a) true
b) false

54) Which external force plays the smallest role in current efforts to model global warming?

a) orbital cycles
b) solar luminosity (i.e. variations in energy from the sun)
c) volcanic eruptions
d) greenhouse gasses

55) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) zero
b) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
c) towards Earth
d) away from Earth
e) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity

56) High-level radioactive waste management is a daunting problem because

a) the isotopes are short-lived
b) they cannot be stored underground
c) the isotopes are long-lived

57) The magic symbol ___ serves to identify the title of the conceptual quiz

a) :?
b) :$ c) :t d) :! e) :+ 58) From the figure depicting percentage of power produced by nuclear power plants, we see that the proper ranking from greatest to least reliance on nuclear power for three nations is a) France, United States, with Turkey least reliant. b) France ,Turkey , with the United States least reliant. c) United States, Turkey, France least reliant. d) United States, France, with Turkey least reliant. 59) In a PWR reactor, the water is kept under high pressure a) only in the reactor core b) to reduce the heat required to boil it c) to prevent it from boiling d) to slow down the neutrons 60) In optics, normal means a) to the left of the optical axis b) perpendicular to the surface c) parallel to the surface d) to the right of the optical axis 61) The Turing machine permitted a solution to the halting problem a) true b) false 62) In 1953, "Atoms for Peace" was a) a protest movement centered in US universities b) a presidential speech promoting nuclear energy production c) a congressional committee d) a presidential speech warning of the need for nuclear arms agreements 63) Water vapor contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does carbon dioxide. a) true b) false 64) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as "two"? a) 2/6 b) 1/6 c) 3/6 d) 4/6 e) 5/6 65) If the machine is at B: 000100, what's next? a) A: 000110 b) B: 000110 c) A: 001100 d) B: 000110 66) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction parallel to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer) a) circular b) circular or elliptical c) linearly d) circular or linear e) linear or elliptical 67) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 6.0 meters b) 3.0 meters c) 7.0 meters d) 4.0 meters e) 5.0 meters 68) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as either a "two" or a "three"? a) 3/6 b) 2/6 c) 4/6 d) 5/6 e) 1/6 69) The magic symbol ___ denotes the question a) :+ b) :$
c) :t
d) :?
e) :!

70) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength gets longer
b) the wavelength stays the same
c) the wavelength gets shorter

71) Soot tends to cool the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false
72)
Calculate the measured quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +2/5
b) +1/5
c) +1
d) 0
e) −2/5
f) −1/5

73) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) circular or elliptical
b) circular
c) circular or linear
d) linear or elliptical
e) linearly

74) A local college averages 2500 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 50
b) 200
c) 150
d) 250
e) 500

75) While the Babylonians invented what we call the Saros cycle, they did not call it by that name.

a) true
b) false

76) If an atom absorbs a photon with 2 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) decreases by 2 eV
b) increases by 2 eV
c) decreases by 4 eV
d) stays the same
e) increases by 4 eV

77) The magic symbol ___ permits each question to be attributed independently.

a) :!
b) :$ c) :t d) :? e) :+ 78) Since 1971, 90% of earth's increased energy caused by global warming has been stored in the _____________, mostly _____________ a) land; near the equators b) sea; in the bottom kilometer c) land; near the poles d) air; in the water vapor e) sea; in the top kilometer 79) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the longer side? a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$ b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$ c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$ d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$ e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$ 80) The Reconstructed Temperature (0-2000 AD) plot in "Observed Temperature Changes" shows temperature measurements, as well as what curious feature? (See also Divergence problem) a) a tiny gap at the end of the proxy measurements b) the Little Ice Age being less prominent than the Medieval Warming period c) the fact that the different proxy measurements deviate considerably from the average of all proxy measurements d) a divergence between the tree and pollen proxy measurements 81) Between any given eclipse and the one that occurs one Saros (roughly 18 years) later, there will be approximately ________ lunar and solar eclipses. a) 2 b) 40 c) 10 d) 1 e) 20 82) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following loses? a) K♠ and K♣ b) none of these are true c) two of these are true d) K and K♣ e) K and K♠ 83) Cartwright built two textile factories. One of them a) was transported to Germany b) was sabotaged by workers c) two of these are true d) burned down e) is still in use today 84) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution). a) 18 b) 6 c) 9 d) 2 e) 3 85) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone allows UV radiation to penetrate. a) true b) false 86) The Saros cycle is 18 years plus either 10.321 or 11.321 days. The reason for the variable number of days has to do with a) precession of the equinoxes b) precession of the Moon's orbit c) leap years d) a wobble in the Moon's orbit 87) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 90 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __ a) 6 b) 22 c) 16 d) 12 e) 8 88) The Colossus, used to defeat the German Enigma machine during World War II in 1944, was a) Turing-complete b) mechanical c) electric digital programmable d) electromechanical 89) Computer modeling has conclusively established that anthropogenic warming has occurred since 1910. a) true b) false 90) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is a) north b) west c) zero d) east e) south 91) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5♠ to A♠? a) lose Q points b) no points awarded or lost c) lose 3 points d) win 1 point 92) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is more difficult to model. a) true b) false 93) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average lose ___ times. a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5 e) 1 94) "External forcings" refer to effects that can increase, but not decrease, the Earth's temperature. a) true b) false 95) The Antikythera wreck was discovered by _________ in ________. a) sponge divers; 1900 b) Jacques-Yves Cousteau; 1976 96) In London (circa 1935) thousands of vacuum tubes were used to a) control a telephone exchange b) calculate the value of π c) count votes in an election d) control a textile mill 97) The light is linearly polarized, the electric field is oriented ________to the direction of motion a) perpendicular b) all of these are possible c) parallel d) at 45 degrees 98) Calculate the measured probability: P(♠,) = ? Assume the dots represent five observations. a) 3/4 b) 3/5 c) 2/4=1/2 d) 5/6 e) 2/5 99) Proxy temperatures measurements are defined as measurements made using measurements from space. a) true b) false 100) This figure is associated with a) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.) b) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron. c) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909) d) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave. e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905) 101) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average win ___ times. a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 3 e) 6 102) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is a) total internal reflection b) total external refraction c) the Doppler shift d) partial internal absorption e) the invariance of the speed of light 103) QB/a25GeometricOptics_thinLenses is an example of a numerical quiz that uses random numbers to generate a large number of equivalent renditions. It cannot be written by students until a convenient Python code is developed. a) True b) False 104) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 11.0 meters b) 10.0 meters c) 12.0 meters d) 9.0 meters e) 8.0 meters 105) If an atom emits two photons in a cascade emission and both photons have 2 eV of energy, the atom's energy a) decreases by 4 eV b) stays the same c) increases by 2 eV d) increases by 4 eV e) decreases by 2 eV 106) Which is NOT one of the three areas of development that helped initiate the industrial revolution? a) steam power b) assembly lines c) textiles d) iron making 107) Suppose the partners choose the β strategy (which was not available in the solitaire version). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$) a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ e) None of these is correct 108) Which lens has the shorter focal length? a) b) c) They have the same focal lengh. 109) The two solid signals add to a (dashed) a) octave b) dissonance c) fifth 110) CCO is how Creative commons labels _____ (see w:special:permalink/841826293#Seven_regularly_used_licenses for answer) a) Public domain b) all of these c) Share alike d) Non-commercial use only e) Attribution to the author 111) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 40 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __ a) 22 b) 6 c) 12 d) 16 e) 8 112) In the arctic, soot tends to cool the earth. a) true b) false 113) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 12 years a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 114) A mathematically pure (strictly monochromatic) __________ wave (oscillation) that is unpolarized cannot be created a) electromagnetic or pendulum b) both can be created c) pendulum d) electromagnetic 115) Depleting the ozone layer cools the stratosphere because ozone absorbs UV energy from the sun that heats the stratosphere. a) true b) false 116) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that this heat is retained by the planet. a) true b) false 117) When light passes from air to glass a) the frequency decreases b) the frequency increases c) it bends away from the normal d) it bends towards the normal e) it does not bend 118) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 30° to that field? a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$ b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$ c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$ d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$ e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$ 119) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0: * Add 3 * If the number is divisible by 10, divide by 10 * Stop if the number exceeds 100 * Go to top a) true b) false 120) Computer models accurately model feedback mechanisms associated with how the soil will retain or release CO2 as the earth warms. a) true b) false 121) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 40°. What is the probability that it is blocked? a) 1/4 b) 0 c) 3/4 d) 1/2 e) 1 122) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel? a) 16.0 meters b) 20.0 meters c) 19.0 meters d) 18.0 meters e) 17.0 meters 123) The magic symbol ___ denotes the correct answer a) :+ b) :t c) :! d) :$
e) :?

124) The Megatons to Megawatts Program

a) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a failure
b) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a success
c) converts weapons grade uranium into fuel for commercial reactors, and is considered a success
d) purchases spent fuel that could otherwise be used to make weapons, and is considered a failure

125) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because the oceans are absorbing less heat energy from the sun

a) true
b) false

126) Chadwicks discovery of the neutron was significant because

a) neutrons are stable
b) neutrons are slow
c) neutrons permit induced radiation

127) Nuclear power plants typically have

a) low capital costs and high fuel costs
b) low capital costs and low fuel costs
c) high capital costs and low fuel costs
d) high capital costs and high fuel costs

128) The binomial distribution results from observing n outcomes, each having a probability p of "success"

a) True
b) False
129)
Why is the referee smoking a pipe?
a) The paper's author wishes to promote pipe smoking among college students.
b) The paper's author either likes the pipe or was too busy to remove it.
c) The CC-BY-SA license denies the right to modify File:Silhouette Mr Pipo.svg.
d) It is nearly impossible for Inkscape to modify an svg file.

130) How is the validity of a computer model typically tested?

a) by verifying its ability to calculate past climate conditions.
b) by verifying its ability to calculate current climate conditions.
c) by making predictions about future years and seeing if they come true.
d) all of these are true
131)
Calculate the probability
P(♠,)+P(♠,)+P(,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 5/4
b) 6/5
c) 4/5
d) 7/5
e) 5/6
132) If the machine is at A: 001110, what's next?
a) H: 011110
b) H: 011110
c) A: 011110
d) B: 011110

133) The Bombe was a(n) ______________ device used (circa 1940) to defeat the Enigma machine in World War II.

a) mechanical
b) Turing-complete
c) electromechanical
d) electric digital programmable

134) If the frequency f associated with a photon increases by a factor of 4, the photon's wavelength λ

a) becomes twice as big
b) stays the same
c) is cut in half
d) is reduced by a factor of 4
e) becomes 4 times as big

135) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the same suit (same questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) None of these is correct

136) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Lunar phases.

a) true
b) false

137) Fast breeder reactors use uranium-238, an isotope which constitutes _____ of naturally occurring uranium

a) 1 %
b) 60%
c) 3%
d) 99%
e) 30%

138) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object emits more photons per second (above a given threshold energy)?

a) The object with the greater volume.
b) They both emit the same number of photons (since the holes are identical).
c) The object with the greater temperature emits more.
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

139) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will be again useful for farming in 40-60 years

a) true
b) false

140) During the Industrial Revolution, the cost of producing sulfuric acid greatly improved by

a) replacing glass containers with lead containers
b) replacing lead containers with glass containers
c) replacing glass containers with iron containers
d) replacing iron containers with glass containers

141) The worldwide number of nuclear reactors and their net capacity grew steadily from 1960, and

a) fluctuated randomly but with a strong correlation with the world economy and price of oil
b) briefly fell sharply after Three Mile Island (1979), rose again, and again fell after Chernobyl (1986)
c) leveled off between Three Mile Island (1979) and Chernobyl (1986).
d) did not begin to level off until Chernobyl (1986)

142) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) dissonance
b) octave
c) fifth

143) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) up
b) zero
c) down

144) "External forcings" refer to effects that can either increase or decrease, the Earth's temperature.

a) true
b) false

145) This algorithm halts if it starts at 0:
* Add 3
* If the number is divisible by 10, add 10
* Stop if the number exceeds 100
* Go to top

a) true
b) false

146) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion
b) How bright it is as viewed from Earth
c) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away
147)
Calculate the quantum correlation:
C(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) +2/5
b) +1
c) 0
d) −1/5
e) +1/5
f) −2/5

148) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Egyptian names transcribed into Greek

a) true
b) false

149) Greenhouse warming acts to warm the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

150) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) None of these is correct

151) Soot tends to warm the earth when it accumulates in atmospheric brown clouds.

a) true
b) false

152) To create an unpolarized pendulum oscillation

a) create an elliptically polarized wave with an 0.2<ε<0.8
b) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε<0.8
c) start with a linear, circular, or elliptical wave and slowly evolve to different polarizations
d) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε>0.2

153) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
b) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis
c) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
d) No, the clouds would get hot

154) What remains nearly the same after a single saros cycle has occured?

a) phase of moon and earth-moon distance
b) phase of moon and position of moon relative to the background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)
c) phase of moon and position of sun relative to background stars (i.e. zodiacal location)

155) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 100°. What is the probability that it passes?

a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 3/4
d) 1/4
e) 0

156) No direct method exists that permits an independent measurement of the heat content of the oceans, other than the fact that the air is warming

a) true
b) false

157) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) south
b) zero
c) north
d) west
e) east

158) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as anything but "two"?

a) 5/6
b) 4/6
c) 1/6
d) 2/6
e) 3/6

159) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

a) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
b) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied
c) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly

160) Babbage's account of the origin of the difference engine in the 1820s was that he was working to satisfy the Astronomical Society's desire to improve The Nautical Almanac.

a) true
b) false

161) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) northeast
b) north
c) southwest
d) northwest
e) south

162) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 8.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

163) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the east
b) zero
c) to the west

164) Manchester acquired the nickname __________ during the early 19th century owing to its sprawl of ______

a) Cokopolis, coke processing plants
b) Coalopolis, coal mines
c) Cottonopolis, textile factories
d) Weavopolis, Weaving factories

165) The focal point is where

a) rays meet if they are parallel to each other
b) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
c) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
d) the center of the lens
e) rays meet whenever they are forming an image

166) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once a 5 months
b) once every 5 years
c) once every 50 years

167) As the Sun, Moon, and planets seem to move around the Earth, they remain close to a circle, called the ecliptic, that can be drawn on paper or imagined in the sky. The Babylonians divided this circle into 12 unequal sections of approximately 30 degrees each, and labeled the sections after the zodiacal constellations.

a) true
b) false

168) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that any student could write on any text editor if they learn the magic words introduced in this quiz.

a) True
b) False

169) Which statement is FALSE about the lede's map of the temperature anomaly (2000-2009)?

a) The United States has warmed more than Australia
b) all portions of Antarctica have warmed
c) Northern Asia has warmed more than southern Asia
d) Central Europe has warmed more than the continental United States

170) The first nuclear power plant to contribute to the grid was situated in

a) Oak Ridge
b) Great Britain
c) Russia
d) Virginia

171) Uranium is approximately ______________ than silver in the Earth's crust.

a) 4 times less common
b) 4 times more common
c) 40 times more common
d) 40 times less common

172) The α-strategy in the couples version of the card game is similar to the strategy introduced in the solitaire version, and calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
b) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
c) None of these describes the α-strategy
d) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
e) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"

173) Your pet lizard is thirsty every 3 days and hungry every 5 days. If she is both thirsty and hungry today, she will be both thirsty and hungry ____ days later

a) 5
b) 15
c) 30
d) 8

174) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 0?

a) ${\displaystyle 3}$
b) ${\displaystyle 0}$
c) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
d) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
e) ${\displaystyle 4}$

175) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

a) Reverberation usually stifles the beats
b) Echo usually stifles the beats
c) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard
d) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.

176) An example of a standard candle is

a) a supernova in a distant galaxy
b) all of these are standard candles
c) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark
d) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

177) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows little or no temperature rise over the last ____ years

a) 300
b) 10
c) 3
d) 100
e) 30

178) The Antikythera wreck was situated closer to Rome than to Greece.

a) true
b) false

179) The Industrial Revolution lasted just under _____ years

a) 100
b) 400
c) 300
d) 200
e) 500

180) A local college averages 1600 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 10
b) 16
c) 32
d) 40
e) 160

181) The lede's "CO2 Emissions per Year" graph (1990-2010) shows solid straight lines that represent

a) estimates of the contributions from everything except fossil fuels
b) estimates of the contributions from fossil fuels alone
c) estimates made in the year 2000 of what would happen in the future
d) estimates of the impact on land temperatures
182) If the machine is at A: 000110, what's next?
a) B: 001100
b) A: 000110
c) A: 001110
d) B: 000110
183)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

184) Greenhouse warming acts to cool the stratosphere

a) true
b) false

185) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 4.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 6.0 meters
e) 3.0 meters
186)
Calculate the measured probability:
P(♠,) = ?
Assume the dots represent five observations.
a) 2/5
b) 2/4=1/2
c) 5/6
d) 3/5
e) 3/4

187) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power passes the filter?

a) 3mW
b) 9mW
c) 4mW
d) 6mW
e) 8mW

188) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that students cannot write without special software and/or a detailed knowledge of wikitext.[4]

a) True
b) False

189) Puddling involved

a) stirring with a long rod and was never successfully mechanised.
b) the use of coke instead of coal greatly reduced the cost of producing pig iron
c) the use of coke instead of coal and led to much strong iron
d) stirring with a long rod and became much cheaper when steam engines replaced manual stirring

190) The dominant industry of the Industrial Revolution in terms of employment, output and invested capital was

a) farm equipment
b) military spending
c) ship building
d) textiles
e) railroads

191) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 45° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 9mW
b) 4mW
c) 6mW
d) 8mW
e) 3mW

192) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative interference
b) positive diffraction
c) positive interference
d) negative diffraction

193) Although it decreases the rate at which the partners lose point, increasing the probability of asking the same question is more effective at persuading students to act as particles by relying on the α-strategy because relying on a larger penalty for giving different answers to the same question will tempt students to use the β-strategy only briefly (hoping never to be caught) and then requesting a break to "re-establish" quantum entanglement.

a) True
b) False

194) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, women did the ______ and men did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the women required ______ person hours.

a) spinning, weaving, more
b) spinning, weaving, fewer
c) weaving, spinning, fewer
d) weaving, spinning, more

195) Evidence suggests that it was not possible to set the Antikythera device without referring to a written table to ascertain the dial settings for a given date.

a) true
b) false

196) The Keeling curve shows that carbon dioxide concentrations

a) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and irregular fluctuations due associated with El Ninos and La Ninas.
b) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, at constant slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations
c) show a steady rise in CO2 levels, with increasing slope, and regular and predictable annual fluctuations

197) The largest temperature increases (from 2000-2009) have occurred

a) near the poles
b) on the ocean surface
c) near the equator
d) in the western hemisphere

198) A system that uses levers, pulleys, or other mechanical device to perform calculations is called an analog computer

a) true
b) false

199) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was preceded by such use on the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false
200)
This figure is associated with
a) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
c) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.
d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
e) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)

201) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of ______, with other metals included ______

a) copper;   to make it withstand corrosion.
b) copper;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.
c) copper;   to make it hard.
d) iron;   as impurities that served little or no purpose.

202) One concern is that long term nuclear waste management is now being performed by a number of private waste management companies

a) true
b) false

203) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from properly run nuclear plants is ___________ the radiation created by burning coal

a) 100 times more than
b) 100 times less than
c) 10 times more than
d) about the same as
e) 10 times less than

204) One concern about fast breeder reactors is that the uranium reserves will be exhausted more quickly

a) true
b) false

205) Suppose referee adopts neutral scoring with Q=4 and asks the same question with a probability PS=0.25. This reduces the average loss rate for their partners for the following reason: Consider a probability space with

a) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
b) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning twice but losing once. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and neither gain nor lose a point.
c) 4 equally probable events: On three they are given different questions, winning once but losing twice. On the fourth event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
d) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning twice. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.
e) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different questions, winning once and losing once. On the third event they are given the same answer and lose a point.

206) Saros (or Sar) was the Babylonian word for the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

207) The Turing machine was a(n) ______ device

a) digital
b) electromechanical
c) conceptual
d) prototype
e) analog

208) The purpose of Eli Whitney's cotton gin was to

a) clean cotton
b) weave cotton
c) pick cotton
d) remove seeds
e) spin cotton

209) Ocean temperatures are increasing more slowly than land temperatures because oceans have more heat capacity and because evaporation cools the water.

a) true
b) false

210) The urban heat island effect refers to the fact that urban areas tend to be hotter than rural areas. The urban heat island effect is estimated to account for approximately _____ of the temperature rise over the past century.

a) 0.3%
b) 30%
c) 0%
d) 3%
211) If the machine is at B: 000110 , what's next?
a) A: 001110
b) B: 000111
c) B: 001110
d) A: 001110

212) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the four seasons.

a) true
b) false

213) The preferred attribution is CC0, with the author's ___ optional.

a) username
b) employer
c) none of these
d) full name
e) email address

214) Babbage's use of punch cards in the 1930s to solve a problem posed by the Astronomical Society was later adopted to the Jacquard loom.

a) true
b) false

215) A rise in the sea level is associated with global warming because

a) water tends to expand as it warms
b) both of these are true
c) ice and snow melts

216) A low density rope is connected to a rope with higher density (i.e. more kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along the low density rope towards the high density rope,

a) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
b) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
c) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
d) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency

217) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters. The second is oriented 30° from the first, and the third is rotated by an additional 60°, making it at right angles from the first filter. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?

a) 3/16
b) 1/8
c) 1/16
d) 3/32
e) 1/32

218) The law of reflection applies to

a) both flat and curved surfaces
b) telescopes but not microscopes
c) flat surfaces
d) only light in a vacuum
e) curved surfaces

219) By definition, a skewed distribution

a) is asymmetric about it's peak value
b) contains no outliers
c) is a "normal" distribution
d) is broader than an unskewed distribution
e) includes negative values of the observed variable

220) If an eclipse occurs, a simlar eclipse will occur at the next Saros(roughly 18 years later). At this eclipse, the ______ will be the same. (Pick the best answer.)

a) time of day
b) day of the month
c) season of the year

221) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 1.1
b) 3.3
c) 2.2
d) 4.4
e) 9.9

222) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet until the thermal (infra-red) radiation away the planet rises to match the solar radiation onto the planet

a) true
b) false

223) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.5?

a) ${\displaystyle 4}$
b) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
c) ${\displaystyle 3}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
e) ${\displaystyle 0}$

224) The Waste Isolation Pilot Plant in New Mexico

a) was originally a research and development facility but is now under private ownership
b) can no longer nuclear waste from production reactors because it is full
c) is currently taking nuclear waste from production reactors

225) is it cheating for one of the partners to change mind in after communication ceases?

a) It is not cheating, and allowing to partners to do this is in the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
b) It is cheating, but fortunately the penalty allows partners to do it
c) It is not cheating, but allowing to partners to do so violates the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
d) It is cheating and the game should be terminated if the partners are caught doing this

226) A 2008 report from Oak Ridge National Laboratory concluded that the dose to the public from radiation from coal plants is ___________ the radiation nuclear plants (excluding the possibility of accidental discharges of radioactive material

a) 100 times more than
b) 10 times more than
c) 100 times less than
d) 10 times less than
e) about the same as

227) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following wins?

a) K and K♣
b) two of these are true
c) K and K♠
d) K♠ and K♣
e) none of these are true

228) The reprocessing of spent Uranium worsens the problem of long term waste storage

a) true
b) false

229) The 2007 IPCC report stated that most global warming was likely being caused by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases produced by human activities. Among the science academies of the major industrialized nations, this finding was recognized by

a) all but the US academy of science
b) 60% of the academies of science
c) all of the academies of science
d) 90% of the academies of science

230) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the west
c) to the east

231) A major change in the metal industries during the era of the Industrial Revolution was the replacement of wood and other bio-fuels with coal. Compared to wood, coal required

a) about the same labour to mine, but was more abundant than wood.
b) less labour to mine and was also more abundant.
c) less labour to mine, but was less abundant (until the Rineland coal fields were discovered).

232) Which was developed first, nuclear power generation or nuclear weapons?

a) they were developed simultaneously
b) nuclear weapons
c) nuclear power generation

233) The distinction between the urban heat island effect and land use changes is that the latter involves the earth's average temperature while the former involves only the temperature near weather stations where the measurements are made

a) true
b) false

234) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 22.0 meters
b) 19.0 meters
c) 20.0 meters
d) 23.0 meters
e) 21.0 meters

235) How would you describe the "skew" of a binary distribution?

a) None of these are true.
b) Distributions are never skewed. Only experimental measurements of them are skewed.
c) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a large number of trials n.
d) The binary distribution is never skewed if it is a true binary distribution.
e) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a small number of trials n.
236)
A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters, each oriented 45° to the previous, as shown. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?
a) 1/32
b) 3/16
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
e) 3/32
237)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is P(prime), or the probability that the number is prime?
a) 0
b) 3/4
c) 5/4
d) 1/2
e) 1
f) 1/4

238) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

a) zero
b) down
c) up

239) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy?

a) The hotter object has a greater energy.
b) They have the same energy (since the holes are identical).
c) The larger object has a greater energy.
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

240) A mechanical analog computer uses pulleys, levers, wheels or some other motion to solve problems of a mathematical nature.

a) true
b) false

241) The Industrial Revolution began shortly before

a) the American revolution (1776)
b) World War I (1914)
c) the American civil war (1861)

242) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4 to A?

a) win 1 point
b) lose 3 points
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose Q points

243) After about __________ in a spent fuel pool the spent fuel can be moved to dry storage casks or reprocessed.

a) 5 years
b) 50 years
c) 5 months

244) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 5
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
e) 3

245) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 7.0 meters
b) 9.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 10.0 meters
e) 11.0 meters

246) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) win 3 points
b) be disqualified for cheating
c) lose 1 point
d) win 1 point
e) lose 3 points

247) During the Industrial Revolution, the best Chemists were trained in

a) Sweden
b) Great Britain
c) United States
d) Germany
e) Italy

248) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 6
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
e) 3

249) In the United States, reprocessing of spent Uranium

a) is not allowed due to nuclear weapon proliferation concerns
b) is not allowed due to waste management concerns
c) provides 20% of our fuel needs and allows the United States to export nuclear fuel
d) provides 5% of our fuel needs which is consumed within the United states

250) Compared with the first half of the twentieth century, the rate of earth's average temperature rise during the second (latter) half was

a) half as much
b) twice as much
c) about the same

251) What happens when water is heated?

a) it absorbs CO2
b) it expands at temperatures below 3.98°C and contracts above 3.98°C
c) it expands at temperatures above 3.98°C and contracts below 3.98°C

252) Your best friend's pet lizard is thirsty every 2 days, hungry every 3 days, and frisky every 5 days. If she is thirsty, hungry, and frisky today, whe will be thirsty, hungry, and frisky _____ days later

a) 30
b) 15
c) 10
d) 40

253) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What number does the penalty approach as the probability of asking the same question goes to 1?

a) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$
b) ${\displaystyle \infty }$
c) ${\displaystyle 0}$
d) ${\displaystyle 4}$
e) ${\displaystyle 3}$

254) Global dimming, caused by air-born particulates produced by volcanoes and human made pollutants

a) exerts a heating effect by absorbing infra-red radiation from earth's surface
b) exerts a cooling effect by increasing the reflection of incoming sunlight
c) is more related to the ozone problem than to global warming

255) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch

a) remains unchanged
b) becomes lower
c) becomes higher

256) The cryosphere refers to

a) the north and south poles
b) two of these are true
c) the upper atmosphere
d) the highest mountains

257) The Calico Acts were initially designed to protect

a) small manufacturers
b) the woollen industry
c) domestic cotton production
d) large manufacturers

258) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 3.0 meters
b) 5.0 meters
c) 2.0 meters
d) 4.0 meters
e) 1.0 meters
259)
If a number is randomly selected from the set {2,3,4,5}, what is the probability that it is both even and prime?
a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 3/4
d) 0
e) 5/4
f) 1

260) The carbon cycle

a) is a proposal to trade carbon credits.
b) describes how carbon is absorbed and emitted by the oceans, soil, plants, etc.
c) is an effort to store carbon in underground caves.

261) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) up
c) zero

262) The Sothic calendar of 365 days did not include an extra day every four years. As a consequence, it advanced by _____ days in 8 years

a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

263) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle 1}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$

264) Estimates of additional nuclear generating capacity to be built by 2035 fell by ______ percent after the Fukushima nuclear accident in 2011.

a) 90
b) 50
c) 10

265) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 6mW
c) 4mW
d) 3mW
e) 9mW

266) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) lose Q points
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose 3 points

267) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the shorter side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$

268) The magic symbols used in for the raw script are, :t, :!, :?, :-, :+ :$, :z, and begin each line of the quiz in "raw-script" form. a) True b) False 269) The months of the Antikythera device are labeled with Greek names transcribed into Egyptian hieroglyphs. a) true b) false 270) A system that uses tables of numbers is called an analog computer a) true b) false 271) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. a) true b) false 272) The first English-language usage of the word "computer" referred to a) a person b) an abacus c) counting rods d) Roman numerals 273) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution. a) 9.9 b) 2.2 c) 1.1 d) 3.3 274) The β-strategy is a new strategy introduced in the couples version of the card game that calls for a) Alice and Bob to always answer "even" b) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd" c) None of these describes the β-strategy d) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd") e) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd") 275) Chadwick's discovery of the neutron was significant because neutrons a) are an excellent fuel for nuclear power b) are not radioactive c) can be used to create radioactive material at a low price 276) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points a) north b) south c) southwest d) northeast e) northwest 277) According to Wikipedia, the amount of green house gasses associated with the construction and maintenance of nuclear power plants is ________ than the emissions associated with other renewable sources (wind, solar, and hydro power.) a) less b) about the same c) greater 278) If the wavelength λ associated with a photon is cut in half, the photon's energy E a) stays the same b) becomes twice as big c) becomes 4 times as big d) is reduced by a factor of 4 e) is cut in half 279) The Manhattan project made a) plutonium and enriched hesparium b) uranium and enriched plutonium c) plutonium and enriched uranium 280) How did the Antikythera mechanism compensate for leap years? a) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by a differential gear; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic. b) There was no need to compensate for the leap year because the Sothic calendar included a leap year every four years. c) Two concentric dials were independently adjusted by hand; one dial marked a 365 day calendar, and the other marked the position of the Sun with respect to the ecliptic. 281) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel? a) 14.0 meters b) 16.0 meters c) 13.0 meters d) 15.0 meters e) 17.0 meters 282) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points a) southeast b) southwest c) west d) northwest e) south 283) Emissions scenarios are a) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by the world's oceans b) estimates of changes in future emission levels of greenhouse gases c) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by agriculture d) estimates of how greenhouse gasses are absorbed and emitted by nature 284) The lede's graph of the "Global Land Ocean Temperature Index (1880-2013)" shows that since 1920, there has never been a decade of overall cooling a) true b) false 285) A photon is polarized at 10° when it encounters a filter oriented at 55°. What is the probability that it passes? a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 3/4 d) 1/4 e) 0 286) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 9.0 meters b) 11.0 meters c) 10.0 meters d) 8.0 meters e) 12.0 meters 287) What clue is cited to suggest that the Antikythera device was not the first of its kind? a) Chemical analysis of the bronze. b) Instructions for making other devices were found at the wreck site. c) The quality of its manufacture. d) Other boxes in the wreck seemed to have held similar devices. 288) The Stefan-Boltzmann law plays a central role in establishing a planets temperature as the sun heats the planet with thermal (infra-red) radiation adding to the other solar radiation onto the planet a) true b) false 289) The worst nuclear disaster on record occurred in Russia a) true b) false 290) According to Wikipedia, the prediction made in 1954 that electricity would someday be "too cheap to meter" was a) an argument that fossil fuels are so abundant that we don't need nuclear energy b) an effort to promote nuclear fusion as an energy source c) an effort to promote nuclear fission as an energy source 291) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls? a) The difference in path lengths creates more echo. b) Rough walls make for a louder sound. c) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation. 292) People don't usually perceive an echo when a) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound b) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive c) it arrives at a lower pitch d) it arrives at a higher pitch e) it arrives at exactly the same pitch 293) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 23.0 meters b) 25.0 meters c) 24.0 meters d) 27.0 meters e) 26.0 meters 294) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is a) down b) up c) zero 295) A photon is polarized at 5° when it encounters a filter oriented at 50°. What is the probability that it is blocked? a) 0 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) 3/4 e) 1/4 296) On the eve of the Industrial Revolution, when the textile industry was largely a cottage industry, men did the ______ and women did the _______. If a loom was used, the work done by the men required ______ person hours. a) spinning, weaving, more b) weaving, spinning, fewer c) weaving, spinning, more d) spinning, weaving, fewer 297) The two solid signals add to a (dashed) a) dissonance b) octave c) fifth 298) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution). a) 1 b) 9 c) 3 d) 6 e) 18 299) Suppose the referee selects neutral scoring with ${\displaystyle Q={\frac {4}{3}}\left({\frac {1-P_{S}}{P_{S}}}\right).}$ What is the penalty if the probability of asking the same question is 0.25? a) ${\displaystyle 4/3}$ b) ${\displaystyle 4}$ c) ${\displaystyle 3}$ d) ${\displaystyle \infty }$ e) ${\displaystyle 0}$ 300) How many latent (cancer) deaths are estimated to result from the Three Mile Island accident? a) zero b) from 0 to 1000 c) from 4000 to 25,000 301) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the different suit (different questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$) a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$ c) None of these is correct d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$ 302) The name "saros" (Greek: σαρος) was first given to the eclipse cycle by a) Hipparchus (Greek astronomer: 190 BC-120 BC) b) an unknown Babylonian c) Ptolemy (Greek astronomer who lived in Egypt: 90 AD-168 AD) d) Edmond Halley (A friend and colleage of Newton: 1656 AD-1742 AD) 303) Changes in ice-albedo refers to changes in a) how much CO2 is absorbed by the sun b) how much the Earth's surface absorbs or reflects incoming sunlight c) how much ice is melted during the summer months 304) The reprocessing of spent Uranium helps alleviate the problem of long term waste storage a) true b) false 305) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points a) northwest b) north c) northeast d) northeast e) southeast 306) The Earth's average surface temperature rose by approximately _______ per decade over the period 1906–2005. a) 0.7°C b) 7.0°C c) 0.07°C 307) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away? a) 1400km/s b) 350km/s c) 700km/s 308) Carbon dioxide contributes more to the greenhouse effect than does water vapor. a) true b) false 309) How does Wikipedia assess the prospects of commercial fusion power production before 2050? a) impossible b) expected c) unlikely d) likely 310) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter? a) 6mW b) 9mW c) 8mW d) 3mW e) 4mW 311) It has been estimated that farmland lost due to Fukushima accident will not be farmed for centuries a) true b) false 312) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 60° to that field? a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$ b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$ c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$ d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$ e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$ 313) For most of the period of the Industrial Revolution, the majority of industrial power was supplied by a) water and wind. b) steam and wind. c) water and steam. 314) How many years did it take before Europe made a device as sophisticated as the Antikythera mechanism? a) 1500 years b) 3000 years c) 15,000 years d) 300 years e) 30 years 315) in 2013, the IPCC stated that the largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion. Other important sources of CO2 are a) population growth b) cement production and land use changes c) cement production and waste disposal d) population growth and waste disposal 316) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel? a) 7.0 meters b) 11.0 meters c) 8.0 meters d) 9.0 meters e) 10.0 meters 317) More US nuclear submarines sank due to nuclear accidents than did Russian submarines a) true b) false 318) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points a) southwest b) north c) south d) northwest e) northeast 319) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5 to A? a) lose Q points b) win 1 point c) lose 3 points d) no points awarded or lost 320) The Miner's Friend a) provided ventilation b) was electrical lighting c) pumped water d) transported miners 321) The Atomic Age, published in 1945, predicted ... a) nuclear war b) that fossil fuels would go unused c) a world government to prevent nuclear war d) widespread radiation poisoning 322) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)? a) they all have nearly the same speed b) they have a wide variety of speeds c) they are not receding away from us d) the cluster is close to us 323) Analog computers were phased out by the dawn of the twentieth century (circa 1900) a) true b) false 324) Chemical analysis of the bronze used in the gears of the Antikythera device a) suggested that Greek technology was used. b) suggested that Roman technology was used. c) suggested that a number of such devices had been produced. d) was not possible due to the degree of corrosion. 325) What fraction of the world's electricity was produced by nuclear power in 2012? a) 63% b) 33% c) 13% d) 3% 326) Approximately what percent of global warming can be attributed to a long-term trend (since 1978) in the sun's energy? a) 10% b) 0% c) 50% d) 30% 327) A good place to see a sample raw script for conceptual quizzes is a) Miraheze b) Talk:QB/d zTemplateConceptual c) Quizbank d) mw:Extension:Quiz e) Wikipedia:Main_Page 328) The magic symbol ___ is optional and can be used for a hint for students, or advice for instructors. a) :! b) :? c) :+ d) :$
e) :t

329) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) positive interference
b) positive diffraction
c) negative diffraction
d) negative interference

330) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines
b) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines
c) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

331) In climate science, mitigation refers to:

a) adaptation to the effects of global warming
b) building systems resilient to the effects of global warming
c) reduction of green house emissions
d) climate engineering

332) It is expected that carbon emissions will begin to diminish in the 21st century as fossil fuel reserves begin to dwindle.

a) true
b) false

333) If a 3 eV photon strikes a metal plate and causes an electron to escape, that electron will have a kinetic energy that is

a) less than 3 eV
b) equal to 6 eV
c) zero
d) equal to 3 eV
e) greater than 3 eV
334)
A ____________ is a gear which has teeth that projects at right angles to the face of the wheel.
a) spiral bevel gear
b) crown gear
c) epicycle gear

335) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

336) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope towards the low density rope,

a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

337) Eclipse seasons last for approximately ______ and repeat just short of ______

a) six months;   54 years
b) 7 days;   one month
c) one month;   18 years
d) 34 days;   six months
e) six months;   18 years

338) The third worst nuclear disaster occurred in Russia (1957) and was kept secret for 30 years

a) true
b) false

339) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 20
b) 40
c) 50
d) 30
e) 60

340) Two black bodies of are created by cutting identical small holes in two large containers. The holes are oriented so that all the photons leaving one will enter the other. The objects have different temperature and different volume. Which object has the greater electromagnetic ("photon") energy density (energy per unit volume)?

a) The larger object has a greater energy density.
b) They have the same energy density (since the holes are identical).
c) The hotter object has a greater energy density.
d) No unique answer exists because two variables are involved (temperature and volume).

341) When is the referee allowed to observe Alice and Bob?

a) While their backs are turned, but not while they are discussing strategy (phase 1)
b) never
c) While they are discussing strategy (phase 1), but not while their backs are turned to each other.
d) The referee should carefully observe Alice and Bob all the time

342) In terms of lives lost per unit of energy generated, evidence suggests that nuclear power has caused ______ fatalities per unit of energy generated than the other major sources of energy.

a) less
b) comparable
c) more

343) If 1018 photons pass through a small hole in your roof every second, how many photons would pass through it if you doubled the diameter?

a) 4x1018
b) 2x1018
c) 6x1018
d) 8x1018
e) 1018

344) According to Wikipedia, the first large machine tool was used to

a) bore cylinders for steam engines steam engines.
b) plane rails for railroads
c) drill coal mines
d) shape plates for ship hulls

345) In the Phet lab for photoelectric effect, how was the electron's kinetic energy measured?

a) measuring polarization
b) stopping the electron with an applied voltage
c) measuring spin
d) deflecting the electron with a magnetic field
e) measuring both spin and polarization

346) Analysis of the uncertainties associated with feedback suggests that the "worst-case" scenario is easier to model.

a) true
b) false

347) Sothic calendar was an Egyptian calendar with twelve months of 30 days plus five intercalary days to keep the year synchronous with the Saros cycle.

a) true
b) false

348) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle 1}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
349) If the machine is at A: 000000, what's next?
a) B: 000010
b) A: 000010
c) B: 000100
d) A: 000100

350) The climate change community is divided between those who believe the goal should be to eliminate the earth's greenhouse effect altogether, and those who argue that we should attempt to minimize earth's greenhouse effect.

a) true
b) false
351)
This figure is associated with
a) The transfer of energy and momentum of a high energy photon of a nearly free electron.
b) A system similar to the one that led to the 1901 proposal that light energy is quantized as integral multiples of hf (except that Plank assumed that the walls were conductive.)
c) Photons striking metal and ejecting electrons (photo-electric effect explained in 1905)
d) Diffraction observed in light so faint that photons seemed to have no mechanism to interact with each other (observed in 1909)
e) Evidence presented in 1800 that light is a wave.

352) When light passes from glass to air

a) it bends towards the normal
b) the frequency decreases
c) the frequency increases
d) it bends away from the normal
e) it does not bend

353) Fuel rods spend typically ______ total now inside the reactor, generally until _____ of their uranium has been fissioned

a) 6 years;   30%
b) 6 years;   3%
c) 6 months;   3%
d) 6 months;   30%

354) While computer modeling indicate that the warming since 1970 is dominated by man-made greenhouse gas emissions, they are unable to conclusively ascertain whether the warming from 1910 to 1945 was anthropogenic.

a) true
b) false

355) The "Greenhouse effect schematic" in the section on "Temperature changes..." indicates that most of the energy from the Sun is absorbed at the earth's surface.

a) true
b) false

356) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is usually skewed

a) True
b) False

357) If an atom absorbs a photon with 4 eV energy, the atom's energy

a) increases by 2 eV
b) decreases by 2 eV
c) increases by 4 eV
d) stays the same
e) decreases by 4 eV

358) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 4mW
b) 8mW
c) 9mW
d) 3mW
e) 6mW

359) Stefan-Boltzmann radiation is called a negative feedback mechanism because if the sun's radiation increases, the Stefan-Boltzmann law ensures that more heat is lost from the planet to compensate.

a) true
b) false

360) The Antikythera device was dated to approximately

a) 100-150 BC
b) 300-350 BC
c) 300-350 AD
d) 500-550 BC

### ALL C0

1) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that any student could write on any text editor if they learn the magic words introduced in this quiz.

a) True
b) False

2) QB/b velocityAcceleration is an example of a conceptual quiz that students cannot write without special software and/or a detailed knowledge of wikitext.[5]

a) True
b) False

3) QB/a25GeometricOptics_thinLenses is an example of a numerical quiz that uses random numbers to generate a large number of equivalent renditions. It cannot be written by students until a convenient Python code is developed.

a) True
b) False

4) The magic symbols used in for the raw script are, :t, :!, :?, :-, :+ :$, :z, and begin each line of the quiz in "raw-script" form. a) True b) False 5) A good place to see a sample raw script for conceptual quizzes is a) mw:Extension:Quiz b) Talk:QB/d zTemplateConceptual c) Wikipedia:Main_Page d) Quizbank e) Miraheze 6) The magic symbol ___ serves to identify the title of the conceptual quiz a) :! b) :t c) :? d) :$
e) :+

7) The magic symbol ___ permits each question to be attributed independently.

a) :?
b) :t
c) :!
d) :$ e) :+ 8) The preferred attribution is CC0, with the author's ___ optional. a) email address b) none of these c) username d) employer e) full name 9) CCO is how Creative commons labels _____ (see w:special:permalink/841826293#Seven_regularly_used_licenses for answer) a) Non-commercial use only b) Public domain c) all of these d) Share alike e) Attribution to the author 10) The magic symbol ___ denotes the question a) :+ b) :t c) :? d) :! e) :$

11) The magic symbol ___ denotes the correct answer

a) :?
b) :t
c) :+
d) :!
e) :$ 12) The magic symbol ___ is optional and can be used for a hint for students, or advice for instructors. a) :$
b) :t
c) :+
d) :?
e) :!

13) When a table cloth is quickly pulled out from under dishes, they hardly move. This is because

a) the cloth is accelerating for such a brief time that there is little motion
b) objects don't begin to accelerate until after the force has been applied
c) the cloth is more slippery when it is pulled quickly

14) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) up
c) zero

15) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way up is

a) up
b) down
c) zero

16) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity on the way down is

a) down
b) up
c) zero

17) If you toss a coin into the air, the velocity while it as its highest point is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

18) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) south
b) north
c) southwest
d) northeast
e) northwest

19) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) north
b) south
c) southwest
d) northeast
e) northwest

20) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) northeast
b) northwest
c) southeast
d) northeast
e) north

21) A car is headed due north and increasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The velocity vector points

a) north
b) southwest
c) northeast
d) south
e) northwest

22) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning left because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) west
b) southeast
c) southwest
d) south
e) northwest

23) A car is headed due north and decreasing its speed. It is also turning right because it is also traveling in a perfect circle. The acceleration vector points

a) north
b) northeast
c) southeast
d) south
e) northwest

24) A car is traveling west and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) to the east
b) to the west
c) zero

25) A car is traveling east and slowing down. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the west
c) to the east

26) A car is traveling east and speeding up. The acceleration is

a) zero
b) to the east
c) to the west

27) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way up is

a) down
b) zero
c) up

28) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning west, the acceleration is

a) north
b) east
c) west
d) zero
e) south

29) A car is traveling in a perfect circle at constant speed. If the car is headed north while turning east, the acceleration is

a) west
b) east
c) north
d) zero
e) south

30) As the Moon circles Earth, the acceleration of the Moon is

a) in the same direction as the Moon's velocity
b) opposite the direction of the Moon's velocity
c) away from Earth
d) towards Earth
e) zero

31) If you toss a coin into the air, the acceleration on the way down is

a) up
b) down
c) zero

32) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 4.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 3.0 meters
d) 5.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

33) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 4 m/s in 5 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 11.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 7.0 meters
d) 9.0 meters
e) 10.0 meters

34) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 9.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 10.0 meters
d) 11.0 meters
e) 12.0 meters

35) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 1 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 5.0 meters
b) 9.0 meters
c) 8.0 meters
d) 7.0 meters
e) 6.0 meters

36) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 4 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 1 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 11.0 meters
b) 7.0 meters
c) 9.0 meters
d) 10.0 meters
e) 8.0 meters

37) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 4 m/s, in 2 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 2 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 20.0 meters
b) 19.0 meters
c) 22.0 meters
d) 21.0 meters
e) 23.0 meters

38) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 2 m/s in 3 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 6.0 meters
b) 4.0 meters
c) 5.0 meters
d) 3.0 meters
e) 7.0 meters

39) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 5 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 4 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 11.0 meters
b) 8.0 meters
c) 10.0 meters
d) 12.0 meters
e) 9.0 meters

40) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 18.0 meters
b) 19.0 meters
c) 16.0 meters
d) 17.0 meters
e) 20.0 meters

41) Mr. Smith starts from rest and accelerates to 3 m/s in 2 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 2.0 meters
b) 5.0 meters
c) 4.0 meters
d) 1.0 meters
e) 3.0 meters

42) Mr. Smith is driving at a speed of 7 m/s, when he slows down to a speed of 5 m/s, when he hits a wall at this speed, after travelling for 4 seconds. How far did he travel?

a) 25.0 meters
b) 27.0 meters
c) 26.0 meters
d) 24.0 meters
e) 23.0 meters

43) Mr. Smith starts at rest and accelerates to a speed of 2 m/s, in 6 seconds. He then travels at this speed for an additional 3 seconds. Then he decelerates uniformly, taking 4 seconds to come to rest. How far did he travel?

a) 15.0 meters
b) 17.0 meters
c) 16.0 meters
d) 14.0 meters
e) 13.0 meters

44) People don't usually perceive an echo when

a) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound
b) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive
c) it arrives at exactly the same pitch
d) it arrives at a higher pitch
e) it arrives at a lower pitch

45) Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

a) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.
b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.
c) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.

46) Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

a) reverberation instead of echo
b) echo instead of reverberation
c) neither reverberation nor echo
d) both reverberation and echo

47) A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope towards the low density rope,

a) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed
c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
d) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed

48) A low density rope is connected to a rope with higher density (i.e. more kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along the low density rope towards the high density rope,

a) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency
b) the high density rope supports a wave with a lower speed
c) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency
d) the high density rope supports a wave with a higher speed

49) What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

a) the wavelength gets longer
b) the wavelength gets shorter
c) the wavelength stays the same

50) When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

a) has higher frequency than the incident wave
b) both of these are true
c) has lower amplitude than the incident wave

51) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative interference
b) negative diffraction
c) positive interference
d) positive diffraction

52) These two pulses will collide and produce

a) negative diffraction
b) positive diffraction
c) negative interference
d) positive interference

53) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) fifth
b) octave
c) dissonance

54) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) octave
b) fifth
c) dissonance

55) The two solid signals add to a (dashed)

a) octave
b) fifth
c) dissonance

56) Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

a) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.
b) Echo usually stifles the beats
c) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard
d) Reverberation usually stifles the beats

57) A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

a) 50
b) 60
c) 40
d) 30
e) 20

58) If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch

a) remains unchanged
b) becomes higher
c) becomes lower

59) If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch

a) remains unchanged
b) becomes lower
c) becomes higher

60) Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

a) once every 50 years
b) once a 5 months
c) once every 5 years

61) If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

a) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines
b) there would be no shift in the spectral lines
c) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines

62) An example of a standard candle is

a) a supernova in a distant galaxy
b) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light
c) all of these are standard candles
d) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

63) If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

a) 1400km/s
b) 350km/s
c) 700km/s

64) The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

a) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away
b) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion
c) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

65) In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

a) the cluster is close to us
b) they have a wide variety of speeds
c) they all have nearly the same speed
d) they are not receding away from us

66) Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

a) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light
b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies
c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.
d) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

67) What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

a) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox
b) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis
c) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies
d) No, the clouds would get hot
68)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
69)
Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates
a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort
b) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object
c) how a farsighted person might see a distant object
d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

70) In optics, normal means

a) perpendicular to the surface
b) to the left of the optical axis
c) to the right of the optical axis
d) parallel to the surface

71) The law of reflection applies to

a) flat surfaces
b) both flat and curved surfaces
c) only light in a vacuum
d) telescopes but not microscopes
e) curved surfaces

72) When light passes from air to glass

a) it bends away from the normal
b) the frequency decreases
c) the frequency increases
d) it does not bend
e) it bends towards the normal

73) When light passes from glass to air

a) it bends away from the normal
b) it does not bend
c) the frequency decreases
d) it bends towards the normal
e) the frequency increases

74) An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

a) the Doppler shift
b) partial internal absorption
c) total internal reflection
d) total external refraction
e) the invariance of the speed of light

75) The focal point is where

a) the center of the lens
b) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens
c) rays meet whenever they are forming an image
d) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens
e) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

76) Which lens has the shorter focal length?

a) They have the same focal lengh.
b)
c)

77) If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

a) very far away
b) Two (of the other answers) are true
c) at infinity
d) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)
e) One focal length in front of the eye

78) After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

a) true
b) false

79) Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

a)
b)
c)

80) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 4♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) win 1 point
b) be disqualified for cheating
c) lose 1 point
d) lose 3 points
e) win 3 points

81) Your solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣, you would__

a) lose 1 point
b) win 1 point
c) win 3 points
d) lose 3 points
e) be disqualified for cheating

82) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following wins?

a) two of these are true
b) none of these are true
c) K and K♣
d) K♠ and K♣
e) K and K♠

83) You solitaire deck uses ♠ ♣ and your answer cards are 4 and 5. You select 4♠, 5♣, and 5. If the questions were Q♠ and Q♣. Which of the following loses?

a) none of these are true
b) K♠ and K♣
c) two of these are true
d) K and K♠
e) K and K♣

84) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 2
e) 6

85) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
e) 5

86) If you play the solitaire game 6 times, you will on average lose ___ times.

a) 2
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4
e) 3

87) If you play the solitaire game 3 times, you will on average win ___ times.

a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
e) 1

88) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is never skewed

a) True
b) False

89) The normal distribution (often called a "bell curve") is usually skewed

a) True
b) False

90) By definition, a skewed distribution

a) is a "normal" distribution
b) is broader than an unskewed distribution
c) contains no outliers
d) is asymmetric about it's peak value
e) includes negative values of the observed variable

91) The binomial distribution results from observing n outcomes, each having a probability p of "success"

a) True
b) False

92) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as "two"?

a) 1/6
b) 2/6
c) 4/6
d) 3/6
e) 5/6

93) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as anything but "two"?

a) 5/6
b) 4/6
c) 2/6
d) 3/6
e) 1/6

94) What is the probability of success, p, for a binary distribution using a six-sided die, with success defined as either a "two" or a "three"?

a) 2/6
b) 1/6
c) 3/6
d) 5/6
e) 4/6

95) How would you describe the "skew" of a binary distribution?

a) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a small number of trials n.
b) Distributions are never skewed. Only experimental measurements of them are skewed.
c) The binary distribution is never skewed if it is a true binary distribution.
d) None of these are true.
e) The binary distribution is always skewed, but has little skew for a large number of trials n.

96) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 6
b) 9
c) 1
d) 3
e) 18

97) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are observed, then 68% of the time the observed number of positive outcomes will fall within ±___ of the expected value if p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution).

a) 9
b) 6
c) 2
d) 3
e) 18

98) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 40 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 3.3
b) 1.1
c) 2.2
d) 9.9
e) 4.4

99) For a binomial distribution with n trials, the variance is σ2=np(1-p). If 90 trials are made and p=.11, the expected number of positive outcomes is__. Make the approximation that this binomial distribution is approximately a Gaussian (normal) distribution.

a) 2.2
b) 1.1
c) 9.9
d) 3.3

100) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 40 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 8
b) 16
c) 22
d) 12
e) 6

101) Recall that only 4.6% of the outcomes for a normal distribution lie outside of two standard deviations from the mean, and approximate the binomial distribution as normal for large numbers. If the variance is σ2=np(1-p) where n is the number of trials and p=.11 is the probability of a positive outcome for 90 trials, roughly 98% of the outcomes will be smaller than approximately __

a) 16
b) 12
c) 6
d) 8
e) 22

102) A local college averages 2500 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 50
b) 250
c) 150
d) 500
e) 200

103) A local college averages 1600 new incoming students each year. Suppose the pool of potential high school graduates in the local area is so large that the probability of a given student selecting this college is small, and assume a variance of σ2 equal to p(1-p). What standard deviation would you expect in the yearly total of new enrollees, assuming nothing changes in this population from year to year?

a) 10
b) 40
c) 16
d) 160
e) 32

104) The light is linearly polarized, the electric field is oriented ________to the direction of motion

a) perpendicular
b) all of these are possible
c) at 45 degrees
d) parallel

105) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) circular or linear
b) linearly
c) circular
d) circular or elliptical
e) linear or elliptical

106) A mathematically pure (strictly monochromatic) __________ wave (oscillation) that is unpolarized cannot be created

a) both can be created
b) electromagnetic
c) electromagnetic or pendulum
d) pendulum

107) To create an unpolarized pendulum oscillation

a) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε<0.8
b) create an elliptically polarized wave with an ε>0.2
c) create an elliptically polarized wave with an 0.2<ε<0.8
d) start with a linear, circular, or elliptical wave and slowly evolve to different polarizations

108) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle 1}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$

109) If the hypotenuse of a 45°-45° right triangle has a length of ${\displaystyle 1}$ what is the length of each side?

a) ${\displaystyle 2{\sqrt {2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle 1}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\sqrt {2}}}$

110) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the shorter side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$

111) If the hypotenuse of a 60°-30° right triangle has a length of 1 what is the length of the longer side?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$

112) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 30° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$

113) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. By what factor does a filter reduce the electric field if it is oriented 60° to that field?

a) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{2}}}$
b) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\sqrt {3}}{2}}}$
c) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{\sqrt {2}}}}$
d) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {1}{4}}}$
e) ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {3}{4}}}$

114) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power passes the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 3mW
c) 4mW
d) 9mW
e) 6mW

115) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 30° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 9mW
c) 6mW
d) 4mW
e) 3mW

116) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is blocked by the filter?

a) 3mW
b) 4mW
c) 9mW
d) 8mW
e) 6mW

117) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 60° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 8mW
b) 9mW
c) 3mW
d) 6mW
e) 4mW

118) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field.A 12 mW laser strikes a polarizing filter oriented 45° to the incoming axis of polarization. How much power is passed by the filter?

a) 4mW
b) 3mW
c) 9mW
d) 8mW
e) 6mW
119)
A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters, each oriented 45° to the previous, as shown. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?
a) 3/32
b) 1/16
c) 1/32
d) 3/16
e) 1/8

120) Hold a pendulum a moderate distance from equilibrium and release it by tossing it in a direction parallel to the displacement of the mass from equilibrium. The resulting polarization will be ____ (pick the best answer)

a) circular or elliptical
b) circular or linear
c) circular
d) linear or elliptical
e) linearly

121) A linear polarizer selects a component of the electric field. Also, the energy density of light is proportional to the square of the electric field. Unpolarized light impinges on three linear filters. The second is oriented 30° from the first, and the third is rotated by an additional 60°, making it at right angles from the first filter. What fraction of the power incident on the first filter emerges from the last?

a) 1/8
b) 1/32
c) 3/32
d) 3/16
e) 1/16
122)
Why is the referee smoking a pipe?
a) The CC-BY-SA license denies the right to modify File:Silhouette Mr Pipo.svg.
b) The paper's author either likes the pipe or was too busy to remove it.
c) The paper's author wishes to promote pipe smoking among college students.
d) It is nearly impossible for Inkscape to modify an svg file.

123) When is the referee allowed to observe Alice and Bob?

a) While they are discussing strategy (phase 1), but not while their backs are turned to each other.
b) never
c) The referee should carefully observe Alice and Bob all the time
d) While their backs are turned, but not while they are discussing strategy (phase 1)

124) is it cheating for one of the partners to change mind in after communication ceases?

a) It is not cheating, and allowing to partners to do this is in the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.
b) It is cheating and the game should be terminated if the partners are caught doing this
c) It is cheating, but fortunately the penalty allows partners to do it
d) It is not cheating, but allowing to partners to do so violates the spirit of the game as a Bell's test experiment simulation.

125) The β-strategy is a new strategy introduced in the couples version of the card game that calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
b) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
c) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
d) None of these describes the β-strategy
e) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")

126) The α-strategy in the couples version of the card game is similar to the strategy introduced in the solitaire version, and calls for

a) Alice and Bob to always answer "even"
b) Alice and Bob to sometimes give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
c) Alice and Bob to always give different answers (one "even" while the other "odd")
d) Alice and Bob to always answer "odd"
e) None of these describes the α-strategy

127) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the different suit (different questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) None of these is correct
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$

128) Suppose the referee gives Alice and Bob receive question cards of the same suit (same questions). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) None of these is correct

129) Suppose the partners choose the β strategy (which was not available in the solitaire version). What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
c) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
e) None of these is correct

130) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. What are the best and worst possible outcomes for the partners? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
b) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -Q}$
c) None of these is correct
d) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle +1}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$
e) Best for partners: ${\displaystyle 0}$ ... Worst: ${\displaystyle -3}$

131) Suppose both partners choose to answer "even" to any question that is asked. Why would such a strategy ever be adopted? (Assume for this question that ${\displaystyle Q>3}$)

a) One partner might announce that all answers will be "even", while the other is certain that the both question cards will have the same suit.
b) Both partners agree that there is a 90% chance that the two question cards will have the same suit.
c) Two of these reasons for this strategy might be valid
d) The partners might have cheated so much in the past that they need to lose a round.
e) There is no reason for the partners to ever adopt this strategy

132) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4 to A?

a) no points awarded or lost
b) win 1 point
c) lose 3 points
d) lose Q points

133) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5 to A?

a) win 1 point
b) no points awarded or lost
c) lose 3 points
d) lose Q points

134) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 4♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) lose 3 points
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose Q points

135) How much do the partners win or lose if Alice answers 4♠ to K♠ while Bob answers 5♠ to A♠?

a) win 1 point
b) lose Q points
c) no points awarded or lost
d) lose 3 points

136) Suppose referee adopts neutral scoring with Q=4 and asks the same question with a probability PS=0.25. This reduces the average loss rate for their partners for the following reason: Consider a probability space with

a) 3 equally probable events: On two they are given different que