User:Deltinu

$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}{1 \over i^2}$

This user contributes to the School of Mathematics.

Hello! I am a fairly recent addition to the Wikiversity community.

If you have any questions about Math (or Physics), please ask me on my talk page. I'll try to answer them to the best of my ability!

[edit] A little bit about me

Technically I am a "high-school student". However, I am homeschooled, and I have been taking classes at a community college. There, I have taken:

Mathematics
- MATH M25B, M25C
  - The second and third semesters of a typical three semester college Calculus sequence.
- MATH M22A
  - The generic course name for an "Independent Studies in Mathematics" class. In my particular independent study class, we got up to about Chapter 3 in "Fourier Analysis: An Introduction" by Stein and Shakarchi. This was the best math class I've taken at the college, despite (or perhaps because of) the difficulty of the concepts discussed.
Physics
- PHYS M20A/AL, M20B/BL
  - The first and second semesters of a typical (maybe?) three semester college Physics (with Calculus) sequences. It almost goes without saying, but I took the lab sections for each course.
    - First semester: Mechanics
    - Second semester: Thermodynamics and Electromagnetism
Chemistry
- CHEM M12
  - An introductory chemistry course. This class covered what I believe to be equivalent material to two semesters of "High-school" chemistry.
Computer Science
- CS M01
  - An introductory Computer Science course.
- CS M10A
  - The first semester of a two semester C++ programming sequence. Covers the mainly structured programming side of C++.
...in addition to other miscellaneous courses

e i π + 1 = 0

The fact that the fourier series for $f (x) = | x |$ can be used to find the value of $\zeta (2) = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}$ Why? It's so non-obvious and unexpected (at least it appears that way to me).