Homework2 R2.10

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Problem R*2.10: Solve the non-homogeneous L1-ODE-VC [edit]

sec11-5

We solved it on our own

Statement [edit]


The non-homogeneous L1-ODE-VC is


y'+\frac{1}{x}y=x^2

Show that


h(x)=x
and 
y(x)=\frac{x^3}{4}+\frac{k}{x}

Solution [edit]


We first check the exactness condition 1:

the original equation can be written as:


(\frac{1}{x}y-x^2)+y'=0,

(2.10.1)

which is in the form:


M(x,y)+N(x,y)y'=0

(2.10.2)

Here M(x,y)=\frac{1}{x}y-x^2 and N(x,y)=1. So the first exactness condition holds.

For exactness condition 2:



M_y=\frac{\partial M}{\partial y}=\frac{1}{x}

(2.10.3)


N_x=\frac{\partial N}{\partial x}=0

Then M_y \neq N_x. So the second exactness condition does not hold.

Assume a factor h(x,y). Let


\overline{M}(x,y)=h(x,y)M(x,y)

(2.10.4)


\overline{N}(x,y)=h(x,y)N(x,y)

\overline{M}(x,y)=h(x,y)M(x,y)

(2.10.5)

and


\overline{M}_y(x,y)=\overline{N}_x(x,y)

\overline{M}(x,y)=h(x,y)M(x,y)

(2.10.6)

Take the derivative of \overline{M}(x,y) and \overline{N}(x,y) with respect to y and x respectively:


\overline{M}_y(x,y)=h_y(x,y)M(x,y)+h(x,y)M_y(x,y)

(2.10.7)


\overline{N}_x(x,y)=h_x(x,y)N(x,y)+h(x,y)N_x(x,y)

(2.10.8)

Let the above two terms equal to each other:


h_y(x,y)M(x,y)+h(x,y)M_y(x,y)=h_x(x,y)N(x,y)+h(x,y)N_x(x,y)

(2.10.9)

We further assume that h=h(x), namely h is only the function of x. Then after plugging the expression of M_y and N_x into the equation, we have:


\frac{1}{x}h(x)=h_x(x)N=h_x(x)

(2.10.10)


\frac{h_x(x)}{h(x)}=\frac{1}{x}

(2.10.11)

Recall that


h_x(x)=\frac{dh}{dx}

(2.10.12)

Then the equation becomes:


\frac{dh}{h}=\frac{dx}{x}

(2.10.13)

We integrate both side of the equation:


\int_{-\infty }^{h}\frac{dh}{h}=\int_{-\infty }^{x} \frac{dx}{x}

(2.10.14)


ln(h(x))=lnx+C,

(2.10.15)

where C is the integral constant.


h(x)=e^{C}x=C_1x

(2.10.16)

Then


\overline M(x,y)+\overline N(x,y)y'=0

(2.10.17)


h(x)M(x,y)+h(x)N(x,y)y'=0

(2.10.18)


h(x)(\frac{1}{x}y-x^2)+h(x)y'=0

(2.10.19)

Note that


\frac{h_x(x)}{h(x)}=\frac{1}{x}

(2.10.20)



h(x)=xh_x(x)

(2.10.21)

Plug it into the first term of the equation to replace h(x) with xh_x(x):


(xh_x(x))(\frac{1}{x}y-x^2)+h(x)y'=0

(2.10.22)

We reorganize it to be:


h_x(x)y+h(x)y'-x^3=0

(2.10.23)


(h(x)y)'=h(x)x^2=C_1x^3

(2.10.24)

Then we can integrate both side of the equation with respect to x:


h(x)y=\int_{-\infty }^{x}C_1x^3=\frac{1}{4}C_1x^4+C_2

(2.10.25)


y=\frac{1}{h(x)}(\frac{1}{4}C_1x^4+C_2)

(2.10.26)



=\frac{1}{C_1x}(\frac{1}{4}C_1x^4+C_2)

(2.10.27)



=\frac{1}{4}x^3+\frac{C_2}{C_1x}

(2.10.28)

If we let the constant k=\frac{C_2}{C_1}, then we can get the required form of y(x):


y(x)=\frac{1}{4}x^3+\frac{k}{x}

(2.10.29)

For the required expression of h(x)=C_1x, we can let the integral constant C_1=1, then:


h(x)=C_1x=x

(2.10.30)

Thus, we have shown the expression of both h(x) and y(x) as required.

Author and References [edit]